00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Correct

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Glucose transport in the brain is mediated by: ...

    Correct

    • Glucose transport in the brain is mediated by:

      Your Answer: GLUT 1

      Explanation:

      The facilitative glucose transporter mediates the transport of glucose from blood into neurons and glia in the brain. The primary isoforms in the brain are GLUT1 detected at high concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver?

      Your Answer: Factor viii

      Explanation:

      Factor VIII is produced in liver sinusoidal cells and endothelial cells outside of the liver throughout the body. This protein circulates in the bloodstream in an inactive form, bound to another molecule called von Willebrand factor, until an injury that damages blood vessels occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The Cellular Theory of Ageing involves? ...

    Correct

    • The Cellular Theory of Ageing involves?

      Your Answer: Loss of telomeres

      Explanation:

      Cellular theories of aging propose that human aging is the result of cellular aging, whereby an increasing proportion of cells reach senescence, a terminal stage at which cells will cease to divide. This will limit the body’s ability to regenerate and to respond to injury or stress. Telomeres are bits of DNA on the ends of chromosomes that protect chromosomes from sticking to each other or tangling, which could cause DNA to abnormally function. As cells replicate, telomeres shorten at the end of chromosomes, and this process correlates to senescence or cellular aging.

      Other theories include:

      1. The Free Radical Theory: Implicates the gradual accumulation of oxidative cellular damage as a fundamental driver of cellular aging. This theory has evolved over time to emphasize the role of free radical induced mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) mutations and the accumulation of mtDNA deletions. Given the proximity of mtDNA to the electron transport chain, a primary producer of free radicals, it postulates that the mutations would promote mitochondrial dysfunction and concomitantly increase free radical production in a positive feedback loop. It is known that diet, lifestyle, drugs (e.g. tobacco and alcohol) and radiation etc., are all accelerators of free radical production within the body.
      2. Error theory: based on the idea that errors can occur in the transcription of the synthesis of DNA. These errors are perpetuated and eventually lead to systems that do not function at the optimum level. The organism’s aging and death are attributable to these events (Sonneborn, 1979).
      3. The Cross-Linking Theory: also referred to as the Glycosylation Theory of Aging. In this theory it is the binding of glucose (simple sugars) to protein, (a process that occurs under the presence of oxygen) that causes various problems. Once this binding has occurred the protein becomes impaired and is unable to perform as efficiently. Living a longer life is going to lead to the increased possibility of oxygen meeting glucose and protein and known cross-linking disorders include senile cataract and the appearance of tough, leathery and yellow skin.
      4. The Neuroendocrine Theory First proposed by Professor Vladimir Dilman and Ward Dean MD, this theory elaborates on wear and tear by focusing on the neuroendocrine system. This system is a complicated network of biochemicals that govern the release of hormones which are altered by the walnut sized gland called the hypothalamus located in the brain. The hypothalamus controls various chain-reactions to instruct other organs and glands to release their hormones etc. The hypothalamus also responds to the body hormone levels as a guide to the overall hormonal activity. But as we grow older the hypothalamus loses it precision regulatory ability and the receptors which uptake individual hormones become less sensitive to them. Accordingly, as we age the secretion of many hormones declines and their effectiveness (compared unit to unit) is also reduced due to the receptors down-grading
      5. The Membrane Theory of Aging: According to this theory it is the age-related changes of the cell’s ability to transfer chemicals, heat and electrical processes that impair it. As we grow older the cell membrane becomes less lipid (less watery and more solid). This impedes its efficiency to conduct normal function and in particular there is a toxic accumulation
      6. The Decline Theory: The mitochondria are the power producing organelles found in every cell of every organ. Their primary job is to create Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) and they do so in the various energy cycles that involve nutrients such as Acetyl-L-Carnitine, CoQ10 (Idebenone), NADH and some B vitamins etc. Enhancement and protection of the mitochondria is an essential part of preventing and slowing aging. Enhancement can be achieved with the above mention nutrients, as well as ATP supplements themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the main reason for checking the urea and electrolytes prior to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main reason for checking the urea and electrolytes prior to commencing a patient on amiodarone?

      Your Answer: To detect hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: To detect hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      All antiarrhythmic drugs have the potential to cause arrhythmias. Coexistent hypokalaemia significantly increases this risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Correct

    • The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer: Apical surface of thick ascending limb

      Explanation:

      The Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) is a protein that aids in the active transport of sodium, potassium, and chloride into cells. In humans there are two isoforms of this membrane transport protein, NKCC1 and NKCC2. NKCC2 is specifically found in cells of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the macula densa in nephrons, the basic functional units of the kidney. Within these cells, NKCC2 resides in the apical membrane abutting the nephron’s lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is NOT true of the parasympathetic control of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT true of the parasympathetic control of the heart?

      Your Answer: It can be blocked by beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic fibers do not innervate the Beta receptors on the heart. They are innervated by the sympathetic nerve fibers. Then a beta blocker such as propranolol will block the sympathetic outflow and increase the parasympathetic tone of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding Polymerase Chain Reaction, all are true except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Polymerase Chain Reaction, all are true except:

      Your Answer: There is a linear rise of DNA copies during amplification.

      Explanation:

      All are true except there is a linear rise of DNA copies during amplification. There is an exponential rise in amplification of DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart sound?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Second heart sound (S2) forms the dub of lub-dub and is composed of components A2 and P2. •    loud: hypertension•    soft: AS•    fixed split: physiological split (normally occurs during inhalation), right bundle branch block, pulmonary stenosis, and atrial septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide?

      Your Answer: ß-endorphin

      Explanation:

      ß-endorphin is an endogenous opioid neuropeptide which is mainly synthesized and stored in the anterior pituitary gland, derived from the precursor proopiomelanocortin (POMC). Some studies have shown that immune system cells are also capable of synthesizing ß-endorphin. β-endorphin is thought to exert a tonic inhibitory influence upon GNRH secretion and to be an important regulator of reproductive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Muscular weakness

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome is characterised by hypertension which may cause poor vision or headaches. Occasionally there may be muscular weakness, muscle spasms, tingling sensations, or excessive urination. Complications include cardiovascular disease such as stroke, myocardial infarction, kidney failure, and abnormal heart rhythms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Eosinophils provide immunity against ...

    Correct

    • Eosinophils provide immunity against

      Your Answer: Multi cellular parasites

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils, are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding the myofilament molecules, which of the following contains binding sites for calcium...

    Correct

    • Regarding the myofilament molecules, which of the following contains binding sites for calcium that helps to initiate contraction?

      Your Answer: Troponin c

      Explanation:

      Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The direct determinants of cardiac output are ...

    Correct

    • The direct determinants of cardiac output are

      Your Answer: Stroke volume and heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is classically defined alongside stroke volume (SV) and the heart rate (HR) as:Cardiac Output [L/min] = Stroke Volume [L/beat] x Heart Rate [beats/min]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Almost all of the protein that appears in the stool is: ...

    Correct

    • Almost all of the protein that appears in the stool is:

      Your Answer: Comes from bacteria and cellular debris

      Explanation:

      75% of faecal weight is water. By dry weight 30% of faeces is bacteria,10-20% is fat and 2-3% proteins. Almost all proteins ingested are absorbed in the gut.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is? ...

    Correct

    • The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is?

      Your Answer: Allows attachment of troponin components to tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin, and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which statement regarding fever is correct: ...

    Correct

    • Which statement regarding fever is correct:

      Your Answer: Body temperature is regulated is by a centre in the floor of the third ventricle

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus is located on the floor of the third ventricle and is the centre of regulation of body temperature. It uses a set point to regulate other body systems as well. Diurnal variation of temperature is not seen in humans. the principal mediator of fever is interleukin I, although interferon alfa also plays a role. Fever can cause rhabdomyolysis or muscle breakdown

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through: ...

    Correct

    • Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through:

      Your Answer: Point mutations in genomic DNA

      Explanation:

      80% of the pancreatic cancers are environmentally influenced by smoking which increases the risk by 50%. Mutation can occur in the KRAS, p16, SMAD4, and TP53 genes among other tumour suppression genes. Smoking can be implicated in transformation of all these genes. Apart from KRAS all the genes are inactivated in pancreatic cancer. As KRAS is the most commonly altered gene, mutation occurs as point mutation. As smoking is the most common aetiology in pancreatic cancer, and KRAS is the most important gene that is altered. Most commonly cigarette smoke causes point mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which enzyme deficiency causes Beriberi? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme deficiency causes Beriberi?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Beriberi refers to a cluster of symptoms caused primarily by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Symptoms of beriberi include weight loss, emotional disturbances, impaired sensory perception, weakness and pain in the limbs, and periods of irregular heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show:Hb: 11.8 g/dlPlatelets: 423 x 109/lWBC: 11.2 x 109/lNa+: 143 mmol/lK+: 3.9 mmol/lUrea: 6.2 mmol/lCreatinine: 78 μmol/lUric acid: 0.45 mmol/lCiprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs most notably in patients with haematological malignancies including, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) and Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia (ALL).Risk factors for TLS include:• Large tumour burden• Sensitivity of the tumour to chemotherapy• Rapid tumour growth rateTLS is characterized by:• Hyperuricemia• Hyperkalaemia• Hyperphosphatemia• HypocalcaemiaTreatment of TLS:• Allopurinol: It is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, it reduces the conversion of nucleic acid by-products to uric acid. Thus, it prevents urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Note: dose reduction is essential in renal failure or if given along with mercaptopurine or azathioprine.Alternatives to Allopurinol: Febuxostat; Rasburicase are useful in patients with hyperuricemia.• Hydration• Diuresis: Should be considered in well hydrated patients with insufficient urine output. Furosemide to be considered in normo-volemic patients with hyperkalaemia. Urine alkalization can be considered for promoting alkaline diuresis.• Treatment of electrolyte imbalances including hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcaemia.• Dialysis can be considered in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 86 year old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her...

    Correct

    • An 86 year old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her advanced Alzheimer's dementia. Upon clinical examination, her respiratory rate is found to be 35, and thus a bronchoscopy is recommended. According to which of the following would you obtain consent for this patient?

      Your Answer: The procedure does not require a written consent

      Explanation:

      This is an emergency case regarding a patient with impaired cognitive functioning. This is why the procedure does not require a written consent. In any other case where the patient has a normal mental capacity, the consent would be obtained as an informed written consent. In this case however, the suggested procedure is almost a matter of life and death, the doctor being required to act on behalf of the patient to her optimal advantage. Under English law no other person can consent to treatment on behalf of an adult, though it is desirable that next of kin are consulted before treating an adult without consent. Recent legislation gives legal authority to people appointed by the patient, or by the state, or a relative or carer, to consent (or refuse) on behalf of the patient. A mini-mental score may not adequately identify those unable to give consent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?

      Your Answer: Reduced levels of prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Ductus arteriosus is kept open by the prostaglandin E2 which is a vasodilator. At birth the high levels of cyclooxygenase blocks the production of prostaglandins which results in the closure of the ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle can be caused by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle can be caused by:

      Your Answer: Thromboxane a2

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic cholinergic nerves

      Explanation:

      In skeletal muscles some fibers that cause vasodilation run with the nerves of the sympathetic system but are cholinergic in nature. These nerves are not active during rest but become active during exercise and stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 24-year-old women presents following an overdose. Which one of the following would...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old women presents following an overdose. Which one of the following would suggest anticholinergic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Mydriasis occurs

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic syndrome results from the inhibition of muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. Clinical manifestations can be remembered by the mnemonic, red as a beet, dry as a bone, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, hot as a hare, and full as a flask. The mnemonic refers to the symptoms of flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis (dilated pupil) with loss of accommodation, altered mental status, fever, and urinary retention, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with recurrent fever and arthralgia which is accompanied by a rash on face and upper chest. These attacks have been refractory to treatment and have occurred recurrently requiring adrenaline on several occasions. Lab results reveal persistently reduced C4 levels. Which of the following is most likely causing his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Angioedema secondary to C1 inhibitor deficiency has been rarely reported to be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. A genetic defect of C1 inhibitor produces hereditary angioedema, which is usually presented with cutaneous painless oedema, but oedema of the genital area, gastrointestinal and laryngeal tracts have also been reported. In lupus patients, angioedema may be the result of an acquired type of C1 inhibitor deficiency, most probably due to antibody formation directed against the C1 inhibitor molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The cells that secrete HCL are found in which part of the stomach?...

    Correct

    • The cells that secrete HCL are found in which part of the stomach?

      Your Answer: Body

      Explanation:

      The stomach can be divided in to different regions. Cardia, fundus, body, antrum and pylorus from proximal end to distal end respectively. Different cell types are distributed accordingly among the regions of the stomach. Cells that secret HCl in the gastric mucosa are known as parietal cells and are abundant in the gastric body region. They have receptors for acetylcholine stimulated via the vagus nerve, histamine receptors and gastrin receptors which stimulate gastric acid secretion. G cells that secret gastrin are abundant in the antrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is pendrin? ...

    Correct

    • What is pendrin?

      Your Answer: Cl-/i- antiporter

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion exchange transporter; it is a sodium-independent chloride-iodine exchanger which also accepts formate and bicarbonate. It is present in many different types of cells in the body, particularly the inner ear, thyroid, and kidney. Mutations in pendrin are associated with Pendred syndrome, which causes syndromic deafness and thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the function of the BK channel on the vascular smooth muscle...

    Correct

    • What is the function of the BK channel on the vascular smooth muscle membrane?

      Your Answer: Massive K+ efflux, increasing membrane potential, and shutting off the voltage gated Ca2+ channel

      Explanation:

      BK channels, also known as large-conductance calcium-activated potassium channels, play a critical role in regulating vascular smooth muscle tone. When BK channels open, they allow a large efflux of potassium ions (K+) out of the cell. This efflux of K+ causes the membrane potential to become more negative (hyperpolarization), which in turn leads to the closure of voltage-gated calcium channels. The closure of these calcium channels reduces the influx of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the smooth muscle cells, resulting in decreased intracellular calcium levels and subsequent relaxation of the smooth muscle.

      Thus, BK channels promote smooth muscle relaxation by hyperpolarizing the membrane and reducing the activity of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and is not using any birth control other than barrier method. Which among the following antihypertensives is contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Among the following hypertensives, lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) is contraindicated in patients who are planning for pregnancy.Per the NICE guidelines, when treating the woman in question, she should be treated as if she were pregnant given the absence of effective contraception. ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are known teratogens and most be avoided.Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy:AntibioticsTetracyclinesAminoglycosidesSulphonamides and trimethoprimQuinolonesOther drugs:ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonistsStatinsWarfarinSulfonylureasRetinoids (including topical)Cytotoxic agentsThe majority of antiepileptics including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin are known to be potentially harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is: ...

    Correct

    • In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is:

      Your Answer: 450-600 mls

      Explanation:

      CSF is produced around 20-25 ml per hour or 480-600ml per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 22 year old man who has recently returned from a trip to...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old man who has recently returned from a trip to Far East presents with sore eyes and symmetrical joint pain in his knees, ankles and feet. Labs reveal an elevated ESR. The synovial fluid aspirate is sterile and has a high neutrophil count. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthropathy

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. Symmetric lower limb arthropathy and a sterile joint aspirate points towards reactive arthropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which pair is correct concerning enteroendocrine cells in the GIT mucosa and their...

    Correct

    • Which pair is correct concerning enteroendocrine cells in the GIT mucosa and their products?

      Your Answer: D cells and somatostatin

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin, an inhibitory hormone is secreted form the D cells of the Pancreatic Islets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The channel that coalesces the small pancreatic duct radicles before joining the common...

    Correct

    • The channel that coalesces the small pancreatic duct radicles before joining the common bile duct is known as the:

      Your Answer: Duct of Wirsung

      Explanation:

      The small ducts from the pancreas coalesce into a single duct known as the pancreatic duct or the duct of Wirsung. It usually joins the bile duct at the ampulla of Vater before entering the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Regarding short-chain fatty acids, all the following are true except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding short-chain fatty acids, all the following are true except:

      Your Answer: They are produced in the small intestine but their absorption occurs in the colon

      Explanation:

      Short chain fatty acids (SCFAs) have carbon chains of 2-5 carbon atoms. They are produced in the large intestine and are also absorbed there. They exert a trophic effect on the colonic epithelial layer in absorption of sodium. In the absence of short chain fatty acids there is a loss of sodium and water. Transport of SCFA is coupled with sodium thus absorption leads to the accumulation in the lumen of HCO3, a rise in pH, fall in pCO2 and stimulation of Na+ and water transport. The effect on Na+ transport is thought to indicate the presence of a Na+/H+ exchange in the cell membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Regarding cardiac muscle contractility, the afterload refers to: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac muscle contractility, the afterload refers to:

      Your Answer: The resistance against which blood is expected

      Explanation:

      The afterload for the left ventricle is the aortic pressure. Hence it is this pressure that offers resistance against which the blood is to be expelled from the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as: ...

    Correct

    • In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as:

      Your Answer: The cell divides

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. A somatic cell is any biological cell forming the body of an organism, other than a gamete, germ cell, gametocyte or undifferentiated stem cell. i.e. liver cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The proportion of individuals within a population affected by disease at a specific...

    Correct

    • The proportion of individuals within a population affected by disease at a specific time point, based on positive testing for serum antibodies is known as:

      Your Answer: Sero-Prevalence

      Explanation:

      In immunology, seroconversion is the time period during which a specific antibody develops and becomes detectable in the blood. After seroconversion has occurred, the disease can be detected in blood tests for the antibody. Sero-prevalence includes individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Where is the melanocortin system located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the melanocortin system located?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The melanocortin system is a group of hormones which include hormones from the pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)-expressing neurons, the neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related peptide (AgRP)-co-expressing neurons. This system is located in the hypothalamic arcuate nucleus; it also includes the hypothalamic arcuate nucleus and the melanocortin 4 receptor (MC4R)-expressing neurons located in the hypothalamic paraventricular nucleus. The system regulates energy expenditure and food intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres

      Explanation:

      A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following is an example of a ketone body? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of a ketone body?

      Your Answer: Acetoacetate

      Explanation:

      Ketone bodies are three water-soluble molecules (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and their spontaneous breakdown product, acetone) that are produced by the liver from fatty acids during periods of low food intake (fasting), carbohydrate restrictive diets, starvation, prolonged intense exercise, alcoholism or in untreated (or inadequately treated) type 1 diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently...

    Correct

    • A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 30-year-old female was brought to the ER in a confused state. The...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female was brought to the ER in a confused state. The patient works in a photograph development laboratory. On admission, she was hypoxic and hypotensive. A provisional diagnosis of cyanide poisoning was made. What is the definitive treatment?

