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  • Question 1 - Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from...

    Correct

    • Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from folds of the mucous membrane and the submucosa of the anal canal which contain varicose branches of the:

      Your Answer: Superior rectal vein

      Explanation:

      Internal haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the superior rectal vein.

      External haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the inferior rectal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Colorectal
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is not one of them?

      Your Answer: Factor II

      Correct Answer: Factor XIII

      Explanation:

      Serine protease coagulation factors include: thrombin, plasmin, Factors X, XI and XII. Factor VIII and factor V are glycoproteins and factor XIII is a transglutaminase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is...

    Incorrect

    • After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is injured as well as the nerve which innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm. Which nerve is injured?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculoskeletal nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm including the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the greater part of the brachialis. This nerve derives its fibres from the fifth, sixth and seventh cervical nerves and arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. It also provides a branch to the elbow joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.

      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.

      Basophils are not present.

      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to produce which of the following cytokines?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-1

      Correct Answer: Gamma interferon

      Explanation:

      Interferon gamma is a soluble cytokine previously known as the macrophage activating factor. It is the only member belonging to the type II class of the interferons. It is secreted by a number of cells taking part in the immune reaction including: T-helper cells (CD-4), cells with immunological memory (CD45PA), killer cells (CD8), dendrite cells (CD23,35), natural killer cells (CD16) and B lymphocytes (CD22,CD23). It has both a defending as well as a pathological effect. It induces differentiation in the myeloid cell in the bone marrow. If macrophages are infected by parasites it activates the macrophages to destroy them. IFN-γ strengthens the anti-tumour activities of the cytotoxic lymphocytes. Together with CD4 or CD8 toxins, produced by lymphocytes, it suppresses the growth of the tumour cells. along with these functions it increases the non specific response of the natural killer cells, causing changes in the cell membrane surface to prevent adhesion and penetration of a virus. It can either increase or decrease B cell response and it activates osteoclasts which increases bone resorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Occipital

      Correct Answer: Superficial temporal

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a branch of the common carotid artery that supplies parts of the neck, head and face. It branches off from the common carotid artery at the level of the thyroid cartilage. The external carotid, at the level of the mandible divides into the maxillary artery and the superficial temporal. The superficial temporal artery is the posterior branch of these two arteries. It starts off, somewhat, as a continuation of the external carotid artery at the substance of the parotid gland. Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries are branches of the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Severe persistent vomiting

      Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of a patient?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume

      Explanation:

      Vital capacity = inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume. Thus, inspiratory reserve volume can be calculated if tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume are known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      221.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer: Greater palatine nerve

      Correct Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - If a 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular seminoma that reaches the...

    Correct

    • If a 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular seminoma that reaches the tunica albuginea and involves the tunica vaginalis, with retroperitoneal lymph nodes greater than 5cm, LDH 1.4 times the reference levels, β-hCG 4250 mIU/ml and AFP 780 ng/ml, what's the clinical stage in this case?

      Your Answer: Stage IIC

      Explanation:

      According to the AJCC, the clinical staging for testicular seminoma is:
      Stage IA: T1 N0 M0 S0
      Stage IB: T2/3/4 N0 M0 S0
      Stage IC: any T N0 M0 S1/2/3
      Stage IIA: any T N1 M0 S0/1
      Stage IIB: any T N2 M0 S0/1
      Stage IIC: any T N3 M0 S0/1
      Stage IIIA: any T any N M1a S0/1
      Stage IIIB: any T any N M0/1a S2
      Stage IIIC: any T any N M1a/1b S3.
      The patient in this case has IIC stage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      127.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases?...

    Correct

    • Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases? This type is predominant in children and in patients who have had a previous history of head or neck radiation.

      Your Answer: Papillary carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common thyroid cancer. This cancer has a high cure rate with 10-year survival rates for all patients with papillary thyroid cancer estimated at 80% to 90%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A medical intern wanting to perform her first thoracentesis (remove fluid from the...

    Incorrect

    • A medical intern wanting to perform her first thoracentesis (remove fluid from the pleural cavity) wishes to be reminded where to insert the needle to aspirate in order to avoid injuring the lung or neurovascular elements. Where is this place?

      Your Answer: The top of interspace 11 in the scapular line

      Correct Answer: The bottom of interspace 9 in the midaxillary line

      Explanation:

      Thoracentesis is performed in the costodiaphragmatic recess. The needle needs to be inserted below the level of the lungs to avoid injury to the lungs. At the paravertebral line, is between ribs 10 and 12, at the midaxillary line between ribs 8 and 10 and at the midclavicular line between interspaces 6 and 8. The needle should be inserted at the top of the rib (or the bottom of the interspace) to avoid damage to the neurovascular structures found below the rib running in the costal groove.

      The recommended location for the needle insertion varies depending upon the source. It is critical that the patient hold his or her breath to avoid piercing of the lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      72.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when they pass through capillaries?

      Your Answer: Integrin

      Correct Answer: Spectrin

      Explanation:

      Spectrin is a structural protein found in the cytoskeleton that lines the intercellular side of the membrane of cells which include RBCs. They maintain the integrity and structure of the cell. It is arranged into a hexagonal arrangement formed from tetramers of spectrin and associated with short actin filaments that form junctions allowing the RBC to distort its shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like lesion on the areolar region of her left breast, for 5 months. Biopsy of the lesion showed large cells at the dermal-epidermal junction with positive staining for mucin. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dermatophyte infection

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast or nipple resembles eczema in appearance with an underlying carcinoma typically. The disease is usually unilateral and presents with inflammation, oozing and crusting along with a non-healing ulcer. Treatment is often delayed due to the innocuous appearance but can be fatal. It results due to spread of neoplastic cells from the ducts of the mammary gland to the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected...

