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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation.

    She...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation.

      She complains of a nine hour history of irregular painful contractions.

      On examination of her pelvis, her cervix is fully effaced, but only 2 - 3 cm dilated. The fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines in a left occipito-posterior (LOP) position. The membranes ruptured an hour ago.

      What would be the best next line of management?

      Your Answer: Oxytocic (Syntocinon4) infusion.

      Explanation:

      The best next line of management is to administer an oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.

      This is because the progress of labour is slow, and it necessary to augment it. As the membranes have already ruptured, the next step is to increase the contractions and induce labour using an infusion of oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.

      Extra fluid is also required, but this will be administered alongside the Syntocinon infusion.

      A lumbar epidural block is indicated in patients with an occipito-posterior (OP) position. This should not be attempted until more pain relief is required and the progress of labour is reassessed.

      A Caesarean section may be necessary due to obstructed labour or fetal distress, it is not indicated at this stage.

      Taking blood and holding it in case cross-matching is ultimately required is common, but most patients do not have blood cross-matched prophylactically in case there is a need to be delivered by Caesarean section and require a transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac fossa pain while getting up from a chair and has been coughing and sneezing.

      On examination, there is no palpable mass or rebound tenderness.

      What will be the most likely cause for patient's complaint?

      Your Answer: Round ligament strain

      Explanation:

      Patient’s symptoms and signs are suggestive of round ligament strain, which is a normal finding during pregnancy, especially in the 2nd trimester, and it does not require any medical intervention.

      Round ligament is a rope-like fibromuscular band which extends from the anterolateral aspect of uterus anteriorly between the layers of the broad ligament, and passing through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal.
      A sharp, sudden spasm in the right iliac fossa which lasts for a few seconds which is usually triggered by sneezing, coughing, laughing and rolling over in bed are the common presentations of a round ligament pain.

      Ectopic pregnancy and rupture of ectopic pregnancy are two unlikely diagnosis in this patient as she is in the second trimester of her pregnancy, whereas both the mentioned conditions occur during the first trimester.

      Although appendicitis presents with pain in right iliac fossa, the pain is not causes by coughing or sneezing. Also, there will be other symptoms like tenderness and rebound tenderness in right iliac fossa in case of appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic.

      At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?

      Your Answer: Days 6-12

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with...

    Correct

    • Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with no sub-nuclear vacuoles. The stroma is oedematous, & a tortuous gland contains secretions. These findings are consistent with which stage of the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Mid-secretory

      Explanation:

      During mid secretory phase, the endometrium cells undergo distension, become more tortuous and are lined by columnar cells.
      In the early proliferative phase, the glandular epithelium is cubo-columnar, while in the late proliferative phase, the glands increase in size, becoming tortuous and there is pseudostratification of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - All of the following are features of the female bony pelvis, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are features of the female bony pelvis, except?

      Your Answer: Has a transverse diameter of the inlet greater than the antero-posterior diameter

      Correct Answer: It is funnel shaped

      Explanation:

      The female bony pelvis is larger, broader and more of a funnel shape. The inlet is larger and oval in shape and the sides of the female pelvis are wider apart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the half life of Oxytocin? ...

    Correct

    • What is the half life of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      The half life of oxytocin is 5 mins, which is why is should be started as an infusion at a low rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Changes in the urinary tract system in pregnancy include: ...

    Correct

    • Changes in the urinary tract system in pregnancy include:

      Your Answer: Increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy involves remarkable orchestration of physiologic changes. The kidneys are central players in the evolving hormonal milieu of pregnancy, responding and contributing to the changes in the environment for the pregnant woman and foetus. The functional impact of pregnancy on kidney physiology is widespread, involving practically all aspects of kidney function. The glomerular filtration rate increases 50% with subsequent decrease in serum creatinine, urea, and uric acid values. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female puberty?

      Your Answer: Thelarche, menarche, maximal growth velocity

      Correct Answer: Thelarche, maximal growth velocity, menarche

      Explanation:

      Thelarche means appearance of the breast tissue under the influence of oestrogen from the ovaries. It heralds the onset of puberty among girls. It is followed by an increase in growth velocity followed by menarche which is the time of first menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as: ...

    Correct

    • Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as:

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis is a disorder characterised by the presence of endometrial glands deep within the myometrium. It presents with increasing severe secondary dysmenorrhoea and increased in the flow of menstrual blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except:

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of tumours defined by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

      GTD is divided into hydatidiform moles (contain villi) and other trophoblastic neoplasms (lack villi). The non-molar or malignant forms of GTD are called gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).
      Hydatidiform mole (HM) is associated with abnormal gametogenesis and/or fertilization. Risk factors include extremes of age, ethnicity, and a prior history of an HM which suggests a genetic basis for its aetiology.

      GTD is best managed by an interprofessional team that includes nurses and pharmacists. Patients with molar pregnancies must be monitored for associated complications including hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia, and ovarian theca lutein cysts. Molar pregnancy induced hyperthyroidism should resolve with the evacuation of the uterus, but patients may require beta-adrenergic blocking agents before anaesthesia to reverse effects of thyroid storm. Pre-eclampsia also resolves quickly after the evacuation of the uterus. Theca lutein cysts will regress spontaneously with falling beta-HCG levels. However, patients must be counselled on signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion and ruptured ovarian cysts.

      A single uterine evacuation has no significant effect on future fertility, and pregnancy outcomes in subsequent pregnancies are comparable to that of the general population, despite a slight increased risk of developing molar pregnancy again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You have just clerked in a patient on the labour ward who has...

    Correct

    • You have just clerked in a patient on the labour ward who has SLE. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SLE an example of?

      Your Answer: Type III

      Explanation:

      SLE is a type III hypersensitivity reaction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice regarding contraception in view of wanting to start being sexually active.

      Which contraceptive option would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: The OCP and a condom.

      Explanation:

      This patient should be advised to use both an OCP and a condom. The combined oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to be very effective. However, she should be made aware that it would not provide any protection from any sexually transmitted diseases so she might still be at risk of developing a STD, depending on her sexual partner preferences. To ensure protection from STDs, she should be advised to use both condoms as well as the combined OCP. An IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) would not be preferable if she has multiple sexual partners (high risk of STDs). If she has been screened for STDs, does not actively have an STD and has only one sexual partner then IUCD is a possible option. Some issues that may arise with spermicide use could be related to compliance. This also applies to using condoms alone. These two options are less reliable as compared to COCP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16 week pregnant patient presents to the antenatal clinic. Protein values of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 week pregnant patient presents to the antenatal clinic. Protein values of ++ are found on urinalysis. Significant proteinuria is indicated in which of the following protein:creatinine values?

      Your Answer: 50 mg/mmol

      Correct Answer: 30 mg/mmol

      Explanation:

      Proteinuria of more than 1+ on dipstick should be investigated to quantify the amount of proteinuria. A protein: creatinine ratio can be used to determine the severity of proteinuria, where levels of more than 30 mg/mmol indicate significant proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Correct

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings.

      Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd...

    Correct

    • A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. She was diagnosed as a case of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Which one of the following factors carries the greatest risk to the foetus in this disease?

      Your Answer: Perinatal mortality

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can affect both mother and foetus, however it is more harmful for the foetus. Amongst foetuses, there is an increased risk of perinatal mortality, meconium aspiration, premature delivery and post partum haemorrhage. Exact cause of fetal death cannot be predicted accurately but it is not related to intra uterine growth retardation or placental insufficiency. The liver can be affected in the mother leading to generalized pruritis but no evidence of fetal hepatic dysfunction has been found.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 36-year-old woman presents to your clinic with cyclical mastalgia. Physical examination reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to your clinic with cyclical mastalgia. Physical examination reveals that her breasts are normal. She has a family history of her mom who developed breast cancer at the age of 45 years and subsequently died from metastases. She states that her patient's maternal grandmother also had breast cancer before the age of 50.

      The patient is on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and no other medications. She is generally healthy overall. Recent mammography results are also normal. An ultrasound of the breasts shows an uncomplicated cyst with no concerning features in the right breast.

      Apart from advice about the use of simple analgesics and evening primrose oil for her mastalgia, which one of the following is the most appropriate management in the patient's follow-up regimen?

      Your Answer: Remain on the OCP, yearly clinical review, yearly mammography and ultrasound.

      Correct Answer: Remain on the OCP, six-monthly clinical review, yearly mammography and ultrasound.

      Explanation:

      This is a case of a woman who presented with cyclical breast pain that is on an OCP and with a family history of breast cancer. Those with a family history of breast cancer in more than one blood relative (parent, sibling, grandparent) have a significantly higher chance of developing breast cancer than women with no family history. Regular six-monthly clinical review and yearly mammographic screening, with or without ultrasound screening, should start at least five years before the age of the diagnosis in the blood relatives.