      Your Answer: Hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      Cyanide poisoning: Aetiology:Smoke inhalation, suicidal ingestion, and industrial exposure (specific industrial processes involving cyanide include metal cleaning, reclaiming, or hardening; fumigation; electroplating; and photo processing) are the most frequent sources of cyanide poisoning. Treatment with sodium nitroprusside or long-term consumption of cyanide-containing foods is a possible source.Cyanide exposure most often occurs via inhalation or ingestion, but liquid cyanide can be absorbed through the skin or eyes. Once absorbed, cyanide enters the blood stream and is distributed rapidly to all organs and tissues in the body. Pathophysiology:Inside cells, cyanide attaches itself to ubiquitous metalloenzymes, rendering them inactive. Its principal toxicity results from inactivation of cytochrome oxidase (at cytochrome a3), thus uncoupling mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation and inhibiting cellular respiration, even in the presence of adequate oxygen stores.Presentation:• ‘Classical’ features: brick-red skin, smell of bitter almonds• Acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion• Chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitisManagement:• Supportive measures: 100% oxygen, ventilatory assistance in the form of intubation if required.• Definitive: Hydroxocobalamin (iv) is considered the drug of choice and is approved by the FDA for treating known or suspected cyanide poisoning. • Coadministration of sodium thiosulfate (through a separate line or sequentially) has been suggested to have a synergistic effect on detoxification.Mechanism of action of hydroxocobalamin: • Hydroxocobalamin combines with cyanide to form cyanocobalamin (vitamin B-12), which is renally cleared.• Alternatively, cyanocobalamin may dissociate from cyanide at a slow enough rate to allow for cyanide detoxification by the mitochondrial enzyme rhodanese.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:

      Your Answer: More than half of the population is infected.

      Explanation:

      HSV-1 is often acquired orally during childhood. It may also be sexually transmitted, including contact with saliva, such as kissing and mouth-to-genital contact (oral sex). HSV-2 is primarily a sexually transmitted infection, but rates of HSV-1 genital infections are increasing. HSVs may persist in a quiescent but persistent form known as latent infection, notably in neural ganglia. HSV-1 tends to reside in the trigeminal ganglia, while HSV-2 tends to reside in the sacral ganglia, but these are tendencies only, not fixed behaviour. The virus can be reactivated by illnesses such as colds and influenza, eczema, emotional and physical stress, gastric upset, fatigue or injury, by menstruation and possibly exposure to bright sunlight. Genital Herpes may be reactivated by friction. Shingles is due to a reactivation of varicella zoster virus (VZV).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which receptor type is associated with the inhibition of pancreatic endocrine secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptor type is associated with the inhibition of pancreatic endocrine secretion?

      Your Answer: Α1

      Correct Answer: Α2

      Explanation:

      The activation of alpha 2-adrenergic receptors in pancreatic beta-cells works by inhibiting the secretion of insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which one of the following features is least associated with primary hyperparathyroidism? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is least associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?

      Your Answer: Sensory loss

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism are those of hypercalcemia. They are classically summarized by stones, bones, abdominal groans, thrones and psychiatric overtones.

      Stones refers to kidney stones, nephrocalcinosis, and diabetes insipidus (polyuria and polydipsia). These can ultimately lead to renal failure.

      Bones refers to bone-related complications: osteitis fibrosa cystica, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and arthritis.

      Abdominal groans refers to gastrointestinal symptoms of constipation, indigestion, nausea and vomiting. Hypercalcemia can lead to peptic ulcers and acute pancreatitis.

      Thrones refers to polyuria and constipation

      Psychiatric overtones refers to effects on the central nervous system. Symptoms include lethargy, fatigue, depression, memory loss, psychosis, ataxia, delirium, and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes: Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertensionCentral nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rashEndocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoeaGenitourinary: Urinary tract infectionHepatic: Abnormal hepatic function testsNeuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle crampsOphthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbanceOtic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitusRenal: Acute renal failureOther options:Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours. Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Somatostatin is responsible for? ...

    Correct

    • Somatostatin is responsible for?

      Your Answer: Decreased gastrin release

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone secreted from the D cells of the Pancreatic Islets. It causes the inhibition of gastrin (decreasing stomach acid production), CCK (decreasing gallbladder motility), gastrin inhibitory peptide and secretin. Gastrin production is also inhibited by secretin, GIP, VIP, glucagon and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following is responsible for transporting both glucose and fructose into...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is responsible for transporting both glucose and fructose into the interstitium?

      Your Answer: SGLT 2

      Correct Answer: GLUT 2

      Explanation:

      Absorption of glucose involves transport from the intestinal lumen, across the epithelium and into blood. The transporter that carries glucose and galactose into the enterocyte is the sodium-dependent hexose transporter, known as SGLT1. As the name indicates, this molecule transports both glucose and sodium ions into the cell. Once absorbed into the enterocyte, glucose must be exported from the cell into blood. Sodium is rapidly shuttled out in exchange for potassium by Na+/K+ ATPase pumps on the basolateral membrane, and that process maintains the electrochemical gradient across the epithelium. Glucose, galactose and fructose are transported out of the enterocyte into the interstitium and in turn into the blood through another hexose transporter (called GLUT-2) in the basolateral membrane. These monosaccharides then diffuse down a concentration gradient into capillary blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of the active endopeptidases from their...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of the active endopeptidases from their inactive precursors?

      Your Answer: Enterokinase

      Explanation:

      Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme of the duodenum that activates proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by the action of enterokinase. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the pancreatic acinar cells and are enzymes that aid in protein digestion. Pepsin is secreted by chief cells of gastric mucosa. Procarboxydase is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase which is converted to its active form by trypsin and is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV...

    Correct

    • Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV nodes?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The RCA (right coronary artery) supplies the SA and the AV nodes along with the postero-basal wall of the left ventricle, posterior one third of the inferior vena cava, right ventricle and the posteromedial papillary muscle in the left ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Myocardium requires more oxygen to expel blood in: ...

    Correct

    • Myocardium requires more oxygen to expel blood in:

      Your Answer: A stenotic aortic valve

      Explanation:

      In aortic valve stenosis, increased ventricular pressure Is needed to expel the blood into the aorta. Increased pressure means increased contractility hence increase O2 consumption by the heart muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Monoamines are a class of neurotransmitters that include:

      1. Dopamine: A neurotransmitter involved in reward, motivation, and motor control.
      2. Norepinephrine: A neurotransmitter involved in arousal, attention, and stress responses.
      3. Serotonin: Although not listed in the options, it is another key monoamine involved in mood regulation.

      The other neurotransmitters listed are not monoamines:

      • Acetylcholine: This is a different type of neurotransmitter involved in muscle activation and various brain functions.
      • GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid): This is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
      • Glutamate: This is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
      • Glycine: An inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following symptoms would point towards an inflammatory joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Marked stiffness for more than an hour in the mornings

      Explanation:

      In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), clinical symptoms of joint stiffness, pain, and functional disability are commonly most severe in the early morning. These symptoms closely follow the circadian rhythm of the pro-inflammatory cytokine, interleukin (IL)-6. In RA, the increase in nocturnal anti-inflammatory cortisol secretion is insufficient to suppress ongoing inflammation, resulting in the morning symptoms characteristic of RA. Established diagnostic criteria for RA include prolonged morning stiffness that could last up to an hour. Loss of joint mobility, pain, malaise and swelling of finger joints are features that are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis, and are found in many other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair: ...

    Correct

    • Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair:

      Your Answer: Parietal cells and chief cells

      Explanation:

      In the body of the stomach, the vagal postganglionic muscarinic nerves release acetylcholine(ACh) which stimulates parietal cell H+ secretion. Gastric chief cells are primarily activated by ACh. However the decrease in pH caused by activation of parietal cells further activates gastric chief cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Anti-gastroesophageal reflux mechanisms include the following except: ...

    Correct

    • Anti-gastroesophageal reflux mechanisms include the following except:

      Your Answer: Peristaltic movements of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The lower oesophageal sphincter contracts preventing reflux of acid into the oesophagus. The sling muscles of the stomach, the crura of the diaphragm and the phreno-oesophageal ligament all play an important role in constricting the lower portion of the oesophagus and preventing reflux. Peristaltic movements do not stop the acid reflux.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which three parietal cell agonists bind at the basolateral membrane at specific receptors...

    Correct

    • Which three parietal cell agonists bind at the basolateral membrane at specific receptors respectively: M3 , H2 , CCK-B, to stimulate acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine, histamine , gastrin

      Explanation:

      The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine...

    Incorrect

    • A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine screening test developed to detect Chlamydia. The total number of people involved in the study were 200. The study compared the new test to the already existing NAAT techniques. The new test was positive in 20 patients that were Chlamydia positive and in 3 patients that were Chlamydia negative. For 5 patients that were Chlamydia positive and 172 patients that were Chlamydia negative the test turned out to be negative. Choose the correct value regarding the negative predictive value of the new test:

      Your Answer: 172/175

      Correct Answer: 172/177

      Explanation:

      The definition of negative predictive value is the probability that the individuals with truly negative screening test don’t have Chlamydia. The equation is the following: Negative predictive value = Truly negative/(truly negative + false negative) = 172 / (172 + 5) = 172 / 177

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      106.7
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic...

    Correct

    • With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic rate rises?

      Your Answer: 0.14

      Explanation:

      An increase in body temperature is associated with a higher metabolic rate. Evidence suggests that an increase of 1°C in your body temperature increases your metabolism by 10 to 14%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are: ...

    Correct

    • The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are:

      Your Answer: Isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.

      Explanation:

      The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.1st stage: diastole, or passive filling is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. 2nd stage: atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle (active filling).3rd stage: isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. 4th stage: ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. 5th stage: isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 35 year old female, known case of anti phospholipid syndrome, arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female, known case of anti phospholipid syndrome, arrives at the clinic due to a swollen and painful left leg. Doppler ultrasonography confirms the diagnosis of a deep vein thrombosis. She was previously diagnosed with DVT 4 months back and was on warfarin therapy (target INR 2-3) when it occurred. How should her anticoagulation be managed?

