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Question 1
Correct
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During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm above the inguinal ligament. The registrar is warned to look out for the inferior epigastric vessels to avoid damage. Between which layers of the abdominal wall is the registrar likely to find these vessels?
Your Answer: Transversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum
Explanation:The inferior epigastric vessels lie on the inner surface of the transversus abdominis muscle covered by the parietal peritoneum. This layer of peritoneum lies over the inferior epigastric vessels to make the lateral umbilical fold. Camper’s and Scarpa’s fascia are two layers of the superficial fascia, the fatty layer and the membranous layer respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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The normal location of the major duodenal papilla:
Your Answer: Descending part of the duodenum
Explanation:The major duodenal papilla is on the descending portion of the duodenum on the medial side, about 7-10cm from the pylorus. The pancreatic ducts and the common bile ducts unite and open by a common orifice on the summit of the duodenal papilla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery:
Your Answer: Brachial
Explanation:The brachial artery gives rise to a small branch at the middle of the arm, which is the superior collateral artery. It descends accompanied by the ulnar nerve and anastomoses with the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 4
Correct
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The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where physical examination reveals that he has limited extension of his right humerus. Which of the following nerves is most likely to have been injured?
Your Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve
Explanation:Extension of the humerus is a function of the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve which is a branch of the posterior cord of the plexus whose fibres are derived from cranial nerves V, VI and VII.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 6
Correct
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During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:
Your Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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Which nerve lies immediately medial to the psoas major muscle?
Your Answer: Obturator
Explanation:The obturator nerve is formed from the ventral divisions of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves. It courses through the fibres of the psoas major and emerges from the medial border near the pelvic brim.
The iliohypogastric nerve comes from the first lumbar nerve and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of psoas major.
The ilioinguinal nerve arises with the iliohypogastric nerve from the first lumbar nerve and also emerges from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle.
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve comes from the posterior division of the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerves to emerge from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle near its middle.
The femoral nerve also arises from the dorsal divisions, but of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves and courses through the muscle fibres to emerge at the lower part of the lateral border.
The coccygeal nerve doesn’t arise from the lumbar plexus but from the sacral plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It was a deep cut that led to profuse bleeding from an artery situated on the supinator muscle immediately below the elbow. The vessel most likely to have been injured is?
Your Answer: Radial recurrent artery
Explanation:The radial recurrent artery is situated on the supinator muscle then passing between the brachialis and the brachioradialis muscles. It originates from the radial artery and ends by anastomosing with the terminal part of the Profunda brachii.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 9
Correct
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After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is injured as well as the nerve which innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm. Which nerve is injured?
Your Answer: Musculocutaneous
Explanation:The musculoskeletal nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm including the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the greater part of the brachialis. This nerve derives its fibres from the fifth, sixth and seventh cervical nerves and arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. It also provides a branch to the elbow joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 10
Correct
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A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his right arm. On further examination it was found that any movements involving adduction, medial rotation and extension of her arm were particularly weak. Which nerve in this case was damaged?
Your Answer: Thoracodorsal
Explanation:Weakness on these particular movements indicate that there is a problem with the latissimus dorsi muscle. This muscle is very important particularly in swimming movements and is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 11
Correct
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During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long thoracic nerve. Which among the following muscles is likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle which holds the scapula forward and balances the rhomboids and the trapezius muscles which retract the scapula. Injury to this nerve results in a ‘winged scapula’ with a posterior protrusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation:The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 13
Correct
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A 20 year old is brought to the A&E after he fell from a moving cart. The boy has sustained blunt abdominal injury, and the there is a possibility of internal bleeding as the boy is in shock. An urgent exploratory laparotomy is done in the A&E theatre. On opening the peritoneal cavity, the operating surgeon notices a torn gastrosplenic ligament with a large clot around the spleen. Which artery is most likely to have been injured in this case?
Your Answer: Short gastric
Explanation:The short gastric arteries branch from the splenic artery near the splenic hilum to travel back in the gastrosplenic ligament to supply the fundus of the stomach. Therefore, these may be injured in this case.
The splenic artery courses deep to the stomach to reach the hilum of the spleen. It doesn’t travel in the gastrosplenic ligament although it does give off branches that do.
The middle colic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the transverse colon.
Gastroepiploic artery is the largest branch of the splenic artery that courses between the layers of the greater omentum to anastomose with the right gastroepiploic.
Left gastric artery, a branch of the coeliac trunk. It supplies the left half of the lesser curvature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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Regarding the extensor retinaculum of the wrist, which of these is CORRECT?
Your Answer: It prevents the tendons of the posterior compartment of the forearm from ‘bowstringing’ when the hand is extended at the wrist
Explanation:This extensor retinaculum, as the name indicates, holds the tendons of the extensors against the dorsal surface of the distal radius and ulna. Therefore, the correct answer is that it prevents bowstringing of the extensor tendons with wrist extension. It forms compartments between it and its bony attachment, and these compartments guide and hold the tendons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by the doctor they found that the diaphragm and the scapula were unaffected however the patient could not abduct his arm. When helped with abducting his arm to 45 degrees he was able to continue the movement. This means that he was unable to initiate abduction. Where is the likely site of injury?
Your Answer: Superior trunk
Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve
Explanation:The loss of ability to initiate abduction means paralysis of the supraspinatus muscle. This muscle is supplied by the supraclavicular nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The gastrosplenic ligament also known as the gastrolienal ligament is the structure that connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. Which of the following arteries would most likely be injured if a surgeon accidentally tore this ligament?
Your Answer: Splenic
Correct Answer: Short gastric
Explanation:The short gastric arteries arise from the end of the splenic arteries and form five to seven branches. The short gastric arteries inside the gastrosplenic ligament from the left to the right, supply the greater curvature of the stomach. The hepatic artery proper runs inside the hepatoduodenal ligament. The right gastric artery and the left gastric artery are contained in the hepatogastric ligament. The caudal pancreatic artery branches off from the splenic artery and supplies the tail of the pancreas. The middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon. The splenic artery does not travel in the gastrosplenic ligament and so it would not be damaged by a tear to this ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen, the operating doctor discovers the large bowel is perforated. Which of the following characteristics of the bowel enabled the surgeon to identify it as the large bowel?
Your Answer: Epiploic appendages
Explanation:The large intestine doesn’t have a continuous layer of longitudinal muscle. Instead, it has three strips of longitudinal muscle called taenia coli. The large intestine is covered with omental appendages that are fat filled. It is also folded into sacculations called haustrations. Serosa is a general term for the outermost coat or serous layer of a visceral structure that lies in the body cavities of the abdomen or thorax.
Complete circular folds are only found in the small intestine.
Valvulae conniventes or valves of Kerckring are the circular folds which are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia. When this is viewed from the side of the abdomen with a laparoscope, in which region would the hernial sac be?
Your Answer: Medial inguinal fossa
Explanation:In a direct inguinal hernia, visceral contents exit the abdomen through a weak point in the fascia in the medial inguinal fossa i.e. the area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds. Such a hernia doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring or the lateral inguinal fossa. Note that direct hernias can go through the superficial inguinal ring, although rarely. The supravesical fossa, between the median and medial umbilical folds, is formed by a peritoneal reflection from the anterior abdominal wall onto the bladder and the retrovesical fossa is the region behind the urinary bladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on the skin of her mons pubis. Which nerve supplies the skin of the mons pubis?
Your Answer: Anterior labial
Explanation:Anterior labial branch is the terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve that innervates the skin of the mons pubis in women and the skin of the anterior scrotum in men.
The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve innervates the upper medial thigh.
The iliohypogastric innervates muscles of the abdominal wall.
The subcostal nerve innervates muscles of the abdominal wall and the skin of the lower abdominal wall.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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The following branch of the aorta is unpaired:
Your Answer: Coeliac artery
Explanation:Branches that stem from the abdominal aorta can be divided into three: the visceral branches, parietal branches and terminal branches. Of the visceral branches, the suprarenal, renal, testicular and ovarian arteries are paired while the coeliac artery and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are unpaired. Of the parietal branches the inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries are paired while the middle sacral artery is unpaired. The terminal branches i.e. the common iliac arteries are paired.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Correct
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During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old man, the surgeon asked the registrar to look at the medial inguinal fossa to identify the direct inguinal hernia. To do so, she would have to look at the area that is between the:
Your Answer: Medial umbilical ligament and inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The medial umbilical fold is made by the medial umbilical ligament-which is the obliterated portion of the umbilical artery, while the lateral umbilical fold is a fold of peritoneum over the inferior epigastric vessels. The median umbilical fold is a midline structure made by the median umbilical ligament i.e. the obliterated urachus. The medial inguinal fossa is the space on the inner abdominal wall between the medial umbilical fold and the lateral umbilical fold. It is place in the abdominal wall where there is an area of weak fascia i.e. the inguinal triangle through which direct inguinal hernias break through. The lateral inguinal fossa on the other hand is a space lateral to the lateral umbilical fold. Indirect inguinal hernias push through this space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each side of its lateral ends, the right and left. The left colic flexure found on the side of the descending colon is attached to an organ superiorly by a mesenteric ligament. Which organ is this?
Your Answer: Spleen
Explanation:The left colic flexure is the bend of the transverse colon as it continues to form the descending colon on the left upper quadrant. The spleen is located on the superior aspect of the left colic flexure. It is commonly referred to as the splenic flexure because of its relation o the spleen superiorly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow area and damaging the nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. What is the most likely result from that injury?
Your Answer: Flexion in the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5
Explanation:The nerve injured in this situation is the ulnar nerve. It passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus before going between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle. This nerve supplies the muscles and skin of forearm and hand. At the level of medial epicondyle, the injury will led to paralysis in flexor carpi ulnaris and the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus as well as the palmar interossei and hypothenar muscles in the hand. The correct answer will be that the boy will suffer from inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 24
Correct
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A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the extension and adduction of his arm. He had a previous penetrating wound in the area of the posterior axillary fold. Which of these muscles is the likely cause?
Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:All the criteria of this case points towards the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is greatly involved in extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm and forms the posterior axillary fold which in this case was injured.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 25
Correct
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A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at C8 level. What would likely be seen in this patient?
Your Answer: The hypothenar muscles would be completely paralysed
Explanation:The eighth cervical nerve is one of the contributors of the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve supplies the hypothenar muscles which include the opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and palmaris brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following organs of the abdominal cavity is completely covered by the peritoneum?
Your Answer: Spleen
Explanation:Of the organs listed, the spleen is the only organ that is completely intraperitoneal, that is entirely in the peritoneum. Other completely intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, liver, appendix and the small intestines. The kidney, Inferior vena cava, aorta and the suprarenal glands are all retroperitoneal organs. The pancreas and the duodenum are partially retroperitoneal, with the tail of the pancreas in the peritoneum found in the splenorenal ligament while only the first part of the duodenum is intraperitoneal. For the intraperitoneal organs remember SALTD SPRSS
S = Stomach
A = Appendix
L = Liver
T = Transverse colon
D = Duodenum (only the 1st part)
S = Small intestines
P = Pancreas (only the tail)
R = Rectum (only the upper 3rd)
S = Sigmoid colon
S = Spleen
For retroperitoneal, just remember SADPUCKER:
S = suprarenal glands
A = Aorta and IVC
D = Duodenum (all but the 1st part)
P = Pancreas (all but the tail)
U = Ureter and bladder
C = Colon (ascending and descending)
K = Kidneys
E = Oesophagus
R = Rectum (Lower two-thirds)
For secondarily retroperitoneal remember ‘Pussy Cat Dolls“:
P = Pancreas
C = Colon (only ascending and descending)
D = Duodenum (only parts 2-4) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node metastasis. The doctor said he will excise the tumour and remove all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the edge of the pectoralis minor muscle. One of the following axillary lymph nodes won't be removed by this procedure. Which is it?
Your Answer: Apical
Explanation:The apical lymph node group won’t be removed which include 20 to 30 lymph nodes.
Axillary lymph nodes are grouped according to location. The lateral group, the anterior to pectoral group, the posterior or subscapular group, the central group, and the medial or apical group. The lateral, pectoral, and subscapular groups are found lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle. The central group is situated directly under that muscle. Thus, if all lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed, all the above four groups will be removed. The apical group won’t be removed which is situated medial to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 28
Correct
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During clinic, a medical student conducts a physical examination on a teenage boy with a lump in the inguinal region. The lump is protruding from the superficial inguinal ring. The student correctly concluded that it was:
Your Answer: Either a direct or an indirect inguinal hernia
Explanation:It is not possible to tell if an inguinal hernia is direct or indirect just by palpating it. Despite the fact that indirect inguinal hernias commonly come out of the superficial inguinal ring to enter the scrotum, direct inguinal hernia might still do this.
Femoral hernia goes through the femoral ring into the femoral canal (has nothing to do with the superficial inguinal ring).
Superficial inguinal lymph nodes lie in the superficial fascia parallel to the inguinal ligament; it would therefore feel more superficial and would not be mistaken for a hernia protruding through the inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Correct
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During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured his pelvis and shattered his coccyx following a motorbike accident. It is mentioned that he is likely to have lacerated his middle sacral artery from this kind of injury. Where does the middle sacral artery branch from?
Your Answer: Abdominal aorta
Explanation:The middle sacral artery arises from behind the aorta a little above the point of its bifurcation to descend down in front of L4,5, the sacrum and coccyx.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Correct
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An abdominal aortogram shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which of the following segments of bowel is most likely to have preserved arterial supply?
Your Answer: Caecum
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the end of the transverse colon and all distal structures in the gastrointestinal tract i.e. splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum would all be deprived of blood if it were occluded. The caecum receives blood from the superior mesenteric artery so it would not be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 31
Correct
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The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?
Your Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules
Explanation:The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands. He first removed the left adrenal gland before moving on to the right one. However, the registrar noticed that the removal of the right adrenal gland would be a challenge because of an overlying structure. What was this structure that overlies the right suprarenal glad?
Your Answer: Right renal artery
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The adrenal glands or the suprarenal glands are small glands that are found on top of each of the kidneys. They are retroperitoneal glands. The right adrenal gland is found on top of the right kidney and is closely associated with the inferior vena cava as it directly drains into this large vein. In the case where the right adrenal gland is to be surgically removed, the inferior vena cava might prove a problem to manoeuvre as it overlies the right suprarenal gland. The other blood vessels such as the aorta, right renal, superior mesenteric, splenic artery and the hepatic vein as well as the right crus are not closely associated with either of the suprarenal glands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 33
Correct
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A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?
Your Answer: Perineum
Explanation:Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 34
Correct
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The nutcracker effect of the alimentary canal is described as a nutcracker-like compression caused by the aorta and the superior mesenteric arteries on a certain section of the alimentary canal leading to bowel obstruction. Which of the following parts of the alimentary canal is usually obstructed by this nutcracker compression of the two arteries?
Your Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:The ‘nutcracker effect’ is only seen in one part of the alimentary canal, and that is in the third part of the duodenum. This can happen when the superior mesenteric artery that passes across the duodenum and the aorta, posteriorly to the third part of the duodenum enlarges and starts compressing the duodenum. The result is an obstructed duodenum that inhibits passage of food.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed on his head and shoulder tip, stretching the left side of his neck. A neurological examination revealed that the fifth and sixth cervical nerves had been torn from the spinal cord. What is the most obvious clinical manifestation of this?
Your Answer: Adduction
Correct Answer: Abduction
Explanation:In the case of injuries to the upper roots of the brachial plexus there is complete loss of abduction. The muscle performing this movement is the supraspinatus. This initiates the movement, followed by the deltoid muscle, which allows for complete abduction. Both these muscles are innervated by nerves originating from C5 and C6. The injury to these roots results in a condition named Erb-Duchenne’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 36
Correct
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The muscle that forms the posterior wall of the axilla along with the scapula, subscapularis muscle and teres major muscle is the?
Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi forms the posterior wall of the axilla along with the scapula. It is responsible for extension, adduction, transverse extension also known as horizontal abduction, flexion from an extended position, and (medial) internal rotation of the shoulder joint. It also has a synergistic role in extension and lateral flexion of the lumbar spine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 37
Correct
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An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot abdominal injury through the right iliac fossa. It is found that the ileocolic artery is severed and the bullet had perforated the caecum. From which branch does the ileocolic artery originate?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Ileocolic artery branches off from the superior mesenteric artery. It then divides to give a superior and inferior branch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 38
Correct
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A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?
Your Answer: Left renal vein
Explanation:The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 39
Correct
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The oesophagus is an important part of the alimentary canal. It receives blood from various arteries in the body. Which one of the following is an artery that will lead to some level of ischaemia to the oesophagus when ligated?
Your Answer: Left inferior phrenic
Explanation:The oesophagus receives its blood supply from the following arteries: the inferior thyroid branch of the thyrocervical trunk, the descending thoracic aorta, the left gastric branch of the coeliac artery and the from the left inferior phrenic artery of the abdominal aorta. Hence ligation of the left inferior phrenic will lead to ischemia to some portions of the oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 40
Correct
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When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the upper limb are you resting on?
Your Answer: Olecranon process of the ulna
Explanation:At the upper and back part of the ulna, there exists a curved eminence which is the olecranon process. This process lodges in the olecranon fossa of the humerus. It’s posterior surface is subcutaneous and this triangular area is what you rest your elbow upon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 41
Correct
-
An ultrasound report of a 35-year old female patient revealed that she had cancer of the pancreas and presented with subsequent severe obstructive jaundice. In which part of this was woman's pancreas was the tumour most likely located?
Your Answer: Head
Explanation:The pancreas is divided into five parts; the head, body, neck, tail, and the uncinate process. Of the five parts, tumours located at the head of the pancreas in most instances cause obstruction of the common bile duct more often than tumours in the other parts of the pancreas. This is because the common bile duct passes through the head of the pancreas from the gallbladder and the liver (it is formed where the cystic and the hepatic bile duct join) to empty bile into the duodenum. This biliary obstruction leads to accumulation of bile in the liver and a consequent bilirubinaemia (raised levels of blood bilirubin). This results in jaundice. The pancreas is not divided into lobes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 42
Correct
-
A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E with symptoms of acute haemorrhagic shock. An emergency endoscopy is done that shows that a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be the cause of the haemorrhage?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal
Explanation:The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the hepatic artery and descends near the pylorus between the first part of the duodenum and the neck of the pancreas to divide at the lower border of the duodenum into the right gastroepiploic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries. Before it divides, it gives off a few branches to the pyloric end of the stomach and to the pancreas. The artery that is most likely involved in this situation is the gastroduodenal artery since it is posterior to the first part of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 43
Correct
-
A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through the deep inguinal ring. This was during an operation to repair an inguinal hernia. Which structure is most likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Round ligament of the uterus
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring transmits the spermatic cord in the man and the round ligament of the uterus in the female. It is bound below and medially by the inferior epigastric vessels (so these don’t go through it).
The ilioinguinal nerve, although it courses through the inguinal canal, does not pass through it.
The iliohypogastric nerves run between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis in the abdominal wall, piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to travel just deep to the external oblique.
The inferior epigastric artery runs between the transversus abdominis and the peritoneum forming the lateral umbilical fold.
The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated umbilical artery that it lies within the medial umbilical fold of peritoneum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 44
Correct
-
A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?
Your Answer: Posterior rectus sheath
Explanation:Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 45
Correct
-
A surgeon ligates the left superior suprarenal artery whilst preforming a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left superior suprarenal artery originate?
Your Answer: Left inferior phrenic artery
Explanation:The superior suprarenal arteries arises from the inferior phrenic artery on either side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 46
Correct
-
During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. This is:
Your Answer: Is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching of the small intestine. It usually occurs about 0.6 m (2 feet) before the junction with the caecum. It can be lined with the mucosa of the stomach and may ulcerate. It may also be lined by ectopic pancreatic tissue. It represents the remains of the vitelline duct in early fetal life.
An abnormal persistence of the urachus is called a urachal fistula.
Failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity is called an omphalocele.
Polyhydramnios is often caused by anencephaly or oesophageal fistula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 47
Correct
-
Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward and medially. What structure limits the straight-vertical-downward movement?
Your Answer: Left colic flexure
Explanation:The left colic flexure (also known as the splenic flexure), is the point where the colon takes a sharp turn downwards. It is the point where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins. It is located immediately inferior to the spleen so an enlarged spleen must move medially to avoid this colic flexure.
The left suprarenal gland is retroperitoneal.
The Ligament of Treitz suspends the fourth part of the duodenum from the posterior abdominal wall.
The stomach, pancreas and liver lie medial to the spleen and thus would not prevent a vertical downward movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
An old man fell and fractured a carpal bone articulating with the pisiform bone. Which bone was most likely fractured?
Your Answer: Capitate
Correct Answer: Triquetral
Explanation:The pisiform bone has an oval facet for articulation with the triquetral bone. The pisiform bone is a sesamoid bone, and is anterior to the other carpal bones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 49
Correct
-
A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a diagnosis of perforation of the first part of the duodenum that resulted from a long standing ulcer. If this perforation led to the expulsion of the gastric content that resulted to the erosion of an artery found in this part of the duodenum (the posterior of the first part of the duodenum). Which of the following arteries is this most likely to be?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal
Explanation:The proximal part of the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery. This artery is found descending behind the first part of the duodenum after branching from the hepatic artery. If gastric content was to be expelled in the posterior portion of the first part of the duodenum, then this artery would be most likely to be damaged. The common hepatic artery and the left gastric artery are branches of the coeliac trunk that are found superior to the duodenum. The proper hepatic artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery also found superior to the duodenum. The superior mesenteric artery is found behind the pancreas as a branch of the aorta that is at the bottom of the L1 level. The right gastric artery arises above the pylorus from the proper hepatic artery and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach. The intestinal arteries supply the ileum and the jejunum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, the artery that supplies blood to the pancreas and the duodenum, is a branch of the:
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery together with the right gastroepiploic artery form the two branches of the gastroduodenal artery which divides at the lower border of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 51
Correct
-
A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the registrar conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lies immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was likely punctured?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured.
The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured.
The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen.
Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
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Question 52
Correct
-
A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?
Your Answer: T10
Explanation:The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 53
Correct
-
A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following nerves?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:A ‘claw hand’ is associated with injury to the ulnar nerve at the wrist affecting the interossei, lumbricals and hypothenar muscles of the hand. It is characterized by hypothenar eminence wasting, hyperextended metacarpophalangeal joints and flexed interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 54
Correct
-
A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to the casualty after he had fallen from the 3rd floor of a building. An examination carried out revealed tenderness on the left mid-posterior axillary line and low blood pressure. Further palpation revealed a large swelling that protruded downward and medially below the left costal margin. X-rays showed that the 9th and the 10th ribs were fractured near their angles. Considering these results, which abdominal organ was likely injured by the fractured ribs.
Your Answer: Spleen
Explanation:The spleen, left kidney, stomach, the splenic flexure of the colon and the suprarenal glands are all in the same quadrant- the left upper quadrant. However, the spleen is the most readily injured organ when there is fracture to the 10th, 11th and the 12th ribs because of its close association with these ribs. This patient exhibits a great indication of a ruptured spleen (tenderness on the left mid and posterior axillary line). The spleen is a thin capsulated organ with a spongy parenchyma, allowing it to bleed profusely in the event of injury. The liver, head of the pancreas and the duodenum are all in the right upper quadrant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 55
Correct
-
A 35 year old patient presenting with haematemesis, heart burn and bloody stool was diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer that had eroded the gastroduodenal artery. The patient was then rushed into theatre for an emergency procedure to control the haemorrhage. If the surgeon decided to ligate the gastroduodenal artery at its origin, which of the following arteries would most likely experience retrograde blood flow from collateral sources as a result of the ligation?
Your Answer: Right gastroepiploic
Explanation:In the stomach and around the duodenum, there are many arterial anastomoses. Ligation of the gastroduodenal artery would result in the retrograde flow of blood from the left gastroepiploic artery to the right gastroepiploic artery. The blood flows into the right gastroepiploic artery, a branch of the gastroduodenal artery from the left gastroepiploic artery that branches from the splenic artery. This retrograde blood flow is aimed at providing alternate blood flow to the greater curvature of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 56
Correct
-
A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus contains the axillary nerve and the?
