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  • Question 1 - Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is 60 mmHg, pressure at the other end is 20 mm Hg and the flow rate in the artery is 200 ml/min.

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      Flow in any vessel = Effective perfusion pressure divided by resistance, where effective perfusion pressure is the mean intraluminal pressure at the arterial end minus the mean pressure at the venous end. Thus, in the given problem, resistance = (60 − 20)/200 = 0.2 mmHg/ml per min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - If a 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular seminoma that reaches the...

    Incorrect

    • If a 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular seminoma that reaches the tunica albuginea and involves the tunica vaginalis, with retroperitoneal lymph nodes greater than 5cm, LDH 1.4 times the reference levels, β-hCG 4250 mIU/ml and AFP 780 ng/ml, what's the clinical stage in this case?

      Your Answer: Stage IIIA

      Correct Answer: Stage IIC

      Explanation:

      According to the AJCC, the clinical staging for testicular seminoma is:
      Stage IA: T1 N0 M0 S0
      Stage IB: T2/3/4 N0 M0 S0
      Stage IC: any T N0 M0 S1/2/3
      Stage IIA: any T N1 M0 S0/1
      Stage IIB: any T N2 M0 S0/1
      Stage IIC: any T N3 M0 S0/1
      Stage IIIA: any T any N M1a S0/1
      Stage IIIB: any T any N M0/1a S2
      Stage IIIC: any T any N M1a/1b S3.
      The patient in this case has IIC stage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?

      Your Answer: Gives rise to the muscles of facial expression

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in which type of inflammation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in which type of inflammation?

      Your Answer: Suppurative inflammation

      Correct Answer: Granulomatous inflammation

      Explanation:

      Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in granulomatous inflammation. They form when epithelioid cells fuse together. They usually contain a nuclei with a horseshoe-shaped pattern in the periphery of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Correct

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby? ...

    Correct

    • What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby?

      Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies that are produced by the immune response bind to the patients own cell surface antigens. These antigens can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Destruction occurs due to antibody dependent cell mediated antibodies. Antibodies bind to the cell and opsonise the cell, activating phagocytes to destroy that cell e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Goodpasture syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, pernicious anaemia, Graves’ disease, Myasthenia gravis and haemolytic disease of the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In what form are fats primarily transported in the body? ...

    Correct

    • In what form are fats primarily transported in the body?

      Your Answer: Free fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Fat is mainly transported in the body as free fatty acids. Once out of the adipose cell, the free fatty acids get ionized and combine with albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Incorrect

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer: Pubic symphysis

      Correct Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.

      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.

      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.

      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.

      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion: ...

    Correct

    • A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion:

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephrosis, including proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and oedema. It is a component of glomerulonephritis, in which different degrees of proteinuria occur. Essentially, loss of protein through the kidneys leads to low protein levels in the blood , which causes water to be drawn into soft tissues (oedema). Severe hypoalbuminemia can also cause a variety of secondary problems, such as water in the abdominal cavity (ascites), around the heart or lung (pericardial effusion, pleural effusion), high cholesterol, loss of molecules regulating coagulation (hence increased risk of thrombosis). The most common sign is excess fluid in the body due to the serum hypoalbuminemia. Lower serum oncotic pressure causes fluid to accumulate in the interstitial tissues. Sodium and water retention aggravates the oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old female has sudden onset of high-grade fever associated with cough with...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female has sudden onset of high-grade fever associated with cough with productive rusty-coloured sputum. Chest x-ray showed left-sided consolidation. What is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Sputum culture

      Explanation:

      Sputum culture is used to detect and identify the organism that are infecting the lungs or breathing passages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      223.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain?

      Your Answer: 80%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Among all body organs, the brain is most susceptible to ischaemia. Comprising of only 2.5% of total body weight, the brain receives 15% of the cardiac output. Oxygen extraction is also higher with venous oxygen levels approximating 13 vol%, and arteriovenous oxygen difference of 7 vol%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      96.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A chest X-ray in a healthy, non-smoker, asymptomatic 48-year-old woman reveals a 2cm...

    Incorrect

    • A chest X-ray in a healthy, non-smoker, asymptomatic 48-year-old woman reveals a 2cm left lower lobe well-defined round opacity. Which of the following conditions is most probably responsible for this finding?