      Your Answer: A further 6 months warfarin, target INR 3 - 4

      Correct Answer: Life-long warfarin, increase target INR to 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      If the INR in the range of 2-3 has still resulted in thrombosis, the target INR is increased to 3-4. However, because the risk of bleeding increases as the INR rises, the INR is closely monitored and adjustments are made as needed to maintain the INR within the target range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which of the following supplies the AV node? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following supplies the AV node?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The AV node is supplied by the right coronary artery near the origin of the posterior IV artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Telomerase is active in all of the following cells, except: ...

    Correct

    • Telomerase is active in all of the following cells, except:

      Your Answer: Certain liver cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is an enzyme that adds repetitive nucleotide sequences to the ends of chromosomes (telomeres), preventing their shortening during cell division. Telomerase activity is crucial for cells that divide frequently and need to maintain their telomere length for continued proliferation. These include:

      • Stem cells: They have high telomerase activity to maintain their long-term proliferative capacity.
      • Germ cells: These cells also have active telomerase to ensure the stability of genetic material across generations.
      • Certain white blood cells: Some immune cells, particularly those that need to proliferate in response to infection, show telomerase activity.
      • Certain cancer cells: Many cancer cells reactivate telomerase, which contributes to their uncontrolled growth and immortality.

      However, most somatic cells, including certain liver cells, do not exhibit significant telomerase activity. While some liver cells might show low levels of telomerase activity during regeneration, it is not generally active in normal, differentiated liver cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - The parasympathetic innervation of the parotid salivary gland arrives from the salivary nuclei:...

    Correct

    • The parasympathetic innervation of the parotid salivary gland arrives from the salivary nuclei:

      Your Answer: CN IX

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic presynaptic nerve fibers from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) synapse in the otic ganglion and the postsynaptic parasympathetic nerve fibers pass to the parotid gland via the auriculotemporal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Correct

    • According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmicsI: Membrane stabilizing agentsIA: Quinidine, Procainamide, DisopyramideIB: Lidocaine, MexiletineIC: Propafenone, Flecainide II: β blockers – Propranolol, EsmololIII: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, SotalolIV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, DiltiazemV: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline are positively inotropic due to: ...

    Incorrect

    • Xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline are positively inotropic due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cAMP breakdown

      Explanation:

      Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An organophosphate insecticide

      Explanation:

      The farmer has most likely ingested an organophosphate insecticide.Organophosphorus compounds are used widely as:• Insecticides – Malathion, parathion, diazinon, dichlorvos• Nerve gases – Soman, sarin, tabun, VX• Ophthalmic agents – Echothiophate• Antihelmintics – Trichlorfon• Herbicides – merphos• Industrial chemical (plasticizer) – Tricresyl phosphateSigns and symptoms of Organophosphorus Poisoning (OPP) can be classified as:• Muscarinic effects:o Cardiovascular – Bradycardia, hypotensiono Respiratory – Rhinorrhoea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distresso Gastrointestinal – Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, faecal incontinenceo Genitourinary – Incontinenceo Ocular – Blurred vision, miosiso Glands – Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis• Nicotinic effects:o Muscle fasciculation, weakness, cramping, diaphragmatic failure, and autonomic side effects include: hypertension, tachycardia, and mydriasis.• Central nervous system (CNS) effects:o Anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, coma, apnoeaMainstay Treatment:• Decontamination• Securing Airway, Breathing and Circulation• Atropine• Pralidoxime• Benzodiazepines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - The oesophagus is lined by ...

    Incorrect

    • The oesophagus is lined by

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium

      Explanation:

      The wall of the oesophagus from the lumen outwards consists of mucosa, submucosa (connective tissue), layers of muscle fibers between layers of fibrous tissue, and an outer layer of connective tissue. The mucosa is a stratified squamous epithelium of around three layers of squamous cells, which contrasts to the single layer of columnar cells of the stomach. The transition between these two types of epithelium is visible as a zig-zag line. Most of the muscle is smooth muscle although striated muscle predominates in its upper two thirds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Pacemaker cells in the SA node and the AV node are connected by?...

    Incorrect

    • Pacemaker cells in the SA node and the AV node are connected by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      Gap junctions allows for rapid propagation of the action potential from one cell to the other. The cells of the heart are connected by gap junctions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - The hepatic portal vein is a large vessel formed by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The hepatic portal vein is a large vessel formed by which of the following veins?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      The portal vein is usually formed by the confluence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins and also receives blood from the inferior mesenteric, gastric, and cystic veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Where does the SA node develop? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the SA node develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: From structures on the right side of the embryo.

      Explanation:

      The SA node develops from the right side of the embryo and the AV node from the left. This is the reason why in adults the right vagus supplies the SA node and the left vagus supplies the AV node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Which immunological cells are predominant in the lymph node (almost 98 % residence)?...

    Incorrect

    • Which immunological cells are predominant in the lymph node (almost 98 % residence)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Lymph nodes are a lymphoid organ mostly consisting of lymphocytes: B cells in the cortex from where they mature and proliferate and T cells in the paracortex. The medulla is also composed of lymphocytes and macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 20-year-old female has been admitted with an acute infection. She gives a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female has been admitted with an acute infection. She gives a history suggestive of hypersensitivity to amoxicillin. After consultation with the allergy specialist, she has now been diagnosed with an IgE mediated penicillin allergy. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      Cefalexin should be avoided in this patient.This patient is known to have a severe penicillin allergy. None of the above antibiotics are penicillin based. However, 0.5 – 6.5% of patients who are proven to have an IgE mediated penicillin allergy will also be allergic to cephalosporins, including cefalexin. Penicillin, cephalosporins, and carbapenems are all members of the beta-lactam group of antibiotics and share a common beta-lactam ring. There is, therefore, a small risk of allergy cross-over between all these antibiotics. The rates of allergy cross-over are lower with second and third-generation cephalosporins than first-generation cephalosporins such as cefalexin.It is important to question the patient carefully to ascertain what symptoms they had on exposure to penicillin. Symptoms such as an urticarial rash or itching make it more likely that they have an IgE mediated allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which option best explains the underlying mechanism of gout?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased renal excretion of uric acid

      Explanation:

      Primary gout is related more often to underexcretion of uric acid or overproduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity. Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemiaManagement of these patients should be done in the following manner:• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation• Supportive therapy• GI decontamination• Urinary excretion and alkalization• Haemodialysis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following statements is most suitable to describe necrosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is most suitable to describe necrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significant inflammatory response

      Explanation:

      Necrosis is the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply. Cellular death due to necrosis does not follow the (regulated) apoptotic signal transduction pathway, but rather various receptors are activated, and result in the loss of cell membrane integrity and an uncontrolled release of products of cell death into the extracellular space. This initiates in the surrounding tissue an inflammatory response which attracts leukocytes and nearby phagocytes which eliminate the dead cells by phagocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Angina pectoris develops when blood through the coronary artery becomes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Angina pectoris develops when blood through the coronary artery becomes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Restricted, limiting blood blow

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris develops when stenosis ( >70%) of the artery occurs as a result of formation of an atherosclerotic plaque. This leads to a decrease in the O2 carried to the thickened heart muscle by the blood, leading to the characteristic chest pain associated with angina pectoris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework results in fatigue, palpitations or dyspnoea. What New York Heart Association class best describes the severity of their disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NYHA Class II

      Explanation:

      New York Heart Association functional classification:

      Class I: no limitation is experienced in any activities; there are no symptoms from ordinary activities.

      Class II: slight, mild limitation of activity; the patient is comfortable at rest or with mild exertion.

      Class III: marked limitation of any activity; the patient is comfortable only at rest.

      Class IV: any physical activity brings on discomfort and symptoms occur at rest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - The alpha amylases hydrolyse which linkages in the ingested polysaccharides? ...

    Incorrect

    • The alpha amylases hydrolyse which linkages in the ingested polysaccharides?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1:4α linkages

      Explanation:

      Alfa amylase hydrolyses the α (1-4) glyosidic bonds in amylose and amylopectin and leave primarily maltose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which inhibitor of gastric enzyme secretion is released by the presence of fat...

    Incorrect

    • Which inhibitor of gastric enzyme secretion is released by the presence of fat in the jejunum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peptide yy

      Explanation:

      Peptide yy is secreted from the jejunum due to the presence of fat. It inhibits gastric acid secretion and motility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan’s tend to be tall, and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - The following are Gram-negative cocci: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are Gram-negative cocci:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neisseria

      Explanation:

      Gram-negative cocci include the four types that cause a sexually transmitted disease (Neisseria gonorrhoeae), a meningitis (Neisseria meningitidis), and respiratory symptoms (Moraxella catarrhalis, Haemophilus influenzae).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Selectins ...

    Incorrect

    • Selectins

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interact with carbohydrate ligands or mucin complexes on leucocytes and endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Selectins are involved in constitutive lymphocyte homing, and in chronic and acute inflammation processes, including post-ischemic inflammation. Each selectin has a carbohydrate recognition domain that mediates binding to specific glycans on apposing cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct...

    Incorrect

    • In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct actions of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIIa & XIa

      Explanation:

      Factor IX is processed to remove the signal peptide, glycosylated and then cleaved by factor XIa (of the contact pathway) or factor VIIa (of the tissue factor pathway). When activated into factor IXa, in the presence of Ca2+, membrane phospholipids, and a Factor VIII cofactor, it hydrolyses one arginine-isoleucine bond in factor X to form factor Xa. Factor IX is inhibited by antithrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Habituation… ...

    Incorrect

    • Habituation…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a simple form of learning in which a neutral stimulus is repeated many times

      Explanation:

      It is a simple form of learning where an organism decreases or ceases it’s response to a certain stimuli after repeated presentation. The organisms learns to stop responding to a stimulus which is no longer biologically relevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Growth hormone deficiency causes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Growth hormone deficiency causes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased epiphyseal growth

      Explanation:

      Growth hormone deficiency is caused by conditions affecting the pituitary gland, such as tumours. Its effects depend on the age of the patient: in infancy and childhood, growth failure is most likely to occur. The epiphyseal plate is the area in long bones where growth occurs, and it is the area affected by growth hormone deficiency. Poor growth/shortness is the main symptom of GH deficiency in children, usually resulting in growth at about half the usual rate for age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - In Argyll Robertson pupils… ...

    Incorrect

    • In Argyll Robertson pupils…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson pupils are bilaterally small pupils that accommodate or reduce in size near an object but do not react to light. They do not constrict when exposed to bright light. They are a highly specific sign of neurosyphilis but may be seen in diabetic neuropathy as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3 month history of pain and stiffness in the joints of his hands and feet. He also complains of dyspnoea occurring for the past 6 weeks. On examination there is a right pleural effusion and swollen hand joints. The clinician makes a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is most characteristic of a rheumatoid pleural effusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a low glucose level

      Explanation:

      The typical “rheumatoid effusion” is a sterile exudative fluid with low pH (<7.3), low glucose (700 IU). It should initially be treated with NSAIDs. Decortication should be reserved in patients with thickened pleura who have symptomatic dyspnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Where is the most erythropoietin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the most erythropoietin produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median eminence

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system connects the brain to the anterior pituitary. It is made up of two capillary beds, one in the median eminence and the other in the anterior pituitary. Blood from the plexus of the median eminence is carried by portal veins, draining into the cavernous and posterior intercavernous sinuses. This system delivers hypothalamic hormones to their target cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - In a 30 year old male with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which of...

    Incorrect

    • In a 30 year old male with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which of the following is not associated with increased risk of sudden death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a disease in which a portion of the myocardium (heart muscle) is enlarged without any obvious cause, creating functional impairment of the heart. It is the leading cause of sudden death in young athletes. The major risk factors for sudden death (SD) are recent unexplained syncope unlikely to be neurocardiogenic; HCM-related SD in first-degree or other close relatives; repetitive and/or prolonged nonsustained ventricular tachycardia (NSVT) episodes on Holter or extended ambulatory monitoring; massive left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) (wall thickness ≥30 mm); extensive/diffuse late gadolinium enhancement (LGE); end-stage heart failure usually with systolic dysfunction; and thin-walled akinetic LV apical aneurysm with regional scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Di and tri peptides are absorbed via a different mechanism as amino acids,...

    Incorrect

    • Di and tri peptides are absorbed via a different mechanism as amino acids, this is due to the working of which transporter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PEPT 1

      Explanation:

      GLUT and SGLT are glucose transporters. Peptides which are longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cells of the small intestine via a transporter called PepT1 by co-transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Regarding the surface anatomy of the orifices of the heart, where is the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the surface anatomy of the orifices of the heart, where is the aortic valve located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opposite the left 3rd intercostal space to the left of the sternum

      Explanation:

      The aortic valve is situated in the left 3rd intercostal space just beneath the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which of the following occurs during a Valsalva manoeuvre? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following occurs during a Valsalva manoeuvre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An initial rise in blood pressure

      Explanation:

      The Valsalva maneuver involves forced expiration against a closed glottis. It has several phases, each affecting the cardiovascular system differently:

      1. Phase I: During the initial forced expiration against the closed glottis, there is a transient rise in intrathoracic pressure, which compresses the thoracic aorta and causes a brief increase in blood pressure.
      2. Phase II: Continued straining leads to decreased venous return to the heart, reducing cardiac output and causing a drop in blood pressure. This phase is characterized by a compensatory increase in heart rate.
      3. Phase III: Upon releasing the strain, there is a sudden drop in intrathoracic pressure, which momentarily decreases blood pressure.
      4. Phase IV: Blood pressure then rises rapidly as venous return to the heart is restored, leading to increased cardiac output. This is often followed by a reflex bradycardia (slow heart rate).

      Given these phases, the most accurate statement about what occurs during the Valsalva maneuver is the initial rise in blood pressure (Phase I).

      Other options explained:

      • Forced inspiration against a closed glottis: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver involves forced expiration, not inspiration, against a closed glottis.
      • Low intrathoracic pressures throughout: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver involves high intrathoracic pressures due to forced expiration.
      • Disruption of autonomic function: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver affects autonomic function but does not disrupt it. Instead, it triggers autonomic responses to changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
      • No change: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver causes significant changes in blood pressure and heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pituitary LH surge due to the positive feedback effect of circulating oestrogens

      Explanation:

      FSH and LH are secreted to start the development of a follicle at the start of each menstrual cycle. A surge in oestrogen causes a positive feedback in the LH cells of the pituitary; this causes ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contain catecholamines

      Explanation:

      The carotid body detects changes in the composition of arterial blood flowing through it, mainly the partial pressure of oxygen, but also of carbon dioxide. Furthermore, it is also sensitive to changes in pH and temperature.The carotid body is made up of two types of cells, called glomus cells: Glomus type I/chief cells release a variety of neurotransmitters, including acetylcholine, ATP, and dopamine that trigger EPSPs in synapsed neurons leading to the respiratory centre.Glomus type II/sustentacular cells resemble glia, express the glial marker S100 and act as supporting cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - The internodal tract of Bachman: ...

    Incorrect

    • The internodal tract of Bachman:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Connects the SA node to the AV node

      Explanation:

      Internodal tract of Bachman connects the SA node to the AV node conducting the electrical impulses generated from the SA node to the AV node and from the AV node to the rest of the electrical complex of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - The approximate incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population each...

    Incorrect

    • The approximate incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population each year is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 per 1000

      Explanation:

      About 1 in 1000 adults per year has DVT, but as of 2011, available data is dominated by North American and European populations. DVT is rare in children, with an incidence of about 1 in 100,000 a year. From childhood to old age, incidence increases by a factor of about 1000, with almost 1% of the elderly experiencing DVTs yearly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Choose the most correct missing words to complete the statement: A portion of...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct missing words to complete the statement: A portion of circulating growth hormone is bound to the ____ receptor and activates the ____ pathway that mediates its effect.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growth hormone receptor (extracellular domain), jak 2stat

      Explanation:

      The growth hormone receptor is a transmembrane protein involved in the STATs, MAPK and PI3-kinase/Akt pathways. The JAK-STAT signalling pathway is activated by different ligands, such as growth hormone, interferon and interleukin. This pathway is involved in the expression of genes associated with oncogenesis, immunity, proliferation, differentiation and apoptosis. Errors in these pathways can produce leukaemia’s and other myeloproliferative disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He also has a history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His main complaint is a blue tinge to his vision. Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Blue tinge of vision/cyanopsia is caused due to the intake of sildenafil citrate.Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.Note: Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision) may occur secondary to treatment with digoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Cytochrome p450 enzymes expressed in hepatocytes serve to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Cytochrome p450 enzymes expressed in hepatocytes serve to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facilitate oxidations or hydrolysis of drugs.

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome p 450 are a family of proteins involved in drug metabolism which accounts for about 75% of the total metabolism. Most drugs are deactivated directly or by facilitated excretion from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Which enzyme is responsible for the removal of acetylcholine from the synapse? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is responsible for the removal of acetylcholine from the synapse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholinesterase is the enzyme that is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine into choline and acetate. Both of these molecules are transported back to the presynaptic neuron to be synthesized again. This enzyme is attached to the collagen fibers of the basement membrane in the synaptic cleft.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning

      Explanation:

      Confusion and pink mucosae are typical features of CO poisoning.The patient often presents, most commonly with headaches, and other symptoms like malaise, nausea, and dizziness.Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Features of carbon monoxide toxicity- Headache: 90% of cases- Nausea and vomiting: 50%- Vertigo: 50%- Confusion: 30%- Subjective weakness: 20%- Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathTreatment:Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treating mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome. The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not your patient, you can make out that the man has a history of schizophrenia, and has recently had his medications altered. Clinically, you find evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection, and blood investigations indicate a neutropenic picture.What is the most likely drug causing the neutropenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis.Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia, and in patients who are intolerant to, or unresponsive to other antipsychotics. It is a weak D2-receptor and D1-receptor blocking activity, with noradrenolytic, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic properties.Many antipsychotic drugs can occasionally cause bone marrow depression, but agranulocytosis is particularly associated with clozapine.Other side effects include:Hypotension, tachycardiaFever, sedation, seizures (with high doses)Appetite increaseConstipationHeartburnWeight gainExtrapyramidal symptomsAgranulocytosisNeuroleptic malignant syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Protein digestion starts in the stomach by which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Protein digestion starts in the stomach by which enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin which is secreted by gastric chief cells and is converted to pepsin, in the presence of gastric HCL. Pepsin is a peptidase that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Stroke volume in a average sized man lying in supine position is about?...

    Incorrect

    • Stroke volume in a average sized man lying in supine position is about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70 ml

      Explanation:

      The stroke volume of an average sized man who is lying is the supine position is about 70 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - What is pulse pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is pulse pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      The pulse pressure is the difference between the measured systolic and diastolic pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Myocyte action potentials – Choose the false statement: ...

    Incorrect

    • Myocyte action potentials – Choose the false statement:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repolarisation is due to net k+ influx

      Explanation:

      Final repolarization (phase 3) to the resting membrane potential (phase 4) is due to closure of the Ca2+ channels and a slow, delayed increase of K+ efflux through various types of K+ channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the iodination of tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is a pro-drug as after absorption it is converted to the active form, methimazole. Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibulocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The vestibulocerebellum develops at the same time as the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear. Its regulates balance between agonist and antagonist muscle contractions of the spine, hips, and shoulders during rapid movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - Periodic fevers occur in humans with mutations in the gene for pyrin. Pyrin...

    Incorrect

    • Periodic fevers occur in humans with mutations in the gene for pyrin. Pyrin is a protein found in which one of the following cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Pyrin, also known as marenostrin or TRIM20, is a protein encoded by the Mediterranean fever (MEFV) gene, causing the autoinflammatory disease familial Mediterranean fever (FMF). Pyrin produces an increased sensitivity to intracellular signals. It is produced mainly in neutrophils, which display an increased ratio of cells entering apoptosis when exposed to pyrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - Normally the portal venous pressure is about: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normally the portal venous pressure is about:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5mmhg

      Explanation:

      Under normal physiological conditions, the pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver, typically ranges around 5-10 mmHg. Pressures significantly higher than this range can indicate portal hypertension, which can be associated with liver diseases such as cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer of iodide across the thyrocyte apical membrane into the colloid

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion transporter present in the inner ear, thyroid and kidney. It regulates the entrance of iodide from the thyroid cell to the colloid space. It has been proposed that its role could be the maintenance of the ionic composition of the endolymph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - Which vaso metabolite decreases coronary blood flow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vaso metabolite decreases coronary blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      Decreased O2, increased CO2, lactate, prostaglandins, adenine nucleotides, adenosine, H+, K+ and cyanide produce vasodilation and thus an increase in coronary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes: ...

    Incorrect

    • The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breasts: stimulation of lobular and alveolar development

      Explanation:

      Progesterone is a sex hormone which affects mainly the reproductive system. In the breasts, it mediates the lobuloalveolar maturation to allow for milk production; this is done in conjunction with prolactin. It acts to maintain female reproductive and sex characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - Cranial nerves VI, VII, VIII enter/exit the base of the brain at the:...

    Incorrect

    • Cranial nerves VI, VII, VIII enter/exit the base of the brain at the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ponto-medullary junction

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerves III, IV and V exit from the pons, VI, VII, VIII exit from the pontomedullary junction and cranial nerve IX, X, XI, XII exit from the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a macrophage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Microglia act as the macrophages of the central nervous system, and they contribute to innate and adaptive immune responses. Studies have shown that microglial cells recognize monocyte antigens, and there are similarities between them that demonstrate that they originate from these monocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin...

    Incorrect

    • The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidise

      Explanation:

      Thyroid peroxidase is an enzyme that is secreted into the thyroid colloid. It works by oxidizing iodide ions into iodine which are incorporated into thyroglobulin, in order to produce T3 and T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.Other options:The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful. There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course. Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure. There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterized by patches of abnormal skin. These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly commonly on the extensor surfaces. Psoriasis is associated with an increased risk of psoriatic arthritis, lymphomas, cardiovascular disease, Crohn’s disease, and depression. Psoriatic arthritis affects up to 30% of individuals with psoriasis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response, rather than type 2 helper T cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granular, purkinje, molecular

      Explanation:

      The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers; the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer in the middle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful right ankle. No drug allergies are reported. On examination, the vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.8BP: 90/60 mmHgPulse: 110/min. Right ankle examination reveals tenderness, warmth, erythema and tense joint effusion. Blood samples including blood cultures are collected and fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange joint aspiration urgently

      Explanation:

      Although microscopic analysis of joint fluid aspirate and culture is the basis of septic arthritis diagnosis and should usually be collected before the administration of antibiotics, the patient is showing signs of septic shock. A delay in antibiotics might lead to worsening of symptoms so they are administered first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She was found, lying on the floor having consumed an unidentified quantity of her mother's prescription pills with alcohol. The patient's mother is a known hypertensive under treatment. On examination, the patient was found to be lethargic, hypotensive with a BP of 70/50 mmHg, and bradycardic with a pulse rate of 38 bpm. A finger prick glucose is 3.2 mmol/L. Which TWO among the following are the most appropriate steps for the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucagon and isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate steps of initial management include iv glucagon and iv isoprenaline.The most likely diagnosis in the above scenario (decreased conscious level, profound hypertension, and bradycardia) is β-blocker toxicity/overdose. Bronchospasm rarely occurs in an overdose of β-blockers, except where there is a history of asthma.Immediate management is to give iv glucagons (50–150μg/kg) followed by infusion to treat hypotension and isoprenaline or atropine to treat bradycardia. Where patients fail to respond to these measures, temporary pacing may be required. If the patient is seen within the first 4 hours of the overdose, gastric lavage may be of value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor cortex and planning and programming movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebrocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebrocerebellum is the largest functional subdivision of the cerebellum, comprising of the lateral hemispheres and the dentate nuclei. It is involved in the planning and timing of movements, and in the cognitive functions of the cerebellum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pepsinogen 1

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic juice, composed of the secretions of both ductal and acinar cells, is made up of the following digestive enzymes:Trypsinogen, which is an inactive(zymogenic) protease that, once activated in the duodenum into trypsin, breaks down proteins at the basic amino acids. Trypsinogen is activated via the duodenal enzyme enterokinase into its active form trypsin.Colipase is a protein co-enzyme required for optimal enzyme activity of pancreatic lipase. It is secreted by the pancreas in an inactive form, procolipase, which is activated in the intestinal lumen by trypsin.Chymotrypsinogen, which is an inactive (zymogenic) protease that, once activated by duodenal enterokinase, breaks down proteins at their aromatic amino acids. Chymotrypsinogen can also be activated by trypsin.Carboxypeptidase, which is a protease that takes off the terminal amino acid group from a proteinSeveral elastases that degrade the protein elastin and some other proteins.Pancreatic lipase that degrades triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.Sterol esterasePhospholipaseSeveral nucleases that degrade nucleic acids, like DNase and RNase.Pancreatic amylase that breaks down starch and glycogen which are alpha-linked glucose polymers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes...

    Incorrect

    • The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes contraction of the intrinsic sphincter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) is a specific region of the oesophageal circular smooth muscle. It allows the passage of a food bolus to the stomach and prevents the reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus. The tone of the LOS is myogenic in origin and depends on smooth muscle properties that lead to the opening of Ca2+ channels but can also be modulated by enteric motor neurons, the parasympathetic and sympathetic extrinsic nervous system and several neurohumoral substances. Nitric oxide causes LOS relaxation. Acetylcholine and tachykinins are involved in the LOS contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - The hippocampus is involved in the memory of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The hippocampus is involved in the memory of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facts

      Explanation:

      The hippocampus plays an important role in forming new memories about experienced events. Some researchers say that hippocampus plays a major role in declarative memory for example memory of facts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - Which cells produce the immunoglobulin proteins involved in mediating humoral immunity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells produce the immunoglobulin proteins involved in mediating humoral immunity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Differentiated forms of B lymphocytes known as plasma cells

      Explanation:

      After the B cells have been activated by a certain antigens, they transform into plasma cells. These plasma cells are responsible for the generation of antibodies (or immunoglobulins Ig) which are also known as regulators of humoral immunity. There are fives classes of Ig: IgA, IgG, IgM, IgE and IgD

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - Blood flow to the subendocardial portions of the left ventricular muscle occurs mainly...

    Incorrect

    • Blood flow to the subendocardial portions of the left ventricular muscle occurs mainly during:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      The sub endocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure from contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - In the life cycle of plasmodium species: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the life cycle of plasmodium species:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Merozoites are released from the liver and enter the red blood cell

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic protozoa, many of which cause malaria in their hosts. The parasite always has two hosts in its life cycle: a Dipteran insect host and a vertebrate host. Sexual reproduction always occurs in the insect, making it the definitive host.The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - When is the blood pressure at its lowest during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • When is the blood pressure at its lowest during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second trimester

      Explanation:

      It is lowest during the second trimester.

      Previous studies have reported changes in blood pressure (BP) throughout pregnancy, and it was generally accepted that in clinically healthy pregnant women, BP falls gradually at first trimester, reaching the lowest around 22–24 weeks, rising again from 28 weeks, and reaching preconception levels by 36 weeks of gestation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - What microscopic changes are visible in an active thyroid gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • What microscopic changes are visible in an active thyroid gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Follicle lining cells are cuboid or columnar.

      Explanation:

      Active follicles are lined by cuboidal or columnar cells; this is because active follicles are smaller and have less colloid. Their cells are tall because they are actively secreting hormones, whereas older follicles have a flat epithelium and are filled with more colloid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Specific relay nuclei

      Explanation:

      The thalamus is considered the relay station for sensory and motor stimuli. There are three basic types of thalamic nuclei: relay nuclei, association nuclei and non-specific nuclei. Relay nuclei receive very well defined inputs and project this signal to functionally distinct areas of the cerebral cortex. These include the nuclei that relay primary sensations and also the nuclei involved in feedback of cerebellar signals and basal gangliar output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - The lamina propria contains all of the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The lamina propria contains all of the following except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The connective tissue of the lamina propria is very loose, allowing it to be very cell rich. The cell population of the lamina propria is variable and can include, for example, fibroblasts, lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, eosinophilic leukocytes, and mast cells. It provides support and nutrition to the epithelium, as well as the means to bind to the underlying tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat...

    Incorrect

    • What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brown adipose tissue

      Explanation:

      Brown adipose tissue, also known as BAT or brown fat, coforms the adipose tissue along with white adipose tissue (WAT) or white fat. While WAT is responsible for energy-storage, BAT is involved in thermogenesis and energy expenditure. It is more prevalent in children than in adults, and its activation during adolescence is associated to less weight gain and adiposity. BAT produces heat by non-shivering thermogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - Endothelial cells produce the following substance(s): ...

    Incorrect

    • Endothelial cells produce the following substance(s):

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Endothelial cells produce thromboxane, prostacyclins, nitric oxides, endothelins, IL-1 and TNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:...

    Incorrect

    • The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracortex

      Explanation:

      Paracortex is found between the cortex and the medulla and it is composed of a non-nodular type of arrangement that is mostly made up of T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heterozygous females tend to have the disease more severely than affected males.

      Explanation:

      Women who have the affected X chromosome will be affected, but the severity will be less than that in males as they have a normal X chromosome to counter the effect of the mutated X chromosome. Affected males will pass on the defect to their daughters 100% of the time but not to their sons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal] ...

    Incorrect

    • Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal]

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes the formation of tall tented T waves due to altered repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of pins and needles sensation in both hands. He also has prognathism. He also gives a history of recent onset right upper quadrant pain after being started on a new medication for his condition. Which of the following medications acting on his endocrine system can be responsible for this adverse effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      The patient (known case of acromegaly) seems to have developed cholelithiasis (presenting with right upper quadrant pain) probably due to octreotide.It is a long-acting analogue of somatostatin which is released from D cells of the pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin.Uses- Acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage- Acromegaly- Carcinoid syndrome- Prevent complications following pancreatic surgery- VIPomas- Refractory diarrhoeaAdverse effectsGallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)Other options:- Bromocriptine – a dopamine agonist with side effects arising from its stimulation of the brain vomiting centre.- Desmopressin – predominantly used in patients with diabetes insipidus by increasing the presence of aquaporin channels in the distal collecting duct to increase water reabsorption from the kidneys. The main side effects include headache and facial flushing due to hypertension.- Metformin – mainly reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis in patients with type 2 diabetes, common side effects include diarrhoea, vomiting, and lactic acidosis- Levothyroxine – synthetic thyroxine used in patients with hypothyroidism, common side effects result from incorrect dosing and mimic the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes: ...

    Incorrect

    • The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binding to myosin after the power stroke to allow uncoupling of actin and myosin

      Explanation:

      After calcium binds to the troponin C, there is a conformational change in the structure of troponin I and tropomyosin, which moves out of the way and frees the site where myosin can bind to actin. This results in the formation of the cross linkage of the actin and myosin giving rise to the power stroke in the contraction phase. This occurs with the release of ADP. When ATP combines to this complex it breaks and the cycle repeats itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - The following is true about the carotid arterial supply to the brain: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is true about the carotid arterial supply to the brain:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Following carotid occlusion, precapillary anastomoses are unable to prevent infarction

      Explanation:

      The brain has two sources of blood supply; the internal carotid arteries which are the anterior segment or the main artery that supplies the anterior portion of the brain, and the vertebral arteries which is the posterior segment which supplies the posterior portion of the brain. The internal carotid arteries branch and form two major arteries anterior and middle cerebral arteries. The right and left vertebral arteries fuse together at the level of the pons on the anterior surface of the brainstem to form the midline basilar artery. The basilar artery joins the blood supply from the internal carotids in an arterial ring at the base of the brain called the circle of Willis. The anterior and posterior communicating arteries conjoin the two major sources of cerebral vascular supply via the circle of Willis improving the chances of any region of the brain continuing to receive blood if one of the major arteries becomes occluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Causes of hair loss include:

      • Dissecting cellulitis
      • Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      • Folliculitis
      • Secondary syphilis
      • Demodex folliculorum
      • Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).

      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol works on Ribosome 50 S peptidyl transferase

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycoside is a category of traditional Gram-negative antibacterial therapeutic agents that inhibit protein synthesis. Aminoglycoside antibiotics display bactericidal activity against gram-negative aerobes and some anaerobic bacilli where resistance has not yet arisen, but generally not against Gram-positive and anaerobic Gram-negative bacteria.Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis. It prevents protein chain elongation by inhibiting the peptidyl transferase activity of the bacterial ribosome. It specifically binds to A2451 and A2452 residues in the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate. The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).Other treatment modalities include:• Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.• 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)• PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.• Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chemokines

      Explanation:

      The major role of chemokines is to act as a chemoattractant to guide the migration of cells like neutrophils to the site of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - The cavernous sinus is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cavernous sinus is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral to the body of the sphenoid

      Explanation:

      It is a venous sinus which creates a cavity called the lateral sellar compartment bordered by the temporal bone and the sphenoid bone. There are 2 on either side. It is about 1cm wide and extends from the posterior aspect of the orbit to the petrous part of the temporal bone. They sit on either side or lateral to the sphenoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - What is the function of secondary messengers? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of secondary messengers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Communication from extracellular to intracellular signalling pathways

      Explanation:

      First messengers may not physically cross the phospholipid bilayer to initiate changes within the cell directly. This functional limitation necessitates the cell to devise signal transduction mechanisms to transduce first messenger into second messengers, so that the extracellular signal may be propagated intracellularly. Second messengers are intracellular signalling molecules released by the cell to trigger physiological changes such as proliferation, differentiation, migration, survival, and apoptosis. Secondary messengers are therefore one of the initiating components of intracellular signal transduction cascades.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate

      Explanation:

      Before the urea cycle begins ammonia is converted to carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - When the heart rate is increased (to pathological levels) which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • When the heart rate is increased (to pathological levels) which of the following is correct when comparing the duration of diastole to systole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is shortened to a greater degree

      Explanation:

      The duration of systole is more fixed than the duration of diastole. When the heart rate increases the timing of the systole remains more or less the same however diastole decreases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - What is troponin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is troponin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A component of thin filaments

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect. Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile. Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - The free radical most abundantly formed by the immune system is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The free radical most abundantly formed by the immune system is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxyl radical

      Explanation:

      Neutrophil and macrophage phagocytosis stimulates various cellular processes including the respiratory burst whereby increased cellular oxygen uptake results in the production of the potent oxidant bactericidal agents, hypochlorous acid and hydroxyl radical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to? ...

    Incorrect

    • The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the sodium potassium ATPase in the myocardium

      Explanation:

      Digitalis compounds are potent inhibitors of cellular Na+/K+-ATPase. This ion transport system moves sodium ions out of the cell and brings potassium ions into the cell. By inhibiting the Na+/K+-ATPase, cardiac glycosides cause the intracellular sodium concentration to increase. This then leads to an accumulation of intracellular calcium via the Na+/Ca++ exchange system. In the heart, increased intracellular calcium causes more calcium to be released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thereby making more calcium available to bind to troponin-C, which increases contractility (inotropy).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53 gene, which of the following statements is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA

      Explanation:

      The p53 protein is a crucial tumor suppressor and plays several key roles in maintaining cellular integrity:

      1. Nuclear transcription factor: p53 is a nuclear transcription factor that regulates the expression of various genes involved in cell cycle control, DNA repair, apoptosis, and senescence.
      2. DNA repair: p53 permits repair of mutations and other defects in DNA (not RNA). It activates the transcription of genes involved in DNA repair mechanisms, allowing the cell to correct errors before proceeding with the cell cycle.
      3. Cell cycle regulation: p53 can induce the expression of p21, a protein that inhibits cyclin-dependent kinases, thereby halting the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint to allow time for DNA repair or to trigger apoptosis if the damage is irreparable. Mutations in p53 may fail to halt the cell cycle, allowing mutations to persist and potentially leading to cancer.
      4. Apoptosis: If DNA damage is extensive and cannot be repaired, p53 triggers apoptosis to prevent the propagation of damaged cells.
      5. Suppression of proto-oncogenes: p53 indirectly contributes to the suppression of proto-oncogenes by preventing the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA, thereby reducing the risk of oncogenic transformation.

      Given these functions, the statement that p53 “permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA” is incorrect, as p53 is primarily involved in the repair of DNA, not RNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - Cross-bridges between actin and myosin filaments contain: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cross-bridges between actin and myosin filaments contain:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      At rest troponin I is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and causes a structural change in troponin I which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - Pancreatic juice is usually? ...

    Incorrect

    • Pancreatic juice is usually?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alkaline

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic juice is alkaline in nature and has a high amount of bicarbonate ions. About 1500 ml is secreted every day. It also contains a large quantity of enzymes in the inactive form.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination

      Explanation:

      Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation. Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose. Other options are true:By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine. Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - An obstruction in a pulmonary artery causes impaired perfusion to an area in...

    Incorrect

    • An obstruction in a pulmonary artery causes impaired perfusion to an area in the lung. The gas values in the unperfused alveoli at sea level will be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PO2 = 149 C02 =0

      Explanation:

      Partial pressure of oxygen at sea level is approximately 160 mmHg. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is around 150 mmHg and in an arteriole is around 80-100 mmHg. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide is around 35 mmHg in alveolar air and around 40 mmHg in the arteriole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - Which of the following is not secreted by cells in the antrum of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not secreted by cells in the antrum of the stomach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrochloric acid

      Explanation:

      Cells in the body of the stomach secrete mucus, HCl and pepsinogen. Cells in the antrum secrete pepsinogen, gastrin and mucus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - What is the most important source of heat production in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important source of heat production in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skeletal muscle contraction

      Explanation:

      Thermogenesis is the process by which organisms produce heat. Through skeletal muscle contraction, or shivering, ATP is converted into kinetic energy, some of which converts into heat. These muscle contractions produce about 70% of total body heat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke when added to standard treatment plans in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. This information was shared in 2015 by The New England Journal of Medicine and the results were expressed per 1000 patient years. In fact, empagliflozin had an event rate of 37.3/1000 patient years and placebo an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years. How many patients who are at high cardiovascular risk need to be treated with empagliflozin to prevent a cardiovascular death, a non-fatal myocardial infarction or a non-fatal stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is an absolute effect measure that has been used to assess beneficial and harmful effects of medical interventions. In this case the NNT can be calculated as follows: NNT = 1/ Absolute risk reduction (ARR). ARR=(Control event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) – (Experimental event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) = 43.9-37.3 = 6.6/1000 patient yearsNNT=(Patient years)/ARR = 1000/ 6.6 = 151.5. The closest to 151.5 is 150, thus it is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes most obvious or prominent? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes most obvious or prominent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - Which one of the following leads to decreased prolactin levels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following leads to decreased prolactin levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine has an important effect on the regulation of prolactin secretion. Dopamine binds to type-2 dopamine receptors of the lactotroph cells that are functionally linked to membrane channels and G proteins and suppresses the high secretory activity of the pituitary lactotrophs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - Which of the following drugs requires plasma level monitoring? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs requires plasma level monitoring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      All patients require plasma-vancomycin measurement (after 3 or 4 doses if renal function normal, earlier if renal impairment). There is a risk of nephrotoxicity including renal failure, interstitial nephritis and ototoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reticulospinal

      Explanation:

      Reticulospinal tract pass down from the reticular formation of the mid brain, pons and medulla. It descends in the lateral white column. Both sets of fibers enter the anterior grey column and may facilitate or inhibit the gamma and alpha neurons. By this means the reticulospinal tract controls voluntary and reflex activities. It also contains the descending autonomic fiber, thus providing a pathway for the hypothalamus to control the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in: ...

    Incorrect

    • The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria and cytoplasm

      Explanation:

      The urea cycle (also known as the ornithine cycle) is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea ((NH2)2CO) from ammonia (NH3). The urea cycle consists of four enzymatic reactions: one mitochondrial and three cytosolic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area? ...

    Incorrect

    • The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation and thermogenesis. Studies have shown that the neurons in the posterior hypothalamus which mediate the reflex of shivering are sensitive to temperature; damage to this nucleus produces hypothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - When 2 nucleotide chains of DNA bind together, thymine is bound to: ...

    Incorrect

    • When 2 nucleotide chains of DNA bind together, thymine is bound to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenine

      Explanation:

      As a general rule in the structure of DNA, thymine always binds to adenine with two hydrogen bonds, cytosine always binds to guanine with three hydrogen bonds and vice versa. However In the structure of RNA the only difference is that adenine binds to uracil instead of thymine. But thymine will always bind to adenine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - Which of the following is not innervated by the parasympathetic nerve supply? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not innervated by the parasympathetic nerve supply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial muscle of iris

      Explanation:

      The sphincter pupillae is supplied by the parasympathetic fibers from the Edinger Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor nerve. The dilator pupillae (radial muscle) is supplied by the postganglionic fibers of the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion. The parasympathetic nerve supply to the salivary glands originate in the parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerve (superior salivatory nucleus) and the glossopharyngeal nerve (inferior salivatory nucleus). The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate in the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve and descend into the thorax in the vagus nerve. The fibers terminate by synapsing with postganglionic neurons in the cardiac plexuses. Postganglionic fibers terminate on the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes and on the coronary arteries Parasympathetic supply to the stomach is via the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an intentional paracetamol overdose. He had taken 20x 500mg tablets, all at once. He denies any alcohol intake. Blood investigations 4 hours after ingestion showed:Paracetamol: 14 mg/lINR: 1Liver enzymes: No abnormality detectedBilirubin: Mild elevationHe was seen by the mental health team and discharged. The blood investigations were repeated:Bilirubin: Within normal limitsUrea: 21 mmol/lCreatinine: 300 µmol/lWhat is the likely cause of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for these results is delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity.The blood investigations of this patient are highly suggestive of acute kidney injury. Paracetamol overdose is well known to cause hepatotoxicity, but not for its delayed nephrotoxicity, especially in significant overdose. Appropriate monitoring of a patient’s blood tests is important.Management:NAC (N-Acetyl cysteine) has a clear role in preventing acetaminophen-induced liver necrosis. Although NAC has not been proven to be harmful to the kidney, its role in patients without hepatoxicity and only isolated renal dysfunction is uncertain.Other options:-There are no features in the history that are suggestive of dehydration and pre-renal AKI presenting in this manner in a 25-year-old would be very unusual.- Minimal change nephropathy typically presents with a nephrotic picture of kidney injury.- Berger’s more commonly presents with isolated haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - Regarding CSF: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding CSF:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disruption of arachnoid villi function results in a communicating hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      In normal adults CSF volume is around 125ml to 150ml. Turnover of the entire volume of cerebrospinal fluid is about 3 to 4 times a day. Composition of CSF is similar to that of plasma except that CSF is nearly protein-free compared with plasma and has different electrolyte levels. Blockage of the foramina causes an obstructive or non-communicating hydrocephalus. Communicating hydrocephalus or non-obstructive hydrocephalus is caused by impaired CSF reabsorption in the absence of any CSF flow obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - Where is Müllerian inhibiting substance (MIS) secreted? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is Müllerian inhibiting substance (MIS) secreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertoli cells

      Explanation:

      Müllerian inhibiting substance, also known as Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) or Müllerian-inhibiting hormone (MIH) is a glycoprotein hormone which prevents the development of the Müllerian ducts into the uterus. Its production by Sertoli cells continues during childhood in males and decreases after puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme ...

    Incorrect

    • Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenylate cyclase

      Explanation:

      Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by adenylate cyclase located on the inner side of the plasma membrane and anchored at various locations in the interior of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of his parotid gland. It is revealed that this has been ongoing for the past 10 years. Upon examination, the swelling is firm in consistency. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Explanation:

      A pleomorphic adenoma is also called a benign mixed tumour – this is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It also causes over a third of all submandibular tumours. This type of a tumour is slow-growing and has no symptoms, which means it has great malignant potentiality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true: ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      X linked disorders are more common in males as they only need one mutated copy of the X chromosome to manifest the disease with full severity while the females need two X chromosomes to manifest the disease, even with one defected X chromosome the severity is less than that seen in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - G cells release which of the following substances ...

    Incorrect

    • G cells release which of the following substances

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?...

    Incorrect

    • In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The liver is the organ which contains sinusoidal capillaries with discontinuous endothelium. The brain, lungs and the intestine all contain continuous capillaries, however the kidney contains fenestrated capillaries to aid in filtration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - Which of the following results in the resting membrane potential of a myocyte?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following results in the resting membrane potential of a myocyte?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activation of outward K+ channels

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 is caused by the sodium current. Voltage gated sodium channels open leading to the influx of sodium into the cardiac muscle cell. Phase 1 is the rapid transient repolarization phase which is caused by the inactivation of the voltage gated sodium channels and opening of the voltage gated potassium channels along with opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 2 which is the plateau is caused by opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 4 is caused by closing of the slow calcium channels and opening of the potassium channels leading to efflux of potassium leading to the establishment of the resting membrane potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage...

    Incorrect

    • During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epiphysial plate

      Explanation:

      The epiphysial plate, physis, or growth plate, is a hyaline cartilage plate located near the ends of long bones; it consists of growing tissue. It is found in children and teenagers; in adults, it is replaced by an epiphysial line or epiphysial closure. The epiphysial plate is divided into zones: zone of reserve, proliferation, maturation and hypertrophy, calcification, and ossification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation… ...

    Incorrect

    • In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces towards the centre

      Explanation:

      Cells located close to the portal triad or peripheral zone which consist of arterioles from the hepatic artery are the most oxygenated cells. Cells in the central zone are least oxygenated and mainly receive blood supply from the central vein which is a branch of the hepatic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A delta and C pain fibers

      Explanation:

      A delta and C fibers use glutamate as their primary neurotransmitter where it acts as a fast acting localized neurotransmitter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - Activation of nitric oxide synthesis by endothelial cells is triggered by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of nitric oxide synthesis by endothelial cells is triggered by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine, histamine, bradykinin, vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) and shear stress on the endothelial cells causing the release of NO. NO is formed from arginine and causes vasodilatation of the blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Influenza is a RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The Orthomyxoviruses are a family of RNA viruses that includes six genera: Influenza virus A, Influenza virus B, Influenza virus C, Isavirus, Thogotovirus and Quaranjavirus.The mechanism of the evolutionary force of antigenic shift allows influenza viruses to exchange genes with strains that infect different species. Under this mechanism, a human influenza virus could exchange genes with an avian strain, and that is how pandemic strains arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action...

    Incorrect

    • Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action potential produced by which of the following.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium flux

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the SA and AV nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - Which ion channel is a dimer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ion channel is a dimer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cl- channel

      Explanation:

      A dimer is a chemical structure formed from two similar sub-units. Chloride channels or exchangers are composed of two similar subunits—a dimer—each subunit containing one pore.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (60/67) 90%
Research Skills (1/2) 50%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Gastrointestinal (12/13) 92%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (11/14) 79%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Genetics (5/5) 100%
Endocrinology (5/5) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (3/3) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (6/6) 100%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (5/6) 83%
Metabolism (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed