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  • Question 1 - What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin?

      Your Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Making up 4-5% of total body weight, the skin receives approximately 2% of cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Correct

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.

      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.

      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.

      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.

      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Ventricular filling follows a delay caused by? ...

    Correct

    • Ventricular filling follows a delay caused by?

      Your Answer: AV node

      Explanation:

      The AV node is a conducting tissue found between the atria and the ventricles of the heart. It conducts electrical signal from the atria to the ventricles and acts a delaying mechanism preventing the atria and the ventricles from contracting at the same time. This decremental conduction prevents premature ventricular contraction in cases such as atrial fibrillation. A delay in the AV node is the reason for the PR segment seen on the ECG. In certain types of supraventricular tachycardia, a person could have two AV nodes; this will cause a loop in electrical current and uncontrollably rapid heart beat. When this electricity catches up with itself, it will dissipate and return to a normal heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery: ...

    Incorrect

    • The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery:

      Your Answer: Profunda brachii

      Correct Answer: Brachial

      Explanation:

      The brachial artery gives rise to a small branch at the middle of the arm, which is the superior collateral artery. It descends accompanied by the ulnar nerve and anastomoses with the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the: ...

    Correct

    • The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:

      Your Answer: Pectoralis minor

      Explanation:

      Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was...

    Correct

    • After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was a known case of diabetic nephropathy had persistent metabolic acidosis. The patient appeared well perfused, with normal vital signs and normal fluid balance. Investigations revealed:

      Sodium = 132 mmol/l

      Potassium = 6.6 mmol/l

      Creatinine = 185 μmol/l (2.16 mg/dl)

      Chloride = 109 μmol/l

      8am cortisol = 500 nmol/l (18 μg/dl)

      pH = 7.29, p(CO2) = 27 mmHg

      p(O2) = 107 mmHg

      standard bicarbonate = 12 mmol/l.

      What is the likely causes of his acidosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis here is due to low bicarbonate. The low p(CO2) is seen in compensation. The anion gap is normal, ruling out intra-abdominal ischaemia (which leads to metabolic acidosis). If it was a gastrointestinal aetiology, low potassium would be seen. The history of diabetic nephropathy predisposes to renal tubular acidosis. Type 4 (hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism) is associated with high potassium and is found in diabetic and hypertensive renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      112.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great...

    Correct

    • Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great cerebral vein, otherwise also known as the great vein of Galen?

      Your Answer: Internal cerebral veins

      Explanation:

      The great vein of Galen or great cerebral vein, is formed by the union of the internal cerebral veins and the basal veins of Rosenthal. This vein curves upwards and backwards along the border of the splenium of the corpus callosum and eventually drains into the inferior sagittal sinus and straight sinus at its anterior extremity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side...

    Correct

    • A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side of the head, over the temporal region during a vehicular accident. This resulted to the rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. Which artery is affected?

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. After branching off the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa, it runs through the foramen spinosum to supply the dura mater and the calvaria. The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges, the others being the anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery. The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma .An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) will most likely be reduced by which of the...

    Correct

    • Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) will most likely be reduced by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Decrease in body temperature

      Explanation:

      The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is defined as the rate of calorie consumption after an overnight fast, in the absence of any muscular activity, with the patient in a restful state. Various factors affect the BMR including weight, body surface area and age. The BMR is 30 kcal/m2 per hour at birth; at age 2, the rate is 57 kcal/m2 per hour; and at age 20, 41 kcal/m2 per hour. After this, the BMR decreases by 10% between 20-60 years of age. Women are known to have a 10% lower BMR than men (due to higher fat content). A one-degree change in body temperature leads to a 10% change in BMR in the same direction. However, shivering and increasing ambient temperature brings about a rise in BMR, and so does stress, physical activity, caffeine, theophylline and hyperthyroidism. Also, thermogenesis induced by diet results in increased metabolic rate and hence, BMR should be ideally measured after overnight fasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of the prostate for malignant growth, which of the following structures is directly related to the base of the prostate?

      Your Answer: Rectum

      Correct Answer: Urinary bladder

      Explanation:

      The prostate is situated in the pelvic cavity and is also located immediately below the internal urethral orifice at the commencement of the urethra. It is held in position by the puboprostatic ligaments, the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm and the anterior portions of the levatores ani. The base of the prostate is directed upward and is attached to the inferior surface of the urinary bladder while the apex is directed downward and is in contact with the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in the middle of the posterior aspect of the left thigh, was discharged from hospital after dressing and antibiotic prophylaxis. Later on the patient developed bleeding through the wound and upon review, the source was discovered to be an artery that is the direct source of the medial and lateral circumflex arteries. Which is this artery that was injured?

      Your Answer: Profunda femoris artery

      Explanation:

      The medial and lateral circumflex arteries are direct branches of the Profunda femoris artery otherwise also known as the deep artery of the thigh. The Profunda femoris artery arises from the femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament (approximately 2-5cm below it).

      The following are the branches of the deep artery of the thigh:

      Lateral circumflex femoral artery

      Medial circumflex femoral artery

      Perforating arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors...

    Correct

    • A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors is deficient in this form of haemophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia C, also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA) deficiency or Rosenthal syndrome, is a condition caused by the deficiency of the coagulation factor XI. The condition is rare and it is usually found in Ashkenazi Jews.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a...

    Correct

    • A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a high likelihood of cystic fibrosis. This diagnosis is associated with a higher risk of developing which of the following?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a life-threatening disorder that causes the build up of thick mucus in the lungs, digestive tract, and other areas of the body. It is a hereditary autosomal-recessive disease caused by mutations of the CFTR gene. Cystic fibrosis eventually results in bronchiectasis which is defined as a permanent dilatation and obstruction of bronchi or bronchioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30 year old man suffered severe blood loss, approx. 20-30% of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old man suffered severe blood loss, approx. 20-30% of his blood volume. What changes are most likely seen in the pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) and pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) respectively following this decrease in cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Decrease Increase

      Correct Answer: Increase Decrease

      Explanation:

      Hypovolemia will result in the activation of the sympathetic adrenal discharge resulting is a decrease pulmonary artery pressure and an elevated pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year old man presents with sclerosing cholangitis, blood in his stools and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old man presents with sclerosing cholangitis, blood in his stools and apparent iron deficiency anaemia. What will be the most likely finding on his colonic biopsy?

      Your Answer: Pseudopolyps

      Explanation:

      Sclerosing cholangitis along with the passage of blood in stools suggests ulcerative colitis affecting the mucosa and submucosa of rectum and colon, with a sharp demarcation with the normal tissue. The musclaris layer is involved in severe cases. Initially, the mucosa is erythematous, friable with scattered haemorrhagic areas and loss of normal vascular pattern. Severe disease is indicated by presence of large mucosal ulcers with purulent exudate. There can be islands of normal mucosa between the ulcerated mucosa, along with few hyperplastic inflammatory mucosal lesions (pseudopolyps). Ulcerative colitis does not lead to development of fistulas or abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      586.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor,...

    Incorrect

    • After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor, superficial injuries. 2 hours later, she becomes unconscious and a CT scan reveals a convex, lens-shaped haemorrhage over the right parietal region. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Epidural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Epidural haematomas are usually caused by arterial bleeding, classically due to damage to the middle meningeal artery by a temporal bone fracture. Symptoms develop within minutes to several hours after the injury and consist of increasing headache, decreased level of consciousness, hemiparesis and pupillary dilation with loss of light reactivity. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart....

    Incorrect

    • A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart. This is characteristic of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great vessels

      Correct Answer: Persistent truncus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Persistent truncus arteriosus is a congenital heart disease that occurs when the primitive truncus does not divide into the pulmonary artery and aorta, resulting in a single arterial trunk. The spiral septum is created by fusion of a truncal septum and the aorticopulmonary spiral septum. Incomplete development of these septa results in incomplete separation of the common tube of the truncus arteriosus and the aorticopulmonary trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      156.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves...

    Correct

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer: First heart sound

      Explanation:

      In the cardiac cycle, the closing of the atrioventricular (AV) valves coincides with the onset of ventricular systole. This event marks the beginning of the isovolumetric contraction phase, where the ventricles begin to contract, but the volume of blood in the ventricles remains the same because both the AV valves and the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary valves) are closed. The closing of the AV valves produces the first heart sound, known as “S1” or “lub.”

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which...

    Correct

    • Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Sacrococcygeal area

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old male who has smoked since his teens complains of progressive shortness...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male who has smoked since his teens complains of progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough. He is diagnosed with COPD. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present in his pulmonary function tests?

      Your Answer: Increased residual volume

      Explanation:

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by long-term poor airflow. The main symptoms include shortness of breath and cough with sputum production. The best diagnostic test for evaluating patients with suspected chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is lung function measured with spirometry. Key spirometrical measures may be obtained with a portable office spirometer and should include forced vital capacity (FVC) and the normal forced expiratory volume in the first second of expiration (FEV1). The ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) normally exceeds 0.75. Patients with COPD typically present with obstructive airflow. Complete pulmonary function testing may show increased total lung capacity, functional residual capacity and residual volume. A substantial loss of lung surface area available for effective oxygen exchange causes diminished carbon monoxide diffusion in the lung (DLco) in patients with emphysema. Tobacco smoking is the most common cause of COPD, with factors such as air pollution and genetics playing a smaller role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with: ...

    Correct

    • Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with:

      Your Answer: Penile erections

      Explanation:

      Normal sleep comprises of alternate cycles between slow-wave sleep (non-REM sleep) and REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by increased metabolic brain activity and EEG desynchronization. Somnambulism (sleepwalking), enuresis (bedwetting) and night terrors all occur during slow-wave sleep or during arousal from slow-wave sleep. In comparison, REM sleep is characterized by hypotonia of major muscle groups (excluding ocular muscles), dreams, nightmares and penile erection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: Stylopharyngeus muscle

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Also known as the hyoid arch, it forms the side and front of the neck. From its cartilage develops the styloid process, stylohyoid ligament and lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. The muscular derivatives include the muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid and the posterior belly of the digastric. All these are innervated by cranial nerve VII but migrate into the area of the mandibular arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Prostatectomy carries a risk of loss of penile erection due to injury to...

    Correct

    • Prostatectomy carries a risk of loss of penile erection due to injury to the prostatic plexus responsible for an erection. From which nerves do these fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Pelvic splanchnics

      Explanation:

      Erection is a function of the parasympathetic nerves. Of the nerves listed, only the pelvic splanchnic nerves have parasympathetic fibres that innervate the smooth muscles and glands of the pelvic viscera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which...

    Correct

    • A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which of the following is true about that vein?

      Your Answer: Has nine to twelve valves

      Explanation:

      It is known that the small saphenous vein has nine to twelve valves along its course. This vein begins as a direct continuation of the lateral marginal vein posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is superficially situated but closer to its termination, perforates the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa to end in the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby with a Rh+ blood group. What measure can be performed to prevent Rh incompatibility in the next pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin D

      Explanation:

      Rh disease is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis and is a disease of the new-born. In mild states it can cause anaemia with reticulocytosis and in severe forms causes severe anaemia, morbus hemolytcus new-born and hydrops fetalis. RBCs of the Rh+ baby can cross the placenta and enter into the maternal blood. As she is Rh- her body will form antibodies against the D antigen which will pass through the placenta in subsequent pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover...

    Correct

    • The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover the lungs. What is the normal amount of pleural fluid?

      Your Answer: 10 ml

      Explanation:

      Pleural fluid is a serous fluid produced by the serous membrane covering normal pleurae. Most fluid is produced by the parietal circulation (intercostal arteries) via bulk flow and reabsorbed by the lymphatic system. The total volume of fluid present in the intrapleural space is estimated to be only 2–10 ml. A small amount of protein is present in intrapleural fluid. Normally, the rate of reabsorption increases as a physiological response to accumulating fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with vasculitis and the histopathological sample revealed giant-cell arteritis. What is the most probable diagnose?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      Giant cell arteritis (GCA), also known as temporal arteritis, is the most common systemic inflammatory vasculitis that occurs in adults. It is of unknown aetiology and affects arteries large to small however the involvement of the superficial temporal arteries is almost always present. Other commonly affected arteries include the ophthalmic, occipital and vertebral arteries, therefore GCA can result in systemic, neurologic, and ophthalmologic complications. GCA usually is found in patients older than 50 years of age and should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache accompanied by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Diagnosis depends on the results of artery biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin is a peptide that is released in response to a decrease in blood volume and blood pressure. It has multiple functions but mainly acts to cause vasoconstriction, increase BP and release aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. It is a powerful vasoconstrictor and release of aldosterone causes increased retention of sodium and excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department due to fever and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department due to fever and chills. She has a history of recurrent UTI and complains of dysuria and urinary frequency. Urinary white blood cell count is >200 cell/high power field. If urine culture is performed, what is the most likely organism that will grow?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      The pathogen that most likely causes recurrent urinary tract infection in young women are E. coli, Enterococcus and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is...

    Correct

    • After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is injured as well as the nerve which innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm. Which nerve is injured?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculoskeletal nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm including the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the greater part of the brachialis. This nerve derives its fibres from the fifth, sixth and seventh cervical nerves and arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. It also provides a branch to the elbow joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the...