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary hamartoma

      Explanation:

      An asymptomatic healthy patient with no history of smoking and a lesion of small size most probably has a benign lung lesion. Hamartomas are one of the most common benign tumours of the lung that accounts for approximately 6% of all solitary pulmonary nodules. Pulmonary hamartomas are usually asymptomatic and therefore are found incidentally when performing an imaging test for other reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor...

    Correct

    • If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters:...

    Correct

    • Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters:

      Heart rate 70 beats/min

      Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min

      Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi

      Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min

      Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg

      Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg

      Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.

      Your Answer: 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min)

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) = (Mean pulmonary artery pressure – Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) divided by Cardiac output. To get cardiac output, Fick’s principle needs to be applied which states that VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CA = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. To calculate mean pulmonary artery pressure, we use the formula: Mean pulmonary artery pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure). Thus, Mean pulmonary artery pressure = 15 + 1/3(25 – 15) = 15 + 3. 33 = 18.33. Substituting these values in the first formula, PVR = 18.3–5/6.25 = 13.5/5.25 = 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min) approximately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department due to fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department due to fever and chills. She has a history of recurrent UTI and complains of dysuria and urinary frequency. Urinary white blood cell count is >200 cell/high power field. If urine culture is performed, what is the most likely organism that will grow?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      The pathogen that most likely causes recurrent urinary tract infection in young women are E. coli, Enterococcus and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 38 year-old man falls on an outstretched hand. X-rays indicate an anterior...

    Correct

    • A 38 year-old man falls on an outstretched hand. X-rays indicate an anterior dislocation of one of the carpal bones. Which carpal bone is most commonly dislocated?

      Your Answer: Lunate

      Explanation:

      The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone and has an increased risk of avascular necrosis.

      The lunate is the most commonly dislocated carpal bone. The displaced bone may compress the median nerve in the carpal tunnel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who...

    Correct

    • A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who presents with a history of a cough and weight loss for over a month. It shows a rounded opacity in the pleural cavity near the cardiac notch. The opacity is most likely to be in the:

      Your Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is the point where the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura, located right next to the cardiac notch.

      The cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib to the root of the lung.

      Hilum: located on the medial surface of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold found below the root of the lung, is a point of continuity between the visceral and mediastinal pleura.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Superior mediastinum: part of the mediastinum that contains the great vessels leaving and entering the heart.

      The cardiac notch is in the inferior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which of the following conditions will the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shift to...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following conditions will the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the right?

      Your Answer: Decrease in p(CO2)

      Correct Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve plots saturated haemoglobin against the oxygen tension and is usually a sigmoid plot. Each molecule of haemoglobin can bind to four molecules of oxygen reversibly. Factors that can influence the binding include: pH, concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG), temperature, type of haemoglobin molecules, and presence of toxins, especially carbon monoxide. Shape of the curve is due to interaction of bound oxygen molecules with the incoming molecules. The binding of first molecule is difficult, with easier binding of the second and third molecule and increase in difficulty with the fourth molecule – partly as a result of crowding and partly as a natural tendency of oxygen to dissociate.

      Left shift of curve indicates haemoglobin’s increased affinity for oxygen (seen at lungs). Right shift indicates decreased affinity and is seen with an increase in body temperature, hydrogen ions, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG), carbon dioxide concentration and exercise. Under normal resting conditions in a healthy individual, the normal position of the curve is at a pH of 7.4. A shift in the position of the curve with a change in pH is called the Bohr effect. Left shift occurs in acute alkalosis, decrease in p(CO2), decrease in temperature and decrease in 2,3-DPG. The fetal haemoglobin curve is to the left of the adult haemoglobin to allow for oxygen diffusion across the placenta. The curve for myoglobin is even further to the left. Carbon monoxide has a much higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen does. Thus, carbon monoxide poisoning leads to hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which...

    Correct

    • Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and shortness of breath. Electrocardiography findings show no P waves, normal QRS complexes and an irregularly irregular rhythm. The patient most probably has:

      Your Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common arrhythmias, characterised by an irregular and rapid heart rate. Due to the decreased cardiac output, atrial fibrillation increases the risk of heart failure. It can also lead to thrombus formation which may lead to thromboembolic events. Clinical findings include palpitations, shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain and confusion. The diagnosis is made by electrocardiographic findings which include absent P wave, fibrillatory (f) waves between QRS complexes and irregularly irregular R-R intervals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate...

    Correct

    • After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate post-operative period?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Total thyroidectomy might sometimes result in inadvertent excision or damage of parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Monitoring serum calcium levels in the post-operative period to detect hypocalcaemia is essential to diagnose and prevent this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis?

      Your Answer: T lymphocytes

      Correct Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Plasma cell are memory cells. After the antigen Is engulfed by the B cells it is presented to the CD4+ helper cells via the MCH II receptor and this leads to their activation which in turn stimulates the B cells to form antibodies against that specific antigen. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells also called memory cells that get activated after subsequent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of...

    Correct

    • Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of a boil located on the labia majora?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The perineum, external genitalia, the labia majora and scrotum drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. In a man, the testes do not drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes but rather travel in the spermatic cord and drain into the lumbar nodes. The lumbar nodes drain the internal pelvic organs. The sacral nodes drain the prostrate gland, uterus, vagina, rectum and posterior pelvic wall and the external iliac nodes in turn drain the lower limb. The internal iliac nodes drain the pelvis and gluteal region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This...

    Incorrect

    • A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Enterocolic reflex

      Correct Answer: Gastrocolic reflex

      Explanation:

      The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that involves increase in colonic motility in response to stretch in the stomach and by-products of digestion in the small intestine. It is shown to be uneven in its distribution throughout the colon, with the sigmoid colon affected more than the right side of the colon in terms of a phasic response. Various neuropeptides have been proposed as mediators of this reflex, such as serotonin, neurotensin, cholecystokinin and gastrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left breast as compared to the right breast since puberty. The most likely cause for this is:

      Your Answer: Cystosarcoma phyllodes

      Correct Answer: Virginal breast hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Virginal breast hypertrophy’ is the term assigned to excessive growth of breasts during puberty and is a common phenomenon. It is also known as ‘juvenile macromastia’ or ‘ juvenile gigantomastia’. The breast hypertrophy often starts with menarche and occasionally occurs in growth spurts. These spurts can cause physical discomfort, red and itchy skin or pain in the breasts. The breasts can also grow continuously over several years and lead to overdevelopment of a normal breast. Nipples also undergo enlargement along with the breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with use of oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Cyst formation

      Explanation:

      Breast cysts are common and are smooth, firm, mobile lumps that can sometimes be tender. Cysts can also be bilateral and are known to recur in 10% of cases. They are more common in women in the third and fourth decades and most often disappear after menopause. Cysts are filled with fluid from the breast which occurs due to the normal menstrual cycle of a woman. The end of the menstrual cycle causes breast cells to swell. After the menses, the cells shrink and the released fluid disappears. However, in some cases this fluid forms a cyst. Incidence of cysts was also linked to use of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?

      Your Answer: CHOP

      Explanation:

      CHOP is the acronym for a chemotherapy regimen used in the treatment of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, comprising cyclophosphamide, hydroxyrubicin (adriamycin), vincristine and prednisone. This regimen can also be combined with the monoclonal antibody rituximab if the lymphoma is of B cell origin; this combination is called R-CHOP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Perforin are present in the granules of which cell? ...

    Incorrect

    • Perforin are present in the granules of which cell?

      Your Answer: Kupffer cell

      Correct Answer: Natural killer cell

      Explanation:

      Perforins are characteristically found In the granules of CD8+ T cells and natural killer cells. They are cytolytic proteins that insert into the target plasma membrane forming a hole and resulting in lysis. They along with granzyme B induce apoptosis in the target cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in...

    Incorrect

    • The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?

      Your Answer: Middle scalene

      Correct Answer: Anterior scalene

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in:

      Your Answer: Burkitt’s lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides

      Explanation:

      Mycosis fungoides is a chronic T-cell lymphoma that involves the skin and less commonly, the internal organs such as nodes, liver, spleen and lungs. It is usually diagnosed in patients above 50 years and the average life expectancy is 7-10 years. It is insidious in onset and presents as a chronic, itchy rash, eventually spreading to involve most of the skin. Lesions are commonly plaque-like, but can be nodular or ulcerated. Symptoms include fever, night sweats and weight loss. Skin biopsy is diagnostic. However, early cases may pose a challenge due to fewer lymphoma cells. The malignant cells are mature T cells (T4+, T11+, T12+). The epidermis shows presence of characteristic Pautrier’s micro abscesses are present in the epidermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/4) 25%
Physiology (4/9) 44%
Pathology (5/14) 36%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (4/7) 57%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (0/2) 0%
Head & Neck (1/2) 50%
Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
General (0/1) 0%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed