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  • Question 1 - Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dental crowding

      Correct Answer: Hypoplastic dental enamel

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate.The most severe of these clinical problems include aortic root dilatation and dissection, which have historically been the causative factors in early patient demise. Skeletal deformities such as thoracolumbar scoliosis, thoracic lordosis, and pectus excavatum, may lead to pulmonary difficulties that include restrictive airway disease and cor pulmonale if the deformities are progressive and untreated. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts.The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (i.e., abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (i.e., long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (i.e., pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. In the cardiovascular system, aortic dilatation, aortic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.Other features:General tall staturePectus excavatum or carinatumDisproportionately long, slender armsDisproportionately long digitsArachnodactylyFinger contracturesReduced extension of elbows (< 170 degrees)Protrusio acetabuli (intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum)Pes planus (flat feet)HypermobilityArthralgiaJoint instabilityScoliosisKyphosisDolichocephalia (elongated face)High arched palateDental crowdingDental malocclusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which among the following nerves carries the sensation from the tonsillar fossa?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is the primary sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The lesser palatine nerve makes a smaller contribution. Because of this, otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.Anatomical Rationale:Each palatine tonsil has two surfaces, a medial surface which projects into the pharynx and a lateral surface that is embedded in the wall of the pharynx.The primary arterial supply is from the tonsillar artery, a branch of the facial artery. Its veins pierce the constrictor muscle to join the external palatine or facial veins. The external palatine vein is immediately lateral to the tonsil, which may result in bleeding during a tonsillectomy.Lymphatic drainage is the jugulodigastric node and the deep cervical nodes.TonsillitisThe inflammation of tonsils is usually due to bacterial aetiology (50%) – group A Streptococcus, the remainder of the causes are viral.May be complicated by the development of an abscess (quinsy), which may distort the uvula.Indications for tonsillectomy include recurrent acute tonsillitis, and enlargement causing sleep apnoea.Dissection tonsillectomy is the preferred technique with haemorrhage being the most frequent complication. Delayed otalgia may occur owing to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Correct

    • Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2

      Explanation:

      Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E deficiency in premature infants has been described as being associated with low haemoglobin levels in the 2nd month of life, haemolytic anaemia associated with thrombocytosis. Recently, low vitamin E concentrations were suspected as being associated with sudden death in infancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old is admitted in the emergency department following a collapse. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old is admitted in the emergency department following a collapse. He has a known history of asthma and type 1 diabetes.His arterial blood gas analysis reveals:pH: 7.05pO2: 8 kPapCO2: 8 kPaBase excess: -12 mmol/LHCO3-: 15 mmol/LWhich of the following interpretations is correct?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

      Correct Answer: Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      In this case scenario, the pH is too low to be fully explained by a respiratory acidosis. Usually, if there is a metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system will try to compensate by hyperventilation and reduced pCO2. In this case, however, the pCO2 is raised suggesting the presence of a respiratory component.Therefore, this boy has mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis, most probably due to severe exacerbation of this asthma, which led to diabetic ketoacidosis.Note:Normal values:pH: 7.35 – 7.45pO2: 10 – 14 kPapCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPaBase excess (BE): -2 – 2 mmol/LHCO3: 22 – 26 mmol/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep'...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep' pain during intercourse and pain on defecation during this time. She states that her periods are regular with little bleeding.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavityAbout one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:- Dysmenorrhea- Heavy or irregular bleeding- Pelvic pain- Lower abdominal or back pain – Dyspareunia- Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation- Bloating, nausea, and vomiting- Inguinal pain- Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency- Pain during exercise- Patients with endometriosis do not frequently have any physical examination findings beyond tenderness related to the site of involvement. – The most common finding is nonspecific pelvic tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is true regarding pubic lice? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding pubic lice?

      Your Answer: Sharing bed linen and towels is the main route of transmission

      Correct Answer: Tiny dark-brown or black specks of lice excrement can be seen in the underwear

      Explanation:

      Pubic lice are commonly referred to as ‘crabs’ because of their short, broad body (about 1 mm), and large front claws. Pubic lice infestation is diagnosed by finding a “crab” louse or eggs on hair in the pubic region or, less commonly, elsewhere on the body (eyebrows, eyelashes, beard, moustache, armpit, perianal area, groin, trunk, scalp). Although pubic lice and nits can be large enough to be seen with the naked eye, a magnifying lens may be necessary to find lice or eggs.Pubic lice are transmitted from person to person most-commonly via sexual contact, although fomites (bedding, clothing) may play a minor role in their transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A lethargic 2-month child was brought in with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A lethargic 2-month child was brought in with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting for 6 days. What is the appropriate initial investigations?

      Your Answer: Random blood sugar

      Correct Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Explanation:

      The most commonly requested biochemistry tests for renal function are the urea and electrolytes. They supply important information when it comes to homeostasis and excretion. Glomerular filtration rate is also the essential standard marker of kidney health and is assessed by checking the creatinine levels. In this case as the child has lost fluids and electrolytes, this test will indicate the extent of the loss and allow for more appropriate replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly rash that is more profound on the extensor surfaces of his arms and legs. It is also found on his trunk. However, the flexor surfaces, face and neck are spared. It has been present for 4 months. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Ichthyosis vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Ichthyosis vulgaris presents clinically with xerosis, hyperkeratosis, excess scaling, keratosis pilaris, and palmar and plantar hyperlinearity. It most commonly affects the extensor surfaces of the limbs and spares flexor surfaces, the face, and the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?

      Your Answer: Behavioural changes

      Correct Answer: Sleep alarms

      Explanation:

      As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4...

    Correct

    • As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4 year old boy who is has been experiencing intermittent temperature spikes of 38.7C throughout the night. He underwent a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix four days ago, and has opened his bowels with diarrhoea. His chest is clear on examination.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his condition?

      Your Answer: Intra-abdominal collection

      Explanation:

      Perforated appendices are common in children as it is more difficult to surgically assess an unwell child due to poor localisation of abdominal pain, and their inability to express discomfort. They are therefore prone to a greater risk of post operative complications including would infections, intra abdominal fluid collections, and chest infections. In the above scenario the spiking temperature points to an abscess, which characteristically presents with a swinging temperature. The fever is unlikely due to bacterial resistance as blood tests performed post surgery would have indicated any resistance, and a UTI is also unlikely since the child is already on antibiotics. As his chest is clinically clear, a severe chest infection may be ruled out, leaving intra-abdominal collection as the most likely explanation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and...

    Correct

    • A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

      Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:- A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels- Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:- A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer: It may be caused by enterovirus infections

      Correct Answer: Herpes virus 1 and 2, Ebstein-Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Varicella Zoster virus are all species of Herpesviridae

      Explanation:

      Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is the name given to a distinct cutaneous eruption caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1, HSV-2, coxsackievirus A16, or vaccinia virus that infects a pre-existing dermatosis. Most commonly, it is caused by a disseminated HSV infection in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD) and, for this reason, is often referred to as eczema herpeticum (EH).Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is now known to occur in children of any age and in adults, however, most patients (56%) are aged 15-24 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome presents with oedema, low serum albumin and proteinuria. In which of the following circumstances is albumin infusion indicated?

      Your Answer: Serum albumin 10 g/l

      Correct Answer: Capillary refill time of 5 seconds

      Explanation:

      In nephrotic syndrome, one of the main pathological processes is the excretion of protein by the kidneys. The resultant signs including| low serum albumin, oedema and hypovolemia all occur as a result of fluid escaping into the extracellular space due to a low oncotic pressure. While an albumin infusion may help to increase oncotic pressure, its indications specifically include hypovolemia, which is assessed by a capillary refill time more than 5 seconds, an elevated haematocrit, or severe symptomatic oedema, such as scrotal oedema. Hypertension not an indication for an infusion, and most patients needing an albumin infusion have oliguria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared three months ago. They are symmetrically distributed and more profound on the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees. The papules are present on the trunk as well but are less remarkable. She doesn’t have it anywhere else on her body and seems to be in a good health. The itchiness results in the girl to often scratching and popping the fluid-filled blisters that are present. There is no family history of atopy or other skin conditions. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer: A moderately potent topical steroid should be used

      Correct Answer: Coeliac antibodies should be measured

      Explanation:

      This is the clinical picture of dermatitis herpetiformis associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. To establish the diagnosis, you should measure the coeliac antibodies. Darrier’s sign (where the skin urticates when it is stroked) is positive in urticaria pigmentosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She complains that the child is having episodes of non-bilious vomiting for the past 10 days. She observed that the episodes typically occur directly after feeding and notes that the volume brought up varies, but that her baby does seem to be very hungry and has not gained much weight. What is the most probable diagnosis for this infant?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (CHPS):Pyloric stenosis should be ruled out in any baby who presents with a long-term history of vomiting and failure to thrive. Infants typically present with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and are said to be hungry and wanting to feed despite poor weight gain. A blood gas would be helpful in this instance, although the diagnosis can be made more accurately by observing the stenosis during ultrasound. Many infants have symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease, although only a small minority are unable to gain weight adequately. A UTI in infants can present with non-specific symptoms, but they might have a fever and can show poor feeding. Malrotation will present with bilious vomiting.The definitive surgical management is the Ramsteadt’s pyloromyotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?

      Your Answer: L4

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a...

    Incorrect

    • A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Treat with intravenous antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      73.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective cardiac surgery. There is no respiratory distress, but cyanosis is present with oxygen saturations at 80s. There is a midline sternotomy scar. On auscultation there is a 4/6 ejection systolic murmur on the upper left sternal edge and a sternal heave is felt on palpation. Which of the following is the child most likely suffering from and what is the likely treatment?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot with Blalock Taussig shunt

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery band

      Explanation:

      The murmur and thrill indicate a right outflow tract murmur, coupled with the right ventricular heave suggests right ventricular hypertrophy. The VSD would not have been amenable to surgery due to the child’s size/weight and so instead would have been palliated with a PA band. As the child grows, this band progressively restricts pulmonary blood flow until the left to right shunt has reversed. Then it is time for the band to be removed and the VSD to be closed.Pulmonary atresia is a cyanotic condition, