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  • Question 1 - You review a 28 year old patient in the fertility clinic. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 28 year old patient in the fertility clinic. She has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. She has been taking Clomiphene and metformin for the past 6 months. What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: IVF

      Correct Answer: Gonadotrophins

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene shouldn’t be continued for more than 6 months. The second line options are Gonadotrophins or ovarian drilling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - CTG showing early decelerations is : ...

    Incorrect

    • CTG showing early decelerations is :

      Your Answer: A decrease in the fetal heart beat that peaks after the peak of uterine contraction

      Correct Answer: From increased vagal tone secondary to head compression

      Explanation:

      Early decelerations: a result of increased vagal tone due to compression of the fetal head during contractions. Monitoring usually shows a symmetrical, gradual decrease and return to baseline of FHR, which is associated with a uterine contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      96.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal discharge, which has started last night after she had sex with her husband.

      Speculum examination shows, pooling of straw-colored fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The cervical os is closed and there is leaking of liquor from cervical os when she is asked to cough or strain.

      Which among the following best explains these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

      Explanation:

      Presentation in the given case is classic for premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which was probably caused due to trauma during intercourse.
      Premature rupture of membrane (PROM) is defined as the rupture of embryonic membranes before the onset of labor, regardless of the age of pregnancy. If occured before 37 weeks of gestation, it is termed as preterm PROM (PPROM.)

      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina is the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes (ROM), regardless of gestational age, however nowadays many women presents with continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid or a sensation of wetness within the vagina or on the perineum. Presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or its pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix are considered as the pathognomonic symptom of ROM. Assessment of fetal well-being, the position of the fetus, placental location, estimated fetal weight and presence of any anomalies in PROM and PPROM are done with ultrasonographic studies.

      Retained semen will not result in the findings mentioned in this clinical scenario as it have a different appearance.

      Infections will not be a cause for this presentation as it will be associated with characteristic features like purulent cervical discharge, malodorous vaginal discharge, etc. Pooling of clear fluid in the posterior fornix is pathognomonic for ROM.

      Urine leakage is common during the pregnancy, but it is not similar to the clinical scenario mentioned above.

      Absence of findings like cervical dilation and bulging membranes on speculum exam makes cervical insufficiency an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      134.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

    She explains she has had 2 episodes...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

      She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.

      Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.

      What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      126.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which period during pregnancy has the highest risk of maternal-fetal Toxoplasma Gondii transmission?...

    Correct

    • Which period during pregnancy has the highest risk of maternal-fetal Toxoplasma Gondii transmission?

      Your Answer: 26-40 weeks

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma Gondii is an intracellular parasite which is excreted in cat faeces and then transferred to humans through secondary hosts. During pregnancy, it can be transmitted to the neonate. The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks but during this time period it is less dangerous as compare to the transmission during 0-10 weeks of gestation. It may lead to abortion, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications, cerebral palsy and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      62.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increases by approximately 50%

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) rises immediately after conception and increases by about 50 per cent overall, reaching its maximum at the end of the first trimester. GFR then falls by about 20 per cent in the third trimester, returning to pre-pregnancy levels within 12 weeks of delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true?

      Your Answer: Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery

      Explanation:

      Molding allows the skull bones of the fetal head some mobility during the normal delivery of foetus as the skull changes its shape to accommodate passage through the mothers pelvis. However this does not occur in breach delivery where the skull is in circular shape. Babies born breech typically have craniofacial and limb deformations resulting from their in utero position. These babies characteristically have a long, narrow head, (“dolichocephaly” or “type 1”), with a prominent occipital shelf, redundant skin over the neck, overlapping lambdoidal sutures, and an indentation below their ears (from shoulder compression).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia. It is usually caused by a tumour of the parathyroid gland. Symptoms are related to increased calcium levels which can cause kidney stones, abdominal groans, psychiatric overtones and bones disease such as osteoporosis,osteomalacia and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 36-year-old woman presents to your clinic with cyclical mastalgia. Physical examination reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to your clinic with cyclical mastalgia. Physical examination reveals that her breasts are normal. She has a family history of her mom who developed breast cancer at the age of 45 years and subsequently died from metastases. She states that her patient's maternal grandmother also had breast cancer before the age of 50.

      The patient is on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and no other medications. She is generally healthy overall. Recent mammography results are also normal. An ultrasound of the breasts shows an uncomplicated cyst with no concerning features in the right breast.

      Apart from advice about the use of simple analgesics and evening primrose oil for her mastalgia, which one of the following is the most appropriate management in the patient's follow-up regimen?

      Your Answer: Remain on the OCP, yearly clinical review, yearly mammography and ultrasound.

      Correct Answer: Remain on the OCP, six-monthly clinical review, yearly mammography and ultrasound.

      Explanation:

      This is a case of a woman who presented with cyclical breast pain that is on an OCP and with a family history of breast cancer. Those with a family history of breast cancer in more than one blood relative (parent, sibling, grandparent) have a significantly higher chance of developing breast cancer than women with no family history. Regular six-monthly clinical review and yearly mammographic screening, with or without ultrasound screening, should start at least five years before the age of the diagnosis in the blood relatives.

      The consensus now is that any additional risk of breast cancer from the oestrogen in the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) is less than the risk of unwanted pregnancy when using alternative, and perhaps less effective, contraception. Thus, the patient would not be advised to stop the OCP.

      With two blood relatives that developed breast cancer before the age of 50, this patient is in a high-risk group of developing breast cancer. Even so, 50% of such high-risk women will not develop a breast cancer in their lifetime. There are specialised familial cancer screening clinics are available for high-risk women where genetic testing can be discussed further. Women at high risk may electively have a bilateral subcutaneous mastectomy performed prophylactically which will bring the risk of breast cancer development to an irreducible minimum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      67.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Uterine Cervix: ...

    Correct

    • Uterine Cervix:

      Your Answer: Is the portion of the uterus below the isthmus

      Explanation:

      The uterus is divisible into two portions. The portion above the isthmus is termed the body, and that below, the cervix. The uterine cervix is the narrow inferior segment of the uterus, which projects into the vaginal cavity. It is a fibromuscular organ lined by a mucous membrane and measures approximately 3cm in length and 2.5cm in diameter. The cervix is continuous at its superior margins with the body of the uterus and at its inferior margins with the vagina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      54.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the incubation period of Rubella (in days)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incubation period of Rubella (in days)?

      Your Answer: Jul-14

      Correct Answer: Dec-23

      Explanation:

      Rubella typically has an incubation period of around 14 days. Rage 12-23 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C.

      She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Ovarian teratoma

      Explanation:

      Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.

      When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.

      Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.

      Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.

      Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      120.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development of dysuria 5 days earlier. The results are positive for chlamydia infection. With regard to contact tracing what is the recommended action regarding tracing and informing sexual partners in this case?

      Your Answer: All sexual partners past 6 months

      Explanation:

      In case a person tests positive for chlamydia, all sexual partners over the period of 6 months should to contacted and started on appropriate antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female puberty?

      Your Answer: Thelarche, menarche, maximal growth velocity

      Correct Answer: Thelarche, maximal growth velocity, menarche

      Explanation:

      Thelarche means appearance of the breast tissue under the influence of oestrogen from the ovaries. It heralds the onset of puberty among girls. It is followed by an increase in growth velocity followed by menarche which is the time of first menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Cabergoline

      Explanation:

      Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on...

    Correct

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The gestational sac is typically visible from 31 days gestation by transvaginal ultrasound and a week later (38 days) on transabdominal ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
      – An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
      – When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
      – Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
      – Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
      – If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.

      There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Fetal urine production starts at what gestation? ...

    Correct

    • Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?

      Your Answer: 8-11 weeks

      Explanation:

      Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: ...

    Correct

    • Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of:

      Your Answer: Luteinizing hormone

      Explanation:

      Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is the hormone responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old woman had a history of dilation and curettage for septic abortion....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman had a history of dilation and curettage for septic abortion. Currently, she has developed amenorrhea for 6 months already. It was also noted that she smokes 10 cigarettes and drinks 2 standard alcoholic drinks every day. She was tested for beta-hCG but it was not detectable.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step to establish a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Full hormone assay

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Asherman syndrome (intrauterine adhesions or intrauterine synechiae) occurs when scar tissue forms inside the uterus and/or the cervix. These adhesions occur after surgery of the uterus or after a dilatation and curettage.

      Patients with Asherman syndrome may have light or absent menstrual periods (amenorrhea). Some have normal periods based on the surface area of the cavity that is affected. Others have no periods but have severe dysmenorrhea (pain with menstruation).

      Although two-dimensional sonography may suggest adhesive disease, Asherman syndrome is more often evaluated initially with saline sonography or hysterosalpingography to demonstrate the adhesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      3655.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is most commonly idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which structure reinforces the inguinal canal anterolaterally? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure reinforces the inguinal canal anterolaterally?

      Your Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Correct Answer: Internal oblique

      Explanation:

      The anatomy of the inguinal canal is of surgical importance. In the male, the inguinal canal carries the spermatic cord, ilioinguinal nerve and important blood vessels, while in females the inguinal canal holds the round ligament, ilioinguinal nerve and blood vessels. The floor of the inguinal canal is made of the inguinal ligament (a thickened portion of the inguinal ligament), while the posterior wall is made of the transversalis muscle. The anterior wall is made of the external oblique aponeurosis, and the roof is made up of fibres of the internal oblique, transversus abdominis and its aponeurosis, and the conjoint tendon. This means that the anterolateral support structure of the inguinal canal would be the fibres of the internal oblique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      100.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is:

      Your Answer: Enhances thecal cell androgen production

      Correct Answer: All are correct

      Explanation:

      LH surge occurs around ovulation and it is this LH surge which results in completion of the 1st meiotic division and ovulation occurs. It enhances the production of androgens and also luteinizes the granulosa cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part.

      The most likely diagnosis at this time is:

      Your Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of feeling unwell.

      Her last menstrual period was eight weeks ago. Normally, she has regular monthly periods.

      She reports that she had heavy vaginal bleeding on the previous day; the bleeding had reduced today.

      On examination, she appears unwell, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min, BP is 110/60 mmHg, and temperature is 39.5°C

      Suprapubic tenderness and guarding is noted on abdominal examination.

      There is no evidence of a pelvic mass.

      Speculum examination shows that the cervix is open and apparent products of conception are present in the upper vagina.

      From the following, choose the most appropriate treatment option for optimal management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Cervical swabs for microscopic assessment and culture.

      Explanation:

      This woman has experienced a septic abortion. Therefore the first step is commencement of intensive antibiotic treatment as soon as cervical swabs have been taken.

      The next step is evacuation of the uterus. Curettage can be performed after a few hours, to extract any remaining infected products of conception from the uterine cavity.

      The choice of antibiotics depends on the most likely microorganism involved. Therefore, prior to commencing any other procedure, it is vital to take cervical swabs for microscopic examination to guide further antibiotic therapy (correct answer).

      If curettage is performed immediately there is a risk that the infection would spread.

      However, if Clostridium welchii infection is suspected from the cervical smear (particularly if encapsulation of the microorganisms is present), then curettage should be performed immediately along with commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Curettage can be delayed for up to 12-24 hours if other microorganisms are suspected; unless a significant increase in bleeding occurs.

      Ergometrine is not essential as an immediate treatment measure as the patient is not bleeding heavily and reports that her bleeding has decreased. However, ergometrine is commonly given when curettage is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding the pubic symphysis, what type of joint is it ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the pubic symphysis, what type of joint is it

      Your Answer: Primary Cartilaginous

      Correct Answer: Secondary Cartilaginous

      Explanation:

      The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint. The cartilaginous joints are divided further into primary and secondary joints. The primary joint is called the synchondrosis. It articulates with the pubis of the other side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is probably responsible for physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is probably responsible for physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Decreased functional residual volume

      Correct Answer: Increased progesterone production

      Explanation:

      Progesterone gradually increases during the course of pregnancy, from 25 ng⋅mL−1 at 6 weeks’ to 150 ng⋅mL−1 at 37 weeks’ gestation. Progesterone acts as trigger of the primary respiratory centre by increasing the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to carbon dioxide, as indicated by the steeper slope of the ventilation curve in response to alveolar carbon dioxide changes. Progesterone alters the smooth muscle tone of the airways resulting in a bronchodilator effect. It also mediates hyperaemia and oedema of mucosal surfaces, causing nasal congestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      62.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and some weight gain reports to clinic for a review. Her medical records show evidence of hypothyroidism. On examination, a non tender, hard goitre is palpated. Further tests reveal elevated anti TPO (anti thyroid peroxidase) and anti -Tg (anti thyroglobulin). Which of the following conditions is most likely to present like this?

      Your Answer: Hashimoto's

      Explanation:

      The case presented points to a diagnosis of an autoimmune thyroiditis leading to hypothyroidism. The most common form of autoimmune hypothyroidism, Hashimoto’s, often presents with a goitre, positive for antibody tests against thyroid components i.e. anti-TPO and anti-thyroglobulin. Graves disease and toxic diffuse goitre are more likely to cause hyperthyroidism. While De-Quervain’s and endemic goitre may cause hypothyroidism, they don’t result in positive antibody tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      81.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH.
      What is the most suitable advice for her?

      Your Answer: Oral oestrogen

      Correct Answer: In-vitro fertilization

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
      Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.

      Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
      Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      206.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to...

    Correct

    • On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to your clinic with slight lower abdomen pain. She has no children and lives with her male companion. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, her pulse is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.5°C.

      On vaginal examination, no adnexal lump is palpated, however cervical motion pain is noticed.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Cervical swabs for culture

      Explanation:

      Pain upon movement of the cervix with the health care provider’s gloved fingers is suggestive of an inflammatory process of the pelvic organs. CMT, when present, is classically found on bimanual examination of the cervix and uterus. While CMT is often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease, it can be present in other disease entities such as ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, appendicitis, and perforated abdominal viscus.

      PID is not a singular disease entity but describes a spectrum of disease. It is an upper genital tract infection, which may affect the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and peritoneum. PID can begin as cervicitis, progress to endometritis, followed by involvement of the fallopian tubes as pyosalpinx, and ultimately involve the ovary as a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA). The two most common causative pathogens are N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis although the infection is often polymicrobial.

      Documentation of infection with either of these two organisms must be done by cervical swabs for culture.

      Transvaginal ultrasound or CT scan can be done to confirm diagnosis however the absence of findings in these investigations doesn’t rule out the possibility of PID.

      Urinalysis can be done to exclude urinary tract infection, one of the possible differential diagnosis for PID.

      Thyroid stimulating hormone has no role in the diagnosis of PID.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      93.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (2/3) 67%
Physiology (2/5) 40%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (5/8) 63%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (2/4) 50%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (4/4) 100%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Passmed