Your Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery
Explanation:This quadrangular space transmits the posterior circumflex humeral vessels and the axillary nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 57
Correct
-
What is the arterial sequence for an analgesic to reach the latissimus dorsi muscle assuming that your starting point is at the subclavian vein?
Your Answer: Subclavian – axillary – subscapular – thoracodorsal
Explanation:Assuming our starting point is the subclavian artery, the analgesic continues in the same vessel into the axillary artery, as it passes into the axilla. The axillary artery at the lower border of the subscapularis gives rise to the subcapsular artery which is considered the largest branch of the axillary artery. This circumflex scapular branch distributes a serratus branch before entering the substance of the muscle as the thoracodorsal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 58
Correct
-
While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?
Your Answer: Pubic tubercle
Explanation:At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.
Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.
The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.
The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.
The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 59
Correct
-
The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, assuming that the gastrointestinal tract is rotated normally:
Your Answer: Distal jejunum, caecum, vermiform appendix
Explanation:The abdomen is divided by theoretical anatomic lines into four quadrants. The median plane follows the linea alba and extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis and splits the abdomen in half. The transumbilical plane is a horizontal line that runs at the level of the umbilicus. This forms the upper right and left quadrants and the lower right and left quadrants. Structures in the right lower quadrant include: caecum, appendix, part of the small intestine, ascending colon, the right half of the female reproductive system, right ureter. Pain in this region is most commonly associated with appendicitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 60
Correct
-
A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior surface of his wrist was lacerated with loss of sensation over the thumb side of his palm. Which nerves have been damaged?
Your Answer: Median
Explanation:The median nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the palmar radial three and a half fingers. Also the site of injury indicates that the medial nerve may have been injured as it passes into the hand by crossing over the anterior wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 61
Incorrect
-
A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the pancreas was to undergo whipple's operation to have the tumour removed. During the surgery, the surgeon had to ligate the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery to stop blood supply to the head of the pancreas. Which of the following arteries does the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery branch from?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery or from the first intestinal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. Once given off, it runs to the right between the pancreatic head and the duodenum and then ascends to form an anastomosis with the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 62
Correct
-
A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia. It passes through the superficial inguinal ring. Which nerve is it most likely to be?
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal
Explanation:The ilioinguinal nerve doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring but enters the inguinal canal from the side and leaves by passing through the superficial ring thus it is at risk of injury during inguinal hernia repair.
The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve travels lateral to the superficial inguinal ring.
The iliohypogastric nerve and the subcostal nerve travel superior to the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring.
The obturator nerve is a branch of the lumbar plexus that innervates the muscles of the thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 63
Correct
-
A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in damage to an artery running with the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle. The artery injured is the?
Your Answer: Superior ulnar collateral
Explanation:The superior ulnar collateral artery runs posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, accompanied by the ulnar nerve. This artery arises from the brachial artery near the middle of the arm and ends under the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle by anastomosing with two arteries: the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 64
Correct
-
During a procedure to treat an ulcer in the first part of the duodenum, the most appropriate site to make the incision on the anterior abdominal wall to approach this ulcer would be the:
Your Answer: Epigastric region
Explanation:The abdomen is divided into nine regions for descriptive purposes. The epigastric region contains the first part of the duodenum, part of the stomach, part of the liver and pancreas. This would be the region that the surgeon would need to enter to access the ulcer.
Typically, a midline incision in the epigastric region, extending from just below the xiphoid process down to the umbilicus, provides excellent access to the first part of the duodenum.
The left inguinal region contains the sigmoid colon.
The left lumbar region contains the descending colon and kidney.
The right lumbar region contains the right kidney and descending colon.
The right hypochondrial region contains part of the liver and gall bladder.
The hypogastric region contains the urinary bladder and the rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 65
Correct
-
During an exploratory laparotomy a herniation of bowel is identified between the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis, the inguinal ligament and the inferior epigastric vessels. These boundaries define the hernia as being a:
Your Answer: Direct inguinal hernia
Explanation:The boundaries given define the inguinal triangle which is the site for direct inguinal hernias. Indirect inguinal hernias occur lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
Femoral hernias protrude through the femoral ring, into the femoral canal.
Umbilical hernias protrude through a defect in the umbilical area.
Obturator hernias, occur through the obturator foramen. These are very rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 66
Correct
-
Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?
Your Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle
Explanation:The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
The LEAST mobile structure in the peritoneal cavity is the:
Your Answer: Greater omentum
Correct Answer: Pancreas
Explanation:The presence or absence of the mesentery determines mobility of abdominal contents. Structures like the stomach, transverse colon and appendix have mesenteries and thus are relatively mobile. In contrast, the pancreas is a retroperitoneal (behind the peritoneum) structure and therefore is fixed. The greater omentum is a large mobile fold of omentum that hangs down from the stomach .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 68
Correct
-
Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?
Your Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)
Explanation:The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 69
Correct
-
What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus?
Your Answer: Lower subscapular
Explanation:The muscle is the subscapularis muscle which is supplied by the lower subscapular nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 70
Correct
-
A retroperitoneal structure is:
Your Answer: Pancreas
Explanation:Retroperitoneal structures are those that are found behind the peritoneum. They include: kidneys, suprarenal glands, bladder, ureter, inferior vena cava, rectum, oesophagus (part of it), part of the pancreas, 2nd, 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum and ascending and descending parts of the colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 71
Correct
-
A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of his left humerus. Which of the following arteries is suspected to be injured in this case?
Your Answer: Posterior humeral circumflex
Explanation:The posterior humeral circumflex artery arises from the axillary artery and runs with the axillary nerve through the quadrangular space which is bounded laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. After winding around the surgical neck of the humerus, it is distributed to the deltoid muscle and the shoulder joint. Thus fractures in the surgical neck of the humerus could result in an injury to this artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 72
Correct
-
The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing an indirect inguinal hernia in a female patient. Which structure could this be?
Your Answer: Round ligament of the uterus
Explanation:The main structure traversing the inguinal canal in women is the round ligament. In men, it is the spermatic cord.
The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the abdominal wall and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles before piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to run between the internal and external obliques.
The inferior epigastric artery is between the peritoneum and the transversus abdominis creating the lateral umbilical fold.
The ovarian artery and the ovarian vein are branches from the descending aorta and inferior vena cava that supply the ovary in the pelvic cavity.
The pectineal ligament is a thick fascial layer over the pectineal line of the pubis. It doesn’t traverse the canal.
The broad ligament if found on the lateral sides of the uterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 73
Correct
-
A patient gives a history of dull discomfort in her abdomen associated with pain that she points to be on her right shoulder and right scapula. The following organs are most likely to be source of her pain:
Your Answer: Liver, duodenum and gallbladder
Explanation:Referred pain is felt at a point away from the source of the pain or the unpleasant sensation. It arises when a nerve is damaged or compressed at a point but the pain is felt at another site that is the territory of that nerve. Common abdominal causes of referred pain to the shoulder and the shoulder blade are the liver, duodenum and gall bladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation over it still being intact. What is the injured nerve in this case?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:Atrophy of the thenar muscles means injury to the motor supply of these muscles. The nerve that sends innervation to it is the median nerve. But the median nerve does not provide sensory innervation to the overlying skin so sensation is spared.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 75
Correct
-
Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?
Your Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium
Explanation:The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 76
Correct
-
A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the pancreases, accidentally injured a structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancrease which bled out. Which structure is most likely to have been injured?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancreas is the superior mesenteric vein. The neck of the pancreas lies anterior to the superior mesenteric vein, which joins with the splenic vein to form the portal vein.
The superior mesenteric artery (SMA) is also located in proximity to the neck of the pancreas. Specifically, the SMA emerges from the abdominal aorta just below the level of the pancreas and passes posterior to the neck of the pancreas before it descends into the mesentery to supply the intestines. Thus, both the superior mesenteric vein and the superior mesenteric artery are key vascular structures related to the posterior aspect of the neck of the pancreas.
