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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
On clinical examination:
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius
On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route.
Why is this the best route of administration?Your Answer: High first pass metabolism
Explanation:Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.
An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.
There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.
GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.
The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the following statement?
Your Answer: Increased Creatine Kinase
Explanation:The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.
The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)Management is supportive ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers?
Your Answer: Naturally occurring drugs are mostly racemic mixtures
Correct Answer: Desflurane is a chiral compound
Explanation:A compound that contains an asymmetric centre (chiral atom or chiral centre) and thus can occur in two non-superimposable mirror-image forms (enantiomers) are called chiral compounds.
Desflurane, Halothane, and isoflurane are chiral compounds but Sevoflurane is not a chiral compound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.
Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?Your Answer: Leukotrienes
Explanation:Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.
The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.
The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:
Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.
TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.
PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.
PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a stereospecific, non-covalent, and irreversible manner.
It has the greatest impact on the activity of which of the following drugs?Your Answer: Vecuronium
Explanation:Sugammadex is a modified cyclodextrin that works as an aminosteroid neuromuscular blocking (nmb) reversal agent. By encapsulating each molecule in the plasma, it rapidly reverses rocuronium and, to a lesser extent, vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Consequently, a concentration gradient favours the movement of these nmb agents away from the neuromuscular junction. Pancuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade at low levels has also been reversed.
By inhibiting voltage-dependent calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction, antibiotics in the aminoglycoside group potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents. This can be reversed by giving calcium but not neostigmine or sugammadex.
Sugammadex will not reverse the effects of mivacurium, which belongs to the benzylisoquinolinium class of drugs.
A phase II or desensitisation block occurs when the motor end-plate becomes less sensitive to acetylcholine as a result of an overdose or repeated administration of suxamethonium. The use of neostigmine has been shown to be effective in reversing this weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response?
Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.
Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.
Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable.
What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?Your Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis
Explanation:According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use.
This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?Your Answer: It can be reversed using an inverse agonist
Correct Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4
Explanation:Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.
The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.
It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.
For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an external fixation of a pelvic fracture sustained in a road traffic accident earlier in the day. Additionally, he has stable L2/L4 vertebral fractures but no other injuries.
He is a known intravenous drug abuser currently on 200 mg heroin per day. He has been admitted for observations postop and pain control. He has regular paracetamol and NSAIDs prescribed.
Which is the most appropriate postoperative pain regimen?Your Answer: Oral methadone titrated to effect
Correct Answer: PCA morphine alone with background infusion
Explanation:With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.
Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.
2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).
Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.
The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.
1 mg midazolam is used to induce anaesthesia, followed by 75 mg propofol.
Which of the following options best describes how these two drugs interact pharmacologically?Your Answer: Synergism
Explanation:Drug interactions can be seen in the following examples:
Additive interaction (summation).
Additive effects are described for intravenous drug combinations such as ketamine and thiopentone or ketamine and midazolam. Different mechanisms of action are used by them. Thiopentone and midazolam are GABAA receptor agonists, whereas ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nitrous oxide and halothane are two other examples.
Synergism is a supra-additive interaction.
Refers to the administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological properties and closely related sites of action, resulting in a combined effect that is greater than the sum of the contributions of each component. The construction of an isobologram can be used to interpret and understand these. The best example is the hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines and intravenous induction agents like propofol. As part of a co-induction technique, midazolam is frequently given before propofol.
Potentiation
In a dose-dependent manner, volatile agents enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. Electrolyte disturbance (hypomagnesaemia), Penicillin, and probenecid can all increase the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (the latter has no similar pharmacological activity).
Infra-additive interaction (antagonism).
This can be subdivided into the following categories:
-Pharmacokinetic interference occurs when one drug affects the absorption of another through the gastrointestinal tract or when hepatic microsomal enzyme induction influences metabolism.
-Heparin and protamine, for example, or heavy metals and chelating agents, are examples of chemical antagonists.
-Competitive reversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors, such as opioids and naloxone, and irreversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?
Your Answer: Interferes with production of folate
Correct Answer: Interferes with the outer membrane of gram positive bacteria resulting in cell death
Explanation:Daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in loss of membrane potential. Thus it interferes with the outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria resulting in cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?
Your Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC
Explanation:Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.
In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.
A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.
L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.
Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.
Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.
Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?Your Answer: Change in plasma concentration is not linear
Correct Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear
Explanation:Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.
There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.
In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.
In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.
Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?
Your Answer: 1000 mcg per 100 ml
Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml
Explanation:Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.
% solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml
% solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml
% solution ~ 10 mg/ml
Examples:
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- Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
- Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
- Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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An intravenous drug infusion is started at a rate of 20 ml/hour. The drug concentration in the syringe is 5 mg/mL. The drug's plasma clearance is 20 L/hour.
Which of the following values, assuming that the infusion rate remains constant, best approximates the drug's plasma concentration at steady state?Your Answer: 5 mcg/mL
Explanation:When a drug is given via intravenous infusion, the plasma concentration rises exponentially as a wash-in curve until it reaches steady-state concentration (the point at which the infusion rate is balanced by the elimination rate or clearance). To reach this steady state, the drug will take 4-5 half-lives.
Cpss (target plasma concentration at steady state) and clearance (CL) in ml/minute or litre/hour are the two factors that determine the infusion rate or dose (ID) in mg/hour of a drug.
ID = Cpss × CL
We know the infusion rate is 20 ml/hour in this case. The drug’s concentration is 5 mg/mL. The patient is receiving 100 mg of the drug per hour, with a 20 L/hour clearance rate.
ID = Cpss × 20
Therefore,
Cpss = 100 mg/20000 ml
Cpss = 0.005 mg/mL or 5 mcg/mL
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Vasoconstricts mesenteric vessels
Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.
At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?Your Answer: 12 mcg/mL
Correct Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL
Explanation:In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:
C = C0. e^-kt
Where:
C=drug concentration,
C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
k = rate constant and
t = time.The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:
The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).
When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle.
Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?Your Answer: Isoflurane
Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide
Explanation:Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).
Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.
At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.
At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.
Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.
Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.
Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.
Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active seizures. The informant reported that it has been more than 5 minutes since the patient started seizing. The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus.
According to the paramedics who brought in the patient, 10 mg of diazepam was given rectally. Upon physical examination, she was normotensive at 120/80 mmHg; tachycardic at 138 beats per minute; tachypnoeic at 24 breaths per minute; and well-saturated at 99% on high flow oxygen. Her random blood glucose level was normal at 7.0 mmol/L.
Given this situation and an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus, what would be the best initial anti-epileptic drug to administer to the patient?Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and facilitate membrane hyperpolarization. It is the preferred treatment for status epilepticus, although Diazepam can also be used as an alternative.
Lorazepam has a longer duration of action than Diazepam, and binds with greater affinity to the GABA-A receptor subunit.
Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that acts on the GABA-A receptor site to increase the duration of chloride channel opening. Barbiturates, particularly phenobarbital, is considered the drug of choice for seizures in infants.
Phenytoin is a sodium-channel blocker that is given for generalized tonic-clonic seizures, partial seizures, and status epilepticus. Phenytoin is preferred in prolonged therapy for status epilepticus because it is less sedating.
Propofol or thiopentone is preferred when airway protection is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?
Your Answer: Stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle
Correct Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery.
Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?Your Answer: Unaffected by ion trapping
Correct Answer: Highly ionised
Explanation:Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)
The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:
Protein binding
Degree of ionisation
Placental blood flow
Maternal and foetal blood pH
Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
Thickness of placental membrane
Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.
What is most likely reason for this?Your Answer: Suxamethonium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency
Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency
Explanation:Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.
The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.
Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.
Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.
Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.
Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?
Your Answer: Is a measure of the amount of drug required to produce a given effect
Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect
Explanation:An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.
The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.
The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.
The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block.
Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: 20 mL lidocaine 1%
Correct Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%
Explanation:Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.
Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.
Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.
The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:
There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.
With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the following medications used to treat dementia involves the risk of significant hypotension?
Your Answer: Rivastigmine
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.
Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.
Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?Your Answer: Sympathomimetic effects mainly through ?2 but also involves ? receptors
Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes
Explanation:Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.
It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.
It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.
Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Affects extra-pyramidal movement
Correct Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma
Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration
Explanation:The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:
C = C0. e-kt
C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time
As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.
A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.
A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics
The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.
Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.
The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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