    Correct

    • During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the extraperitoneal connective tissue (preperitoneal fat) that courses vertically and just medial to the bowel as the bowel passes through the abdominal wall. Which artery is this?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inferior epigastric artery comes from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament to curve forward in the subperitoneal tissue and then ascend obliquely along the medial margin of the deep inguinal ring. It continues to ascend between the rectus abdominis and the posterior lamella of its sheath after piercing the fascia transversalis and passing anterior to the linea semicircularis. Finally it gives off numerous branches that anastomose above the umbilicus with the superior epigastric branch of the internal mammary artery and with the lower intercostal arteries. As this artery ascends obliquely upwards from its origin it lies along the lower medial margins of the deep inguinal ring and posterior to the start of the spermatic cord. It is found in the preperitoneal fat of the abdomen lying just superficial to the peritoneum and forms the lateral umbilical fold. Hernias that pass lateral to this are indirect and medial to this, direct hernias.

      The deep circumflex artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall. It is very lateral to the abdominal wall and hernias would pass medial to it.

      The superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal arteries are all superficial arteries found in the superficial fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of...

    Correct

    • A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of the following findings is most often associated with clinical bleeding?

      Your Answer: Factor IX deficiency

      Explanation:

      Factor IX deficiency, also called Haemophilia B or Christmas disease, is a disorder caused by missing or defective clotting factor IX. Deficiency of the factor IX causes irregular bleeding that can happen spontaneously or after mild trauma, surgery and dental extractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      2870.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the...

    Correct

    • A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the midline of her neck. Fine needle aspiration of the mass revealed clear fluid. This is most likely a case of:

      Your Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal cyst is the most common congenital thyroid anomaly which is clinically significant and affects women more than men. It is a vestigial remnant of developing thyroid. Although the thyroglossal cyst can develop anywhere along the thyroglossal duct, the most common site is in the midline between the isthmus of thyroid and hyoid bone, or just above the hyoid. Thyroglossal cysts are also associated with ectopic thyroid tissue. Clinically, the cyst moves upward with protrusion of the tongue. Rarely, the persistent duct can become malignant (thyroglossal duct carcinoma) where the cancerous cells arise in the ectopic thyroid tissue that are deposited along the duct. Exposure to radiation is a predisposing factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who...

    Correct

    • A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who presents with a history of a cough and weight loss for over a month. It shows a rounded opacity in the pleural cavity near the cardiac notch. The opacity is most likely to be in the:

      Your Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is the point where the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura, located right next to the cardiac notch.

      The cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib to the root of the lung.

      Hilum: located on the medial surface of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold found below the root of the lung, is a point of continuity between the visceral and mediastinal pleura.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Superior mediastinum: part of the mediastinum that contains the great vessels leaving and entering the heart.

      The cardiac notch is in the inferior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      163.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 60-year-old female has sudden onset of high-grade fever associated with cough with...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female has sudden onset of high-grade fever associated with cough with productive rusty-coloured sputum. Chest x-ray showed left-sided consolidation. What is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Sputum culture

      Explanation:

      Sputum culture is used to detect and identify the organism that are infecting the lungs or breathing passages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the: ...

    Correct

    • The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be...

    Correct

    • A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?

      Your Answer: Right crus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - The blood investigations of a 30-year old man with jaundice revealed the following...

    Correct

    • The blood investigations of a 30-year old man with jaundice revealed the following : total bilirubin 6.5 mg/dl, direct bilirubin 1.1 mg/dl, indirect bilirubin 5.4 mg/dl and haemoglobin 7.3 mg/dl. What is the most likely diagnosis out of the following?

      Your Answer: Haemolysis

      Explanation:

      Hyperbilirubinemia can be caused due to increased bilirubin production, decreased liver uptake or conjugation, or decreased biliary excretion. Normal bilirubin level is less than 1.2 mg/dl (<20 μmol/l), with most of it unconjugated. Elevated unconjugated bilirubin (indirect bilirubin fraction >85%) can occur due to haemolysis (increased bilirubin production) or defective liver uptake/conjugation (Gilbert syndrome). Such increases are less than five-fold usually (<6 mg/dl or <100 μmol/l) unless there is coexistent liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis...

    Correct

    • A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis revealed the presence of epithelioid cells. What are these cells formed from?

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Granulomas formed in tuberculosis are called tubercles and are made up polynuclear phagocytes, Langhans cells and epithelioid cells. Macrophages when enlarged, consist of abundant cytoplasm and have a tendency of arranging themselves very closely to each other representing epithelial cells. These enlarged macrophages are therefore termed as epithelioid cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      911.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following muscles may be affected by a fracture to the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles may be affected by a fracture to the tuberosity on the medial surface of the right navicular bone?

      Your Answer: Tibialis anterior

      Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The navicular bone is situated at the medial side of the tarsus, between the talus and the cuneiform bones. Its medial surface presents a rounded tuberosity, the lower part of which gives attachment to part of the tendon of the tibialis posterior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is not one of them?

      Your Answer: Factor II

      Correct Answer: Factor XIII

      Explanation:

      Serine protease coagulation factors include: thrombin, plasmin, Factors X, XI and XII. Factor VIII and factor V are glycoproteins and factor XIII is a transglutaminase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where? ...

    Correct

    • Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where?

      Your Answer: In the ileum

      Explanation:

      90 – 95% of the bile salts are absorbed from the small intestine (mostly terminal ileum and then excreted again from the liver. This is known as the enterohepatic circulation. The entire pool recycles twice per meal and approximately 6 to 8 times per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from...

    Correct

    • A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?

      Your Answer: Facial expression

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:

      Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):

      – Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal

      – Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear

      – Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue

      Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):

      – Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear

      – Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 28 year gang member was shot in the chest. The bullet hit...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year gang member was shot in the chest. The bullet hit a vessel that courses horizontally across the mediastinum. Which of the following vessels is it likely to be?

      Your Answer: Left subclavian vein

      Correct Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The superior vena cava that empties blood into the right atrium is formed by the right and the left brachiocephalic veins. Hence, the left brachiocephalic has to course across the mediastinum horizontally to join with its right ‘counterpart’. The left subclavian artery and vein being lateral to the mediastinum do not cross the mediastinum while the left jugular and the common carotid artery course vertically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in: ...

    Correct

    • Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in:

      Your Answer: Mycosis fungoides

      Explanation:

      Mycosis fungoides is a chronic T-cell lymphoma that involves the skin and less commonly, the internal organs such as nodes, liver, spleen and lungs. It is usually diagnosed in patients above 50 years and the average life expectancy is 7-10 years. It is insidious in onset and presents as a chronic, itchy rash, eventually spreading to involve most of the skin. Lesions are commonly plaque-like, but can be nodular or ulcerated. Symptoms include fever, night sweats and weight loss. Skin biopsy is diagnostic. However, early cases may pose a challenge due to fewer lymphoma cells. The malignant cells are mature T cells (T4+, T11+, T12+). The epidermis shows presence of characteristic Pautrier’s micro abscesses are present in the epidermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm,...

    Correct

    • The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, decides not to re-implant the inferior mesenteric artery into the repaired abdominal aorta. She says that an anastomotic artery running along the border of the large intestine is good enough to supply blood to the territory of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which vessel is she referring to?

      Your Answer: Marginal

      Explanation:

      The marginal artery is a key anastomosis for the large intestine that runs around the border of the large intestine and is formed by the anastomosis of the branches of the ileocolic artery, right colic artery, middle colic artery, left colic artery and sigmoid artery. If a small artery is occluded, these branches allow blood to reach all segments of the colon.

      The arcades are anastomotic loops between the arteries that provide alternative pathways for blood flow. They are more prominent in the small intestine than the large intestine.

      Arteriae rectae are small branches that run from the marginal artery to reach the colon.

      The ileocolic artery is the branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the caecum, appendix and terminal part of the ileum.

      The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases?...

    Correct

    • Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases? This type is predominant in children and in patients who have had a previous history of head or neck radiation.

      Your Answer: Papillary carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common thyroid cancer. This cancer has a high cure rate with 10-year survival rates for all patients with papillary thyroid cancer estimated at 80% to 90%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front...

    Incorrect

    • The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle:

      Your Answer: Transverse cervical

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery is an artery in the neck. It arises from the thyrocervical trunk and passes upward, in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of...

    Correct

    • Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of 130/70 mm HG and cardiac output of 5 litres / min?

      Your Answer: 18 mmHg × min/l

      Explanation:

      Total peripheral resistance = Mean arterial pressure/Cardiac output. And the mean arterial pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure), i.e., 70 + 1/3 (130-70) = 90 mmHg. Therefore, total peripheral resistance = 90 mmHg/5 l per min = 18 mmHg × min/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      77.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (6/8) 75%
Physiology (12/14) 86%
Anatomy (14/21) 67%
Thorax (2/3) 67%
Upper Limb (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (4/4) 100%
Head & Neck (3/5) 60%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Pelvis (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (2/3) 67%
Haematology (3/3) 100%
Pathology (13/15) 87%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Neoplasia (2/2) 100%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
General (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Abdomen (4/4) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Passmed