The equation for calculating vaporiser output is:

Vaporiser output (VO) mL = Carrier gas flow (mL/minute) × SVP of agent (kPa)
Ambient pressure (kPa) − SVP of agent (kPa)

The saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane at 1 atm (100 kPa) and 20°C is 21 kPa.

VO = (100 mL × 21 kPa)/(100 kPa − 21kPa) for sevoflurane,
VO = 26.6 mL

26.6 mL of 100% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is being added to the fresh gas flow per minute.

2660 mL of 1% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is approximately 2.7 L/minute.

The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis

Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.

Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)

Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.

The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.

Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.

When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.

The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.

Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.

Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.

Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.

The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.

Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.

Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.

Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.

Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.

Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.

Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.

Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.

Prednisolone 5 mg is the same as 20 mg hydrocortisone.

Prednisolone 40 mg is the same as 8 x 20 mg or 160 mg of prednisolone.

Mineralocorticoid effects and variations in action duration are not taken into account in these comparisons.

5 mg of prednisolone is the same as Dexamethasone 750 mcg, Hydrocortisone 20 mg, Methylprednisolone 4 mg, and Cortisone acetate 25 mg.

Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.

Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.

Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.

Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.

Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.

Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).

Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.

Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.

The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.

Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
– Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
– Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
– Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
– Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min

The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:

1. To Increase the duration of block
2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).

The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).

The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A.

Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.

The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.

Thiopental is a new British Approved Name for thiopentone and is thio-barbiturate.
Methohexitone is an oxy- barbiturate. Both thiopental and methohexitone are intravenous induction agents.

Ketamine cannot cause loss of consciousness in less than 30 seconds. At least 30 seconds is needed to cause loss of consciousness following intravenous administration.

Etomidate is an imidazole but it is not used in the Intensive Care unit for sedation because it has an antidepressant effect on the steroid axis.

In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:

C = C0. e^-kt

Where:
C=drug concentration,
C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
k = rate constant and
t = time.

The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:

The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours.

Rifampicin is a derivative of a rifamycin (other derivatives are rifabutin and rifapentine). It is bactericidal against both dividing and non-dividing mycobacterium and acts by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Thus this drug inhibits RNA synthesis.

Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.

Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.

They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.

It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.

Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.

2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).

Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.

The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.

Caudal analgesia using bupivacaine is a widely employed technique for achieving both intraoperative and early postoperative pain relief. 0.5 ml/kg of 0.25% plain bupivacaine is favoured by many practitioners who employ this fixed scheme for procedures involving sacral dermatomes (circumcision, hypospadias repair) as well as lower thoracic dermatomes (orchidopexy). However, there are other dosing regimens for caudal blocks with variable analgesic success rates: These include 0.75 ml/kg, 1.0 ml/kg and 1.25 ml/kg.

A study indicated that plain bupivacaine 0.25% at a dose of 0.75 ml/kg compared to a dose of 0.5 ml/kg when administered for herniotomies provided improved quality of caudal analgesia with a low side effects profile. There were consistently more patients with favourable objective pain scale (OPS) scores at all timelines, increased the time to the analgesic request with similar postoperative consumption of paracetamol in the group of patients who received 0.75 ml/kg of 0.25% bupivacaine.

Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.

% solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml

% solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml

% solution ~ 10 mg/ml

Examples:

• • Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
  • Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
  • Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine

Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)

Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.

Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80–100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.

Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.

Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.

Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.

Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.