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Question 1
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A 10-year-old boy sustained a fracture of his right elbow, which damaged the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. A month later, he still has a total ulnar nerve paralysis. Which of the following can be observed on examination?
Your Answer: Inability to grip a sheet of paper between his fingers when the hand is placed flat on the table
Explanation:Among the given options, the inability to grip a sheet of paper between his fingers when the hand is placed flat on the table is the feature of ulnar nerve injury. Rationale:The ulnar nerve (usually) supplies sensation to the skin of the fifth and the ulnar side of the fourth finger, front and back. Following the injury of the nerve, the following functions are impaired:- There is a sympathetic interruption, with the absence of sweating in the affected area. – The thenar muscles are supplied by the median nerve and are therefore spared. – The ulnar nerve also supplies the muscles of the hypothenar eminence. – Although the ring and little fingers are held in the clawed position when the nerve is injured at the wrist, a high lesion paralyses the long flexors to these two fingers and results in the loss of this sign. The test for paralysis of the palmar interossei, supplied by the ulnar nerve, is the inability to adduct the fingers and thus to be unable to grip a sheet of paper between them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding Prader-Willi syndrome?
Your Answer: Affected individuals typically have small gonads
Explanation:Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when a chromosome from paternal chromosome 15q is deleted or unexpressed during the formation of the egg or sperm, or in embryonic development. Individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, and in this case on the paternal gene remains active in parts of the brain and other organs. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Angelman’s syndrome. Symptoms seen in Prader-Willi range from poor muscle tone during infancy to developmental and cognitive delays. Many individuals suffer from hypogonadism that affects fertility in both males and females. In Angelman’s syndrome the maternal chromosome 15q is unexpressed. The condition is also called happy puppet syndrome as affected children present with a happy demeanour, ataxic gait, and flapping movements of the limbs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?
Your Answer: Macrocephaly
Explanation:Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate nutritional input?
Your Answer: 15g/kg/day
Explanation:The general target of weight gain in the neonatal intensive care unit is to replicate the intrauterine growth in the third trimester, which equates to the daily weight gain of nearly 15 g/kg/day with infants receiving 120 kcal/kg/day
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bullous-pemphigoid
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 11 month old baby develops periumbilical abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea after having a sore throat and fever for a few days. He presents to the A&E department and an ultrasound is done which shows a 'target sign' on the right side of the abdomen. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Undertake urgent hydrostatic reduction
Correct Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics
Explanation:Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics.Intussusception is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction (blockage). Although intussusception can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, it usually occurs at the junction of the small and large intestines. The obstruction can cause swelling and inflammation that can lead to intestinal injury. The patient with intussusception is usually an infant, often one who has had an upper respiratory infection, who presents with the following symptoms:Vomiting: Initially, vomiting is nonbilious and reflexive, but when the intestinal obstruction occurs, vomiting becomes biliousAbdominal pain: Pain in intussusception is colicky, severe, and intermittentPassage of blood and mucus: Parents report the passage of stools, by affected children, that look like currant jelly| this is a mixture of mucus, sloughed mucosa, and shed blood| diarrhoea can also be an early sign of intussusceptionLethargy: This can be the sole presenting symptom of intussusception, which makes the condition’s diagnosis challengingPalpable abdominal massDiagnosis:Ultrasonography: Hallmarks of ultrasonography include the target and pseudo kidney signs.For all children, start intravenous fluid resuscitation and nasogastric decompression as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 7
Correct
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A 17-year-old male undergoes an emergency appendectomy for perforated appendix. Postoperatively, he develops disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which one of the following clotting factors are most rapidly consumed in this process?
Your Answer: Factor V and VIII
Explanation:Factors V and VIII are consumed most rapidly in a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation.Simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage caused by initially formation of thrombi which consume clotting factors (factors 5,8) and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding.Causes include:- Infection- Malignancy- Trauma e.g. major surgery, burns, shock, dissecting aortic aneurysm- Liver disease- Obstetric complicationsClinically bleeding is usually a dominant feature, bruising, ischaemia and organ failure.Blood tests reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen and increased fibrinogen degradation products.Treatment of DIC involves treating the underlying cause and supportive management.Mnemonic:D-I-S-S-E-M-I-N-A-T-E-DD- D dimerI-Immune complexesS-Snakebite, shock, heatstrokeS-SLEE-Eclampsia, HELLP syndromeM-Massive tissue damageI-Infections: viral and bacterialN-NeoplasmsA-Acute promyelocytic leukaemiaT-Tumour products: Tissue Factor (TF) and TF-like factors released by carcinomas of pancreas, prostate, lung,colon, stomachE-Endotoxins (bacterial)D-Dead foetus (retained)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 9
Correct
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As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4 year old boy who is has been experiencing intermittent temperature spikes of 38.7C throughout the night. He underwent a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix four days ago, and has opened his bowels with diarrhoea. His chest is clear on examination.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his condition?
Your Answer: Intra-abdominal collection
Explanation:Perforated appendices are common in children as it is more difficult to surgically assess an unwell child due to poor localisation of abdominal pain, and their inability to express discomfort. They are therefore prone to a greater risk of post operative complications including would infections, intra abdominal fluid collections, and chest infections. In the above scenario the spiking temperature points to an abscess, which characteristically presents with a swinging temperature. The fever is unlikely due to bacterial resistance as blood tests performed post surgery would have indicated any resistance, and a UTI is also unlikely since the child is already on antibiotics. As his chest is clinically clear, a severe chest infection may be ruled out, leaving intra-abdominal collection as the most likely explanation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?
Your Answer: Treat when ill
Explanation:At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 11
Correct
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A young girl is brought to the ED by her parents because of increased body temperature, rhinorrhoea and an unusual bark-like cough. The girl is also drooling because of excessive salivation. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:The symptoms and signs described are typical for epiglottitis which represents a paediatric emergency and the child should be put immediately on corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?
Your Answer: <25
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years
Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years
Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years
Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years
Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 13
Correct
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A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?
Your Answer: Cupola
Explanation:Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following exhibits low genetic penetrance?
Your Answer: Gaucher disease
Explanation:Penetrance is defined as the percentage of individuals having a particular mutation or genotype who exhibit clinical signs or phenotype of the associated disorder or genotype.Gaucher disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but they typically do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures. Cranial CT reveals various circular lesions and renal ultrasound shows discrete cysts. Family history reveals that his father has had a renal transplant and has profound acne-like spots on his nose and cheeks. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis presents with the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. They may appear in the brain, kidneys, skin or various other organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis
Explanation:The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Correct
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A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0 mmol/L before eating a large meal at 6pm, presents with difficulties raising his blood glucose after the meal. His parents gave him a slightly lower insulin dose with the meal than usual. Blood glucose levels are not rising above 6 mmol/L. Parents are worried and do not want to send him to bed. What is the single most appropriate advice for the parents?
Your Answer: A fast acting glucose source would have been preferable to treat the hypoglycaemia and should be considered in the future
Explanation:The boy presented with mild hypoglycaemia and should be managed at home with fast-acting carbs. He should not sleep immediately. His parents should monitor his blood glucose every hour without letting him sleep in between.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy presents with a low-grade fever and mild abdominal pain. On examination, a palpable mass was felt in the right iliac fossa.His temperature is about 38.4℃, and his CRP is elevated to 256. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen demonstrated an appendicular mass.What is the most appropriate management strategy for this child?
Your Answer: Give broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics, admit to the ward, perform operation only if signs of obstruction or on-going sepsis
Explanation:An appendicular mass, on the whole, is managed medically with intravenous antibiotics and monitoring for signs of obstruction or on-going sepsis. If the child is not responding to medical management, then surgery is performed. This is due to the high morbidity risk associated with operating on an appendicular mass. Consent for a limited right hemi-colectomy must be taken after explaining the increased risk of complications. The decision whether or not to perform an interval appendicectomy is controversial and currently subject to a multicentre national trial. The likelihood of another episode of appendicitis is 1 in 5. Other options:- Ultrasound and clinical examination is sufficient to confirm the diagnosis, especially in a boy. This may not be the case in females.- Majority of appendicular masses respond to conservative management. – Raised CRP indicates significant inflammatory response and thus intravenous antibiotics are indicated. – Intravenous antibiotics are indicated due to sepsis. Oral antibiotics are not sufficient to tackle sepsis in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 20
Correct
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A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?
Your Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery
Explanation:Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old with increased respiratory effort. The baby was delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Membranes ruptured 30 hours before delivery and there are no other risk factors for infection. On examination the baby is visibly tachypnoeic with intercostal recession and nasal flaring. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are present bilaterally. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds centrally and baby has cool hands and feet. Respiratory rate is 90/min, heart rate 170/min and oxygen saturations measured on the right hand are 85% in room air. IV access has been obtained and antibiotics are being given. Enough blood was obtained for culture, blood sugar and venous blood gas. Blood sugar is 2.6 mmol/l. Blood gas shows: pH 7.25, CO2 8.5 kPa, BE –8. Despite low flow nasal cannula oxygen baby’s saturations remain around 88%. What should be the next step in this baby’s management?
Your Answer: 10 ml/kg 0.9% sodium chloride
Correct Answer: Prepare to intubate baby
Explanation:Infants may require tracheal intubation if:- direct tracheal suctioning is required- effective bag-mask ventilation cannot be provided- chest compressions are performed- endotracheal (ET) administration of medications is desired- congenital diaphragmatic hernia is suspected, or – a prolonged need for assisted ventilation exists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 5 month old baby presents with bilious vomiting. Doctors notice a palpable mass and drawing up of legs. They treat the baby with an air reduction enema, suspecting intussusception. However, the procedure is interrupted as the baby develops abdominal distention and starts to drop their saturations. What would be the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum
Explanation:Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum is necessary to avoid tension pneumoperitoneum. Air reduction enema is the main stay of treatment for intussusception and is successful in around 90% of cases. A serious potential risk of this procedure is perforation of the colon and a pneumoperitoneum, leading to rapid distension of the abdomen and splinting of the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 23
Correct
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Surfactant reduces the surface tension at the air/liquid interface in the lung. Which of the following cells produce surfactant in the lung parenchyma?