      The consensus now is that any additional risk of breast cancer from the oestrogen in the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) is less than the risk of unwanted pregnancy when using alternative, and perhaps less effective, contraception. Thus, the patient would not be advised to stop the OCP.

      With two blood relatives that developed breast cancer before the age of 50, this patient is in a high-risk group of developing breast cancer. Even so, 50% of such high-risk women will not develop a breast cancer in their lifetime. There are specialised familial cancer screening clinics are available for high-risk women where genetic testing can be discussed further. Women at high risk may electively have a bilateral subcutaneous mastectomy performed prophylactically which will bring the risk of breast cancer development to an irreducible minimum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function in patients with obstetric cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis characterized by reversible cholestasis typically occurring in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, elevated serum aminotransferases and bile acid level and resolution of symptoms by 2 to 3 weeks after delivery. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown to reduce the symptoms of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the emergency room. She claims that it is around the time that she usually has her period. She has previously experienced defecation discomfort, dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea. The patient claims that she has previously experienced similar symptoms, but that the agony has suddenly become unbearable.

      Her abdomen is soft, with normal bowel sounds and no rebound soreness, according to her physical examination. There is no costovertebral discomfort and the patient does not guard. Blood in the posterior vaginal vault, a closed os, and no palpable masses or cervical motion pain are all findings on her pelvic examination.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavity. Approximately 30-40% of women with endometriosis will be sub fertile. About one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:
      – Dysmenorrhea
      – Heavy or irregular bleeding
      – Pelvic pain
      – Lower abdominal or back pain
      – Dyspareunia
      – Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation
      – Bloating, nausea, and vomiting
      – Inguinal pain
      – Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency
      – Pain during exercise

      Pregnancy, appendicitis, ureteral colic and ruptured ectopic pregnancy all do not present with dysmenorrhea, pain on defecation and dyspareunia. Presence of a non tender, soft abdomen also rules out these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except:

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Correct Answer: Congenital anomalies of the baby

      Explanation:

      Literature review shows that bicornuate uterus is associated with increase risk of spontaneous abortion in about 36% of patients. There is also an increased risk of preterm birth, malpresentation and fetal growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally, presented with a history of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding, and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home.

      On examination, she is conscious and pale.
      Her vital signs include blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and a pulse rate of 115 beats per minute which is weak.
      Her abdomen is irregularly distended, with both shifting dullness and fluid thrill present. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.

      What will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      Patient’s presentation is classic for uterine rupture, were she developed sudden abdominal pain followed by cessation of contractions, termination of urge to push and vaginal bleeding.
      Abdominal examination shows no fetal cardiac activity and signs of fluid collection like fluid thrill and shifting dullness. The fluid collected will be blood, which usually enters the peritoneum after the rupture of the uterus. In such patients vaginal examination will reveal a range of cervical dilatation with evidences of cephalopelvic disproportion.
      Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site for spontaneous uterine rupture. Patient in the case presenting with tachycardia and hypotension is in shock due to blood loss and will require urgent resuscitation.

      Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding from the vagina and Placental abruption will present with painful vaginal bleeding with tender and tense uterine wall, however, in contrary to that of uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in both these cases.

      Shoulder dystocia is more likely to present in a prolonged labour with a significant delay in the progress of labour. However, in this case, there is no mention of shoulder dystocia.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition which is causes due to abnormal and excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood which results in bleeding from every skin puncture sites. It results in increased platelet aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors which results in bleeding at some sites and thromboembolism at other sites. Placental abruption, or retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the causes for DIC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding cardiac output in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac output in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?

      Your Answer: Cardiac output increases by approximately 40-50% during pregnancy

      Explanation:

      In a non pregnant adult female the cardiac output is 4.5L/min, by the 20 week of pregnancy the cardiac output increases by 40% to 6.3L/min. During early stages of labour it increases further still by 17% to 7.3L/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the cervix after standard pap smear testing. She was referred to a gynaecologist, who effectively treated her. This patient has now been returned to you.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months

      Explanation:

      Monitoring after treatment for HSIL includes:
      – colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months followed by HPV typing at 12 months and annually until a negative test is obtained on 2 subsequent check ups.
      -2 yearly screening interval can be done afterwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her oral contraceptives for 6 months. She comes to your office for evaluation because her menstrual period is 2 weeks late. Her menses had been regular since discontinuing the oral contraceptives. A urine hCG is negative. Which one of the following is true regarding this situation?