Bleeding out would suggest an arterial injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps On examination, it was found that her left proximal radioulnar joint had dislocated and the annular ligament was stretched. This will make which movement extremely painful?
Your Answer: Elbow flexion
Correct Answer: Supination
Explanation:Supination is the rotation of the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces anteriorly. This is performed by the biceps brachii and supinator of the extensor muscles of the thumb. The opposite action of moving the palm from an anterior-facing position to a posterior-facing position is called pronation. Pronation is performed by the pronator teres and pronator quadratus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 78
Correct
-
Which of the following structures is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium of the stomach during the development of the gut?
Your Answer: Greater omentum
Explanation:In a developing foetus, the stomach has two mesogastria from which most of the abdominal ligaments develop. These two mesogastria are the; ventral mesogastrium and the dorsal mesogastrium. During the embryological development of the gut, different organs develop in each mesogastrium; the spleen and pancreas in the dorsal mesogastrium while the liver in the ventral mesogastrium (with their associated ligaments). In the dorsal mesogastrium the following structures develop; the greater omentum (containing the gastrophrenic ligament and the gastrocolic ligament), gastrosplenic ligament, mesentery, splenorenal ligament and phrenicocolic ligament. The structures that develop from the ventral mesogastrium include the; lesser omentum (containing the hepatoduodenal ligament and the hepatogastric ligament) in association with the liver; the coronary ligament (left triangular ligament, right triangular ligament and hepatorenal ligament) and the falciform ligament (round ligament of liver and ligamentum venosum within).
There are also folds that develop from the dorsal mesogastrium which include; umbilical folds, supravesical fossa, medial inguinal fossa, lateral umbilical fold, lateral inguinal fossa and Ileocecal fold.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 79
Correct
-
A surgical registrar performing an adrenalectomy procedure on the left suprarenal gland of a 25 - year old male patient, accidentally jabbed and injured a vital structure that lies anterior to the left suprarenal organ. Which of the following was the structure most likely injured?
Your Answer: Pancreas
Explanation:The adrenal (suprarenal) glands are organs of the endocrine system located on top of each of the kidneys. The left suprarenal gland, in question, is crescent in shape and slightly larger than the right suprarenal gland. It is posteriorly located to the lateral aspect of the head of the pancreas which is thus the most likely to be injured. The other organs like the duodenum, liver and the inferior vena cava are related to the right suprarenal gland. The spleen and the colon are not in close proximity with the left suprarenal gland and are not likely to be the organs injured.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 80
Correct
-
A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted in him unable to move the proximal radioulnar joint of his right arm. Which muscles was affected?
Your Answer: Pronator teres
Explanation:The correct answer is the pronator teres muscle. This muscle arises from 2 heads of origin: the humerus and ulnar. Between the 2 heads is the site of entrance of median nerve to the forearm. This muscle acts on the proximal radio-ulnar joint to rotate the radius on the ulna, otherwise known as pronation. It also assists in forearm flexion if the radius is fixed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident and emergency following a fall down stairs shows a fractured olecranon process of the right ulna with the line of fracture passing through the superior surface, disrupting a muscle. Which among the following muscles was most likely injured?
Your Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus
Correct Answer: Triceps brachii
Explanation:The superior surface of the olecranon process forms an attachment for the insertion of the triceps brachii on the posterior aspect. It also has a minor transverse groove for the attachment of part of the posterior ligament of the elbow on the anterior aspect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 82
Correct
-
Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (also known as the foramen of Winslow)?
Your Answer: Hepatic
Explanation:The epiploic foramen is an important anatomical opening that allows for the communication between the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. Its boundaries are formed; superiorly by the caudate lobe of the liver, anteriorly by the hepatoduodenal ligament (containing the components of the portal triad), inferiorly by the first part of the duodenum and posteriorly by the peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava. The superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, which forms the inferior boundary of the foramen of Winslow, forms the course of the hepatic artery before it ascends to the porta hepatis where it divides into its right and left branches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 83
Correct
-
Which of the following muscles are involved in abduction of the wrist?
Your Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis and flexor carpi radialis
Explanation:The muscle of the wrist that cause abduction of the wrist otherwise also know as radial flexion of the wrist are the following:
-Abductor Pollicis Longus
-Flexor Carpi Radialis
-Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
-Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 84
Correct
-
Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The adductors of the fingers are the palmer interossei. They are supplied by the ulnar nerve, which is a branch of the medical cord of the brachial plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 85
Correct
-
A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the hand to the medial side of the arm along the course of the large cutaneous vein. Which vein is involved?
Your Answer: Basilic
Explanation:The basilic vein is one of two veins found in the forearm, the other is the cephalic vein. These veins originate from the deep venous arch of the hand. The cephalic vein ascends along the lateral side of the forearm, and the basilic vein runs up the medial side of the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 86
Correct
-
When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding ulcer of the lesser curvature of the stomach, which artery in this patient are you most likely to ligate to control the bleeding?
Your Answer: Left gastric
Explanation:The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the left gastric artery along with the right gastric artery. These two arteries are the ones to most likely be ligated if bleeding was to be stopped at the lesser curvature of the stomach. The splenic artery branches from the celiac branch and supplies the spleen. The left gastro-omental, the right and left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 87
Correct
-
A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?
Your Answer: Lateral pectoral
Explanation:The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 88
Correct
-
The annular ligament in the forearm:
Your Answer: Encircles the head of the radius
Explanation:The annular ligament forms about four-fifths of the osseofibrous ring and is attached to the anterior and posterior margins of the radial notch. It is a strong band of fibres which encircles the head of the radius retaining it in contact with the radial notch of the ulna. When it comes to its upper border, it blends with the anterior and posterior ligament of the elbow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 89
Correct
-
During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did not find the appendix on entering the peritoneal cavity. She, however, remained calm as she knew she could find it by:
Your Answer: Looking at the confluence of the taenia coli
Explanation:The vermiform appendix arises from the apex of the caecum. Although it has a constant base, it can pass in one of several directions such as upward behind the caecum, to the left behind the ileum and mesentery or downward into the lesser pelvis. It is retained in place by a peritoneal fold, the mesoenteriole derived from the left leaf of the mesentery. Taenia coli meet at the appendix which is the terminal portion of the caecum. The appendix is below the ileocecal valve, not above. It is not near the right colic artery (which supplies the ascending colon). It would not be found by removing a layer of the jejuno-ileum and is not in the pelvic brim.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 90
Correct
-
A 42 year old man with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) underwent an abdominal aortic angiography which revealed that his inferior mesenteric artery was occluded. If this patient showed no symptoms, the most likely reason is that the area the inferior mesenteric artery supplies, must be supplied by collateral blood flow from which arteries?
Your Answer: Left and middle colic
Explanation:The arterial branches that form an anastomosis between the superior mesenteric artery and the inferior mesenteric artery are the left colic artery and the middle colic artery. The middle colic artery is the most distal branch of the superior mesenteric artery while the left colic forms the most proximal branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. These two arteries will give collateral blood flow in the case that the inferior mesenteric artery gets occluded. The superior mesenteric artery gives off the following branches; ileocolic, appendicular, ileal artery, right colic and middle colic arteries. The left colic, sigmoid and superior rectal arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery. The marginal artery branches off directly from the abdominal aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 91
Correct
-
Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the other behind his back. This resulted in a stretching of the lateral rotator of the arm. Which of the following muscles was most likely to have been involved?
Your Answer: Infraspinatus
Explanation:There are two lateral rotators of the arm, the infraspinatus and the teres minor muscles. The infraspinatus muscle receives nerve supply from C5 and C6 via the suprascapular nerve, whilst the teres minor is supplied by C5 via the axillary nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 92
Correct
-
During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater curvature of the stomach. Where do the short gastric arteries branch from?
Your Answer: Splenic artery
Explanation:Short gastric arteries arise from the splenic artery at the end or from its terminal divisions. They are about 5 or 7 in number, passing from the left to the right in between the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament to be distributed along the greater curvature of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 93
Correct
-
Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to the stomach?
Your Answer: Splenic
Explanation:The splenic artery is the large artery that would be found running off the posterior wall of the stomach. It is a branch of the coeliac trunk and sends off branches to the pancreas before reaching the spleen. The gastroduodenal artery on the other hand is found inferior to the stomach, posterior to the first portion of the duodenum. The left gastroepiploic artery runs from the left to the right of the greater curvature of the stomach. The common hepatic artery runs on the superior aspect of the lesser curvature of the stomach, and is a branch of the coeliac trunk. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta just below the junction of the coeliac trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 94
Correct
-
Where does the ejaculatory duct open into?
Your Answer: Prostatic urethra
Explanation:There are two ejaculatory ducts, one on either side of the midline. Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicles with the ductus deferens. They start at the base of the prostate and run forward and downward between the middle and lateral lobes and along the side of the prostatic utricle to end in the prostatic urethra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 95
Correct
-
During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the extraperitoneal connective tissue (preperitoneal fat) that courses vertically and just medial to the bowel as the bowel passes through the abdominal wall. Which artery is this?
Your Answer: Inferior epigastric
Explanation:The inferior epigastric artery comes from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament to curve forward in the subperitoneal tissue and then ascend obliquely along the medial margin of the deep inguinal ring. It continues to ascend between the rectus abdominis and the posterior lamella of its sheath after piercing the fascia transversalis and passing anterior to the linea semicircularis. Finally it gives off numerous branches that anastomose above the umbilicus with the superior epigastric branch of the internal mammary artery and with the lower intercostal arteries. As this artery ascends obliquely upwards from its origin it lies along the lower medial margins of the deep inguinal ring and posterior to the start of the spermatic cord. It is found in the preperitoneal fat of the abdomen lying just superficial to the peritoneum and forms the lateral umbilical fold. Hernias that pass lateral to this are indirect and medial to this, direct hernias.
The deep circumflex artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall. It is very lateral to the abdominal wall and hernias would pass medial to it.
The superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal arteries are all superficial arteries found in the superficial fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 96
Correct
-
A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected the arteria princeps pollicis. This artery is a branch of the?
Your Answer: Radial artery
Explanation:The radial artery branches into the arteria princeps pollicis as it turns medially into the deep part of the hand. The arteria princeps pollicis is distributed to the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the thumb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 97
Correct
-
During an operation for a sigmoid colectomy the surgeon ligates the sigmoid arteries. From which artery do the sigmoid arteries branch?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Sigmoid arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery (IMA). Sigmoid artery gives off branches that supply the lower descending colon, the iliac colon and the sigmoid colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and needles in the dorsum of the thumb and digits 1 and 2. On further examination they found that he had weakness in wrist dorsiflexion and finger extension. Which nerve do you think is injured in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial
Explanation:The radial nerve can be injured in multiple sites along its course in the upper limb, and each site has its own presentation. The major complaint is wrist drop which if high above the elbow, can cause numbness of the forearm and hand. It can last for several days or weeks. The most common site of compression for the radial nerve is at the proximal forearm in the area of the supinator muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left suprarenal
Explanation:The left suprarenal vein empties into the left renal vein which crosses the vertebral column to reach the inferior vena cava. The left renal vein also receives the left gonadal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of the bones at his wrist joint. The doctors told his parents that the fractured bone has special importance as it is that bone that articulates with the distal end of the radius. Which one of the following is it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scaphoid
Explanation:It is the scaphoid bone that articulates with the radius at this level. It is located at the radial side of the wrist and is considered the largest bone in the proximal row of carpal bones. It articulates with the radius via its superior surface. This bone also articulates with trapezium and trapezoid bones via the inferior surface, capitate and lunate medially.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric
Explanation:The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:
– The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.
– The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.
– The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.
– The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.
– The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 60-year old man with a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia underwent emergency surgery to relieve large bowel obstruction resulting from a segment of the bowel being strangulated in the hernial sac. The most likely intestinal segment involved is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon
Explanation:The sigmoid colon is the most likely segment involved as it is mobile due to the presence of the sigmoid mesocolon. The descending colon, although on the left side, is a bit superior and is also retroperitoneal. The ascending colon and caecum are on the right side of the abdomen. The rectum is too inferior to enter the deep inguinal ring and the transverse colon is too superior to be involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became worse after he started playing basket ball over the last three months. He was admitted to the orthopaedic ward to have elbow braces fitted. What type of synovial joint is the elbow joint?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hinge
Explanation:The elbow joint is one of the many synovial joints in the body. This joint is an example of the hinge joint as the humerus is received into the semilunar notch of the ulna and the capitulum of the humerus articulates with the fovea on the head of the radius, together acting as a hinge in one plane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Which nerve in this case was injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous
Explanation:The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles. The first one flexes the elbow and the shoulder. It is also involved in supination. The brachialis muscle flexes the forearm. The injury to the musculocutaneous nerve results in paralysis of these muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the inguinal ligament?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The inguinal ligament is the inferior border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis and extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle from whence it is reflected backward and laterally to attach to the pectineal line and form the lacunar ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right crus
Explanation:The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
Following a lacerating injury along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle in the neck, a man has the point of his shoulder (scapula) sagging and he has difficulty with full abduction of his arm. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accessory (cranial nerve XI)
Explanation:Injury to the accessory nerve denervates the trapezius muscle so that the person will no longer be able to raise the acromion of the shoulder. The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the rhomboids i.e. major and minor and the levator scapulae so that injury to this nerve weakens retraction of the scapula. The greater occipital nerve is responsible for sensation of the posterior scalp. The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle which is responsible for abduction of the arm and the suprascapular nerve is responsible for rotating the humerus laterally. Cutaneous nerves supply the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
The vascular structure found on the right side of the fifth lumbar vertebra is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The most likely vascular structure is the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is formed by the joining of the two common iliac arteries, the right and the left iliac artery, at the level of the fifth lumbar vertebra( L5). The inferior vena cava passes along the right side of the vertebral column. It enters the thoracic cavity into the underside of the heart through the caval opening of the diaphragm at the level of the eight thoracic vertebra (T8).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
The Brunner glands secrete an alkaline product that helps maintain an optimal pH for pancreatic enzyme activity. Where are these glands located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Submucosa of the duodeneum
Explanation:The Brunner glands are located in the submucosa of the duodenum. These glands are connected to the interstitial lumen by ducts that open into certain crypts. They secrete an alkaline product that protects the duodenal mucosa from the acidic chyme and helps achieve an optimal pH for the enzymes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding ruptured spleen, the surgeon decided to clamp the splenic artery near the coeliac trunk to stop the bleeding. Which of the following organ/s parts will be least affected by the clamping?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:The duodenum is the only organ in the list that would not be affect by the clumping of the splenic artery as it is supplied by common hepatic artery (through the gastroduodenal artery) and the superior mesenteric artery (through the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery). The splenic artery is the artery that supplies the spleen with oxygenated blood. The splenic artery before reaching the spleen also gives off branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas. The greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach is supplied the short gastric artery which branches off from the splenic artery. The left portion of the greater curvature of the stomach together with the greater omentum is supplied by the left gastro-omental artery of the splenic artery. The body and tail of the pancreas is supplied by branches of the splenic artery through the dorsal and superior pancreatic arteries and the caudal pancreatic arteries respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The thoracic duct passes through the opening at T12
Explanation:The diaphragmatic openings are:
T8 – opening for the inferior vena cavaand the right phrenic nerve
T10 – opening for the oesophagusand the left gastric artery and vein
T12 – opening for the aorta, the thoracic duct and azygos vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
A 70-year old man had had a large indirect inguinal hernia for 3 years. He presents at the out patient clinic complaining of pain in the scrotum. There is, however, no evidence of obstruction or inflammation. You conclude that the hernial sac is most probably compressing the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The ilioinguinal nerve arises together with the iliohypogastric nerve from the first lumbar nerve to emerge from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle just below the iliohypogastric and passing obliquely across the quadratus lumborum and iliacus muscles. It perforates the transversus abdominis, near the anterior part of the iliac crest and communicates with the iliohypogastric nerve between the internal oblique and the transversus. It then pierces the internal oblique to distribute filaments to it and accompanying the spermatic cord through the subcutaneous inguinal ring, is distributed to the skin of the upper and medial parts of the thigh, the skin over the root of the penis and the upper part of the scrotum in man and to the skin covering the mons pubis and labium majus in the woman. As the ilioinguinal nerve runs through the inguinal canal, it could easily be compressed by a hernial sac.
The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve provides sensory innervation of the upper medial thigh.
The femoral nerve innervates the compartment of the thigh and also has some cutaneous sensory branches to the thigh.
The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh. The subcostal nerve innervates the skin of the anterolateral abdominal wall and the anterior scrotal nerve is a terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal hiatus
Explanation:The oesophageal hiatus is located in the muscular part of the diaphragm a T10 and is above, in front and a little to the left of the aortic hiatus. It transmits the oesophagus, the vagus nerves and some small oesophageal arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
Explanation:THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein
Explanation:Spermatic or testicular veins arise from the posterior aspect of the testis and receive tributaries from the epididymis. Upon uniting, they form the pampiniform plexus that makes up the greater mass of the spermatic cord. The vessels that make up this plexus rise up the spermatic cord in front of the ductus deferens. They then unite, below the superficial ring, to form three or four veins that traverse the inguinal canal and enter the abdomen through the deep inguinal ring. They further unite to form 2 veins that ascend up the psoas major muscle behind the peritoneum each lying on either side of the testicular artery. These further unite to form one vein that empties on the right side of the inferior vena cava at an acute angle and on the left side into the renal vein, at a right angle. The left testicular vein courses behind the iliac colon and is thus exposed to pressure from the contents of this part of the bowel. The ovarian vein is the equivalent of the testicular vein in women. They form a plexus in the broad ligament near the ovary and uterine tube and communicate with the uterine plexus. They drain into similar vessels as in a man.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Level of the umbilicus
Explanation:The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
Regarding abduction of the digits of the hand, which of the following is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the adductors of the digits take at least part of their attachments from metacarpal bones
Explanation:Lying on the palmer surfaces of the metacarpal bones are four palmar interossei which are smaller than the dorsal interossei. Arising from the entire length of the metacarpal bone of one finger, is a palmar interosseous, which is inserted into the side of the base of the first phalanx and the aponeurotic expansion of the extensor digitorum communis tendon to the same finger. All the interossei are innervated by the eighth cervical nerve, through the deep palmar branch of the ulnar nerve. The palmar interossei adducts the fingers to an imaginary line drawn longitudinally through the centre of the middle finger.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply to the pancreas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric
Explanation:The pancreas is a glandular organ in the body that produces important hormones such as insulin and glucagon. Its blood supply is from branches of the coeliac artery, superior mesenteric artery and the splenic artery. These are the arteries that if ligated, would affect blood supply to the pancreas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
The muscle which has an antagonistic action to the serratus anterior muscle and is one of the retractors of the scapula is the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhomboid major
Explanation:Protraction is accomplished by the actions of the serratus anterior, pectoralis major, and pectoralis minor muscles. Retraction is accomplished by the actions of the trapezius, rhomboids, and latissimus dorsi muscles.
The rhomboid major arises from the second, third, fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. It is inserted into a narrow tendinous arch attached to the root of the spine of the scapula and the inferior angle. By its insertion in the inferior angle of the scapula, it acts on this angle and produces a slight rotation of the scapula on the side of the chest. It also retracts the scapula by working with the trapezius muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Middle colic artery
Explanation:The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iliohypogastric
Explanation:The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.
The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.
The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.
A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The posterior cord continues as the axillary nerve
Explanation:The lateral cord continues as the musculocutaeous nerve.
The medial cord continues as the ulnar nerve.
The posterior cord continues as the radial nerve and the axillary nerve.
The nerve to subclavius muscle is a branch of the C6 root.
The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the upper trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 123
Incorrect
-
You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to be used as a graft for coronary artery bypass surgery. The left internal thoracic artery is mobilised from the inside of the chest wall and divided near the caudal end of the sternum. After dividing the internal thoracic artery at its distal end, the specialist registrar asks you to name the artery that will now have increased blood supply so that adequate blood flow is maintained to the rectus abdominis on the left side. What would your answer be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The rectus abdominis muscle is supplied by the superior epigastric artery which is a branch of the internal thoracic artery. If the internal thoracic artery is thus ligated, blood would no longer flow to it. However, the superior epigastric artery communicates with the inferior epigastric artery (a branch of the external iliac artery). This means that blood could flow from the external iliac, to the inferior epigastric, to the superior epigastric to the rectus abdominis.
The superficial circumflex iliac artery and the superficial epigastric are two superficial branches of the femoral artery and do not supply the deep branches of the abdomen.
The deep circumflex iliac artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall; being too lateral it doesn’t supply blood to the rectus abdominis.
The distal portions of the umbilical arteries are obliterated in adults to form the medial umbilical folds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
A 55-year old patient with signs and symptoms of internal haemorrhage was brought in for emergency surgery to control the bleeding. Angiography results revealed an advanced duodenal tumour that had perforated the blood vessel immediately behind the first part of the duodenum. Which of the following is the most likely blood vessel that was ruptured by the cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The gastroduodenal artery is the artery that lies just behind the first portion of the duodenum. The gastroduodenal artery would be the most likely artery to be perforated by a cancer in this area. The perforation is as a result of the spillage of the acidic content of the chyme in the duodenum. All the other blood vessels in the list would less likely be affected by the gastric expellant from the duodenum. The coronary vein is located in the lesser curvature of the stomach. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal arcade is located inferiorly to the first part of the duodenum on the head of the pancreas. The hepatic artery proper is a branch of the common hepatic artery that is located superior to the first portion of the duodenum. The splenic vein arises from the spleen; it forms the portal vein by joining the superior mesenteric vein. It is laterally detached from the duodenum. Both the left gastric vein and the splenic vein are located superior to the first portion of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 125
Incorrect
-
The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and which one other muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teres minor
Explanation:The correct answer is the teres minor muscle. These group of muscles play an important role in protecting the shoulder joint and keeping the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. This fossa is somehow shallow and needs support to allow for the full mobility that the shoulder joint has.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 126
Incorrect
-
During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall of the rectus sheath ends in a thin curved margin whose concavity is directed downwards. What is the name of this inferior border of the rectus sheath?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arcuate line
Explanation:The rectus sheath is a tendinous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It covers the entire anterior surface however on the posterior surface of the muscle the sheath is incomplete ending inferiorly at the arcuate line. Below the arcuate line, the rectus abdominis is covered by the transversalis fascia. The linea alba is a band of aponeurosis on the midline of the anterior abdominal wall, which extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis. It is formed by the combined abdominal muscle aponeuroses. This is a useful site for midline incision during abdominal surgery because it does not carry many blood vessels. All of the other answer choices are related to the inguinal canal.
The falx inguinalis (sometimes called the inguinal falx or conjoint tendon), is the inferomedial attachment of the transversus abdominis with some fibres of the internal abdominal oblique – it contributes to the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
The inguinal ligament is the ligament that connects the anterior superior iliac spine with the pubic tubercle – it makes the floor of the inguinal canal.
The internal (deep) inguinal ring is the entrance to the inguinal canal, where the transversalis fascia pouches out and creates an opening through which structures can leave the abdominal cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 127
Incorrect
-
A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum is explored in theatre through a midline incision. This incision will be through the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linea alba
Explanation:The linea alba is the point where this incision was made. It is a tendinous raphe in the midline of the abdomen extending between the xiphoid process and the symphysis pubis. It is placed between the medial borders of the recti and is formed by the blending of the aponeuroses of the external and internal obliques and transversi.
The linea aspera is a vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femur.
The arcuate line is the inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath behind the rectus abdominis muscle.
The semilunar line is the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis.
The iliopectineal line is a line on the pelvic bones formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 128
Incorrect
-
Which best describes the suprascapular nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It contains nerve fibres from C5 and C6 spinal cord segments
Explanation:The suprascapular nerve arises from the cervical spinal nerves 5 and 6 after coming together to form common trunk. This nerve supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles giving off branches to the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 129
Incorrect
-
A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was asked to distinguish the small from the large bowel. Which of the following features listed is CORRECT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Circular folds of the mucosa
Explanation:Distinguishing features include:
1. Three strips of longitudinal muscle-taenia coli- on the wall instead of a continuous surrounding longitudinal muscle that is seen in the small intestine
2. The colon has bulges called haustra that are not on the small bowel.
3. The surface of the colon is covered with fatty omental appendages. Both the colon and the small intestine have similar circular smooth muscle layer, serosa. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues that are not visible on X ray with barium contrast.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trapezius
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi receives blood from the thoracodorsal artery, the supraspinatus receives its blood from the suprascapular artery, the levator scapulae and the rhomboids are supplied by the dorsal scapular artery and the transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the trapezius.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon
Explanation:The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 132
Incorrect
-
The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo, is formed when the midgut bends around which of the following arteries?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric
Explanation:In a developing foetus, the midgut develops to form most of the intestines. During this development process, the midgut usually bends around the superior mesenteric artery and forms what is referred to as the midgut loop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident. She is hypotensive and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a shattered spleen. An emergency splenectomy is performed where the splenic artery is ligated right at its origin. Which of the following arteries will have a diminished blood flow owing to ligation of the splenic artery at its origin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left gastroepiploic
Explanation:Ligation of the splenic artery right at its point of origin should cut off blood flow in its branches. The following are the branches of the splenic artery: pancreatic branches, short gastric branches and left gastroepiploic arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 134
Incorrect
-
During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.
The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.
The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.
Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.
Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 135
Incorrect
-
Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum
Explanation:The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve where It ends in the large intestine. It is surrounded on the sides and above by the large intestine. It is related anteriorly with the greater omentum and abdominal wall. Is connected to the vertebral column by a fold of peritoneum or otherwise known as the mesentery. Is divided into three portions: the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The jejunum and ileum are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery that courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before it gives off intestinal branches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
A 38 year-old man falls on an outstretched hand. X-rays indicate an anterior dislocation of one of the carpal bones. Which carpal bone is most commonly dislocated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lunate
Explanation:The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone and has an increased risk of avascular necrosis.
The lunate is the most commonly dislocated carpal bone. The displaced bone may compress the median nerve in the carpal tunnel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 137
Incorrect
-
In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the tail of the pancreas that is closely associated with the spleen to avoid post operative pancreatic fistula. As a general surgeon conducting a splenectomy where are you most likely to find the tail of the pancreas in the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenorenal ligament
Explanation:The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal part of the pancreas and is found contained in the splenorenal ligament of the peritoneal cavity. The splenorenal ligament is derived from the peritoneum where the wall of the general peritoneal cavity connects to the omental bursa between the spleen and the left kidney. This ligament contains the splenic vessels and the tail of the pancreas.
The gastrocolic ligament stretches from the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon, connecting the two.
The gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the greater omentum and is the structure that connects the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. The gastrosplenic ligament continues from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm and acts as a support to the spleen.
The transverse colon is connected to the abdominal wall by the mesocolon ligament.
The falciform ligament on the other hand, attaches the liver to the ventral wall of the abdomen.
The hepatoduodenal ligament connects the porta hepatis of the liver to the superior part of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a direct inguinal hernia on the right side. He had undergone and appendicectomy 6 months prior. The examining doctor correlated the development of the hernia to iatrogenic nerve injury that happened during the operation. Which nerve had been injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal
Explanation:Direct inguinal hernias occur because of weakness in the abdominal muscles. The ilioinguinal nerve is important for innervating the muscles of the lower abdominal wall and damage during appendicectomy therefore prevents the man from being able to contract abdominal muscles to pull the falx inguinalis over the weak fascia.
The genitofemoral nerve innervates the cremaster muscle and injury to it would cause inability to elevate the testes.
The subcostal nerve and the ventral primary ramus of T10 innervate the muscles, skin and fascia of the upper abdominal wall.
The iliohypogastric nerve supplies the skin over the upper part of the buttock behind the area supplied by the subcostal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
Which muscle originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis
Explanation:The medial epicondyle of the humerus is the site of origin of this group of muscles of the forearm. It originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus by a common tendon. Fibres from the deep fascia of the forearm, near the elbow and septa, pass from this fascia between the muscles. These muscles include the pronator teres, palmaris longus, flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 140
Incorrect
-
The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The contents of the carpal tunnel include:
– Median nerve
– Flexor digitorum supervicialis
– Flexor digitorum profundus
– Flexor policis longus
– Flexor carpi radialis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pectoralis minor
Explanation:Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph nodes around the coeliac trunk are enlarged. The coeliac trunk:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries
Explanation:The coeliac trunk is a branch of the aorta arising just below the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to pass nearly horizontally forward to divide into 3 large branches i.e. the left gastric, the hepatic and the splenic arteries. Occasionally it may give off one of the inferior phrenic arteries. It is covered by the lesser omentum and on the right side bordered by the right coeliac ganglion and the cardiac end of the stomach. Inferiorly it is bordered by the upper border of the pancreas and splenic vein. The embryonic midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initiation of abduction of the humerus
Explanation:This muscle arises from the medial two-thirds of the supraspinatus fossa and from the supraspinatus fascia. It is inserted into the highest impression on the greater tubercle of the humerus after passing over the upper part of the shoulder joint. It works with the deltoid to raise the arm from the side of the trunk and initiate abduction. It also assists in fixation of the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
A surgeon ligates the left middle suprarenal artery while carrying out a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left middle suprarenal artery originate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta
Explanation:Middle suprarenal arteries arise from either side of the abdominal aorta, opposite the superior mesenteric artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 145
Incorrect
-
The fundus of the stomach receives blood supply from the same artery as the greater curvature of the stomach. Which of the following arteries when ligated will disrupt blood supply to the fundus of the stomach through this artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic
Explanation:The fundus of the stomach along with the greater curvature of the stomach receive blood supply from the short gastric artery. The short gastric artery arises from the end of the splenic artery. The ligation of the splenic artery therefore would cause a disruption of blood supply to the fundus of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 146
Incorrect
-
During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall. What causes the medial umbilical folds?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obliterated umbilical arteries
Explanation:The medial umbilical ligament is a structure found on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall and is covered by the medial umbilical folds. It is a paired structure that represents the remnants of the fetal umbilical artery. They have no role in humans after birth other than to be used as a landmark for exploring the medial inguinal fossa during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia
Explanation:An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.
Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.
Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.
Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.
Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, decides not to re-implant the inferior mesenteric artery into the repaired abdominal aorta. She says that an anastomotic artery running along the border of the large intestine is good enough to supply blood to the territory of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which vessel is she referring to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Marginal
Explanation:The marginal artery is a key anastomosis for the large intestine that runs around the border of the large intestine and is formed by the anastomosis of the branches of the ileocolic artery, right colic artery, middle colic artery, left colic artery and sigmoid artery. If a small artery is occluded, these branches allow blood to reach all segments of the colon.
The arcades are anastomotic loops between the arteries that provide alternative pathways for blood flow. They are more prominent in the small intestine than the large intestine.
Arteriae rectae are small branches that run from the marginal artery to reach the colon.
The ileocolic artery is the branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the caecum, appendix and terminal part of the ileum.
The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of the brachial artery:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elbow joint
Explanation:The arterial anastomoses of the elbow joint is contributed by branches of the brachial artery and the Profunda brachii artery. The brachial artery gives off the superior ulnar collateral artery and the inferior collateral artery. On the other hand, the Profunda brachii gives off the radial and medial recurrent arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 150
Incorrect
-
In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery that has the same name. Which of the following listed veins doesn't run parallel to the artery of the same name?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric vein don’t run in tandem because the vein is part of the portal venous system-draining into the splenic vein which drains into the hepatic portal vein. The inferior mesenteric artery is a branch of the descending aorta at the level of L3. The inferior mesenteric vein and artery, however, drain the same region i.e. the descending and sigmoid colon and rectum.
Superior epigastric vessels course together and are the continuation of the internal thoracic artery and vein.
Superficial circumflex iliac vessels course together in the superficial fat of the abdominal wall.
Superior rectal vessels are the terminal ends of the inferior mesenteric vessels, located on the posterior surface of the rectum.
The ileocolic artery and vein are branches off the superior mesenteric vessels. Both course in the mesentery, supplying/draining the caecum, appendix, terminal portion of the ileum. The inferior epigastric vessels run together.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