Your Answer: Type II pneumocyte
Explanation:Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted by the epithelial type II cells into the alveolar space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Correct
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A 16-year-old male is learning about HIV as part of sex and relationships education in school. What is the most common mode of transmission of HIV?
Your Answer: Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual
Explanation:Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual is by far the most common (95%) route by which HIV is transmitted. Other options:- Blood transfusion is an extremely rare cause of HIV transmission in the UK. – While HIV can be transmitted from mother to baby either during birth or via breastfeeding, the transmission rate is only 5 – 20%.- Sharing contaminated needles does put individuals at risk of getting HIV, although public health measures are in place to reduce this risk. – Although HIV can be transmitted via this route, it is around ten times less likely to result in transmission than unprotected anal or vaginal intercourse with an infected individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 25
Correct
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In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?
Your Answer: 8 years of age
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in females is breast enlargement, followed by the appearance of pubic and axillary hair, and finally menarche, 2-3 years after the onset of thelarche. Precocious puberty is caused by the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis where FSH and LH levels are raised. Less common is the gonadotrophin independent form, which is due to excess sex hormones, but low FSH and LH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies with respiratory distress syndrome?
Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:A preterm with respiratory distress syndrome presents with the condition as a result of immature lungs and inadequate surfactant production. Management of RDS therefore includes surfactant therapy, oxygen administration and mechanical ventilation, as well as measures such maintaining acid base levels and blood haemoglobin in an intensive care unit. Dexamethasone is not shown to be particularly effective when given to a preterm, but can however be used to prevent or decrease RDS severity when given to the mother before delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with recurrent epistaxis and a history of menorrhagia. The physician suspects Von Willebrand disease and requests for blood tests. Lab investigations reveal a prolonged bleeding time and thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bernard - Soulier syndrome
Explanation:Bernard- Soulier Syndrome results from a deficiency of platelet glycoprotein protein Ib, which mediates the initial interaction of platelets with the subendothelial components via the von Willebrand protein. It is a rare but severe bleeding disorder. Platelets do not aggregate to ristocetin. The platelet count is low, but, characteristically, the platelets are large, often the size of red blood cells, and may be missed on complete blood counts because most automatic counters do not count them as platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was no time for the administration of antenatal steroids. The baby was successfully intubated, and the first dose of surfactant had been given. Despite good chest wall movement and 2 min of chest compressions the heart rate remains very slow. The baby is approximately 18min old when the consultant arrives. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?
Your Answer: Consider reorientating care
Explanation:The withdrawal and withholding of care has been reported in neonatology for over 30 years. ‘Withdrawal’ of life-saving treatment implies the elective discontinuation of ongoing life-supportive measures. ‘Withholding’ of treatment occurs when interventions necessary for immediate survival, such as surgical intervention or resuscitation (bag and mask/endotracheal ventilation, cardiac massage or adrenaline) are deliberately not administered.Withdrawal of treatment most commonly takes the form of withdrawing of ventilatory support. In the extremely premature neonate who has had poor response to bag and mask ventilation, this may mean stopping ventilation breaths, explaining to the parents the reason for discontinuation and offering comfort care according to the parents’ wishes. Parents should be prepared for the sequelae that may follow withdrawal from mechanical ventilation. The infant may become agitated secondary to hypoxia, display terminal gasping and, depending on the size and gestation of their infant, tachypnoea, intercostal recession or stridor may be evident. Parents may want to be involved in the extubation process. Following ventilator withdrawal, the length of time prior to death cannot be predicted and can be a significant cause of parental anguish if this is not explained. A side room and privacy should be made available for the family. NICE guidance suggests that women ‘should not be encouraged to hold their dead baby if they do not wish to’, although this is very much dependent on individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 29
Correct
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Baby Jasmine is 3 months old. At this age she should be exhibiting which of the following hearing and speech milestones?
Your Answer: Crying when uncomfortable and annoyed
Explanation:By the age of 3 months Jasmine should startle to loud noises, recognise her parents voices and turn to them when they are speaking, and should quiet down or smile at the sound of a familiar voice when crying. She should also cry when she is uncomfortable or irritated. By the time Jasmine is 9 months old she would begin to understand and respond to the word ‘no’ as well as other easy commands. She would be able vocalise and babble with repetitive sounds, and imitate adults’ playful sounds. She would be much less likely startled by loud noises.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 30
Correct
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The right testicular vein is the tributary of which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The right testicular vein is a tributary of the inferior vena cava, while the left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein.Note:The testicular venous drainage begins in the septa and these veins together with those of the tunica vasculosa converge on the posterior border of the testis as the pampiniform plexus. The pampiniform plexus, in turn, drains to the testicular vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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