      Your Answer: It is unlikely that she is pregnant

      Explanation:

      With the high level of sensitivity and specificity of current tests to measure hCG in serum and urine, pregnancy can now be diagnosed before the time of the first missed menstrual period- For current serum hCG assays, the low threshold for detection is 10-25 IU/L, while for urine assays it is 25-50 IU/L, which corresponds to approximately the seventh day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood and urine are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the time- If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant. To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a definitive result.

      Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the chances of future fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on?

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Fetal nutrition is dependant upon multiple factors such as maternal nutritional state, quality of maternal diet, malnutrition, anorexia nervosa, metabolic rate of the mother or whether they suffer from malabsorption syndrome or other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both...

    Correct

    • The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol is the common precursor for progesterone and androgen production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe...

    Correct

    • A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe vaginal pain 4 days after the procedure.

      At the site of the episiotomy, an 8-cm hematoma is noted on examination. Also the woman is found to be hemodynamically stable.

      Among the following, which is considered the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Explore the hematoma

      Explanation:

      In most cases reported, puerperal hematomas arise due to bleeding lacerations related to operative deliveries or episiotomy, and in rare cases from spontaneous injury to a blood vessel in the absence of any laceration/incision of the surrounding tissue. Vulval, vaginal/paravaginal area and retroperitoneum are considered the most common locations for puerperal hematomas.

      Most puerperal hematomas are diagnosed based on the presence of characteristic symptoms and physical examination findings:
      VuIvar hematoma usually presents as a rapidly developing, severely painful, tense and compressible mass which is covered by skin of purplish discoloration. A vulvar hematoma can also be an extension of a vaginal hematoma which was dissected through a loose subcutaneous tissue into the vulva.
      Vaginal hematomas often present with rectal pressure, were hemodynamic instability caused due to bleeding into the ischiorectal fossa and paravaginal space are the first signs and can result in hypovolemic shock. In these cases a large mass protruding into the vagina is often found on physical examination.
      Retroperitoneal hematomas are asymptomatic initially and extend between the folds of broad ligament. Patients suffering will often present with tachycardia, hypotension or shock due to the significant accumulated of blood in the retroperitoneal space. Unless the hematoma is associated with trauma, patients will not present with pain, only signs will be a palpable abdominal mass or fever.

      Treatment of hematoma depends mostly on the size and location:
      Non-expanding hematomas which are <3cm in size can be managed conservatively with analgesics and application of ice packs. An expanding hematoma or those greater than 3cm is managed effectively with surgical exploration under anesthesia, were an incision is made to evacuate the hematoma. The surgical site should not be sutured and vagina is often packed for 12-24 hours, an indwelling urinary catheter also may be indicated. In the given case, patient presents with a large haematoma (>3cm) which needs surgical excision and evacuation.

      Aspiration of the hematoma is not an appropriate treatment. If surgical intervention is indicated excision and evacuation is the preferred option, followed by vaginal packing for 12-24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part.

      The most likely diagnosis at this time is:

      Your Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 26 year old patient sustains a 4th degree perineal tear following delivery...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient sustains a 4th degree perineal tear following delivery of her 1st baby. Your consultant agrees to supervise you repair the tear. From the list below what is the most appropriate suture option for repairing the anal mucosa?

      Your Answer: 3-0 PDS end to end sutures

      Correct Answer: 3-0 polyglactin interrupted sutures

      Explanation:

      Repair the vaginal mucosa using rapidly absorbed suture material on a large, round body needle. Start above the apex of the cut or tear (as severed vessels retract slightly) and use a continuous stitch to close the vaginal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The joint between the two pubic bones is called the: ...

    Correct

    • The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:

      Your Answer: Pubis symphysis

      Explanation:

      The pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis is the midline cartilaginous joint (secondary cartilaginous) uniting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones. It is located anterior to the urinary bladder and superior to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 115 g/l

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin decreases from 13.3 g/dL to 10.5 g/dL from the start of pregnancy i.e. First trimester till the 3rd trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (5/6) 83%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Physiology (4/4) 100%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Clinical Management (3/5) 60%
Embryology (0/2) 0%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (6/7) 86%
Data Interpretation (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Passmed