    Incorrect

    • A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected the arteria princeps pollicis. This artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer: Superficial palmar arch

      Correct Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      The radial artery branches into the arteria princeps pollicis as it turns medially into the deep part of the hand. The arteria princeps pollicis is distributed to the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) showed the following: pH = 7.28, p(CO2) = 65.5 mmHg, p(O2)= 60 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 30.5 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer: Mixed acidosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis with high p(CO2) and normal standard bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis, commonly seen in acute worsening of COPD patients. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with a low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      76.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - For which of the following is NOT screened for in blood for transfusion?...

    Correct

    • For which of the following is NOT screened for in blood for transfusion?

      Your Answer: EBV

      Explanation:

      Blood for transfusion is routinely screened for hepatitis B and C, HIV, CMV and syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A correct statement about the RECTUM: ...

    Correct

    • A correct statement about the RECTUM:

      Your Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems

      Explanation:

      The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A blood sample of a 58 year old male patient, who underwent an...

    Incorrect

    • A blood sample of a 58 year old male patient, who underwent an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, was sent to the laboratory. The laboratory technician said that the patient’s blood agglutinates with antisera anti-A and anti-D, while the patient’s serum agglutinates cells of blood group B. What is the blood group of this patient?

      Your Answer: AB positive

      Correct Answer: A positive

      Explanation:

      Group A – has only the A antigen on red cells (and B antibody in the plasma)

      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)

      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a so-called Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. In this scenario the person has blood group A+ as he has A antigen, anti B antibody and Rh antigen

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      110.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of the right mediastinal lymph nodes. What is the nodal staging according to the TNM staging?

      Your Answer: N2

      Explanation:

      The N stages for lung cancer are from NO to N3 : NO, there is no lung cancer in any lymph nodes: N1, there is lung cancer in the proximal lymph nodes: N2, there is lung cancer in the mediastinal hilar lymph nodes, but on the same side as the affected lung or there is lung cancer in the carinal lymph nodes: N3, there is metastatic lung cancer in lymph nodes on the opposite side of the chest, in the cervical or apical lymph nodes. In this patient the ipsilateral mediastinal node is involved, thus it is classified as N2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      103.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front...

    Incorrect

    • The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle:

      Your Answer: Deep cervical

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery is an artery in the neck. It arises from the thyrocervical trunk and passes upward, in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of...

    Incorrect

    • Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Organ of Corti

      Correct Answer: Pacinian corpuscle

      Explanation:

      Pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor, sensitive to deep pressure, touch and high-frequency vibration. The Pacinian corpuscles are ovoid and about 1 mm long. In the centre of the corpuscle is the inner bulb, which is a fluid-filled cavity with a single afferent unmyelinated nerve ending. Any deformation in the corpuscle causes the generation of action potentials by opening of pressure-sensitive sodium ion channels in the axon membrane. This allows influx of sodium ions, creating a receptor potential (independent of potassium channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A cyclist fell and sustained a laceration to his elbow which was shortly...

    Correct

    • A cyclist fell and sustained a laceration to his elbow which was shortly sutured in the emergency department. Which of the following factors will aid in the wound healing process?

      Your Answer: Presence of sutures

      Explanation:

      Foreign bodies including sutures will delay wound healing, however due to the net affect being helpful they are used. Secondary wound infection will delay healing and is a potential post op complication. Corticosteroids depresses the wound healing ability of the body. Poor nutrition will also delay healing leading to decreased albumin, vit D and vit C. Diabetic patients with atherosclerosis with poor perfusion of tissues have notoriously delayed/poor healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In multiple myeloma, which of these cell types confirms the diagnosis when found...

    Correct

    • In multiple myeloma, which of these cell types confirms the diagnosis when found in a smear of bone marrow aspirate?

      Your Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      A bone marrow aspiration is the diagnostic test for multiple myeloma, which is a malignant bone tumour that usually affects older adults. The smear reveals clusters of plasma cells, while X-rays tend to show circumscribed lytic lesions or diffuse demineralisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      75.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past...

    Correct

    • A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past history of easy bruising and heavy menstrual periods. The patient was also diagnosed with Willebrand's disease. Willebrand's disease is:

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant disorder marked by the deficiency of vWF, a large protein synthesized by the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes. It mediates adhesion of platelets to the subendothelium at site of vascular injury. Disease characteristics include impaired platelet adhesion, prolonged bleeding time and a functional deficiency of factor VIII (vWF is its carrier protein).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      150.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place? ...

    Correct

    • Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?

      Your Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the...

    Correct

    • A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the pancreas was to undergo whipple's operation to have the tumour removed. During the surgery, the surgeon had to ligate the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery to stop blood supply to the head of the pancreas. Which of the following arteries does the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery branch from?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery or from the first intestinal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. Once given off, it runs to the right between the pancreatic head and the duodenum and then ascends to form an anastomosis with the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      198.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The uterine artery arises from the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The uterine artery arises from the?

      Your Answer: Ovarian artery

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery and runs medially on the levator ani towards the uterine cervix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal...

    Correct

    • At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and external carotid arteries?

      Your Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      The common carotid arteries are present on the left and right sides of the body. These arteries originate from different sources, but follow symmetrical courses. The right common carotid originates in the neck from the brachiocephalic trunk; the left from the aortic arch in the thorax. These split into the external and internal carotid arteries at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage, at around the level of the fourth cervical vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem does she have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of factor IX

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease) is due to a deficiency in factor IX. Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency in factor VIII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/12) 42%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
General (1/4) 25%
Physiology (2/8) 25%
Upper Limb (0/2) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Pathology (7/9) 78%
Inflammation & Immunology (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (1/4) 25%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (2/2) 100%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Women's Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (3/3) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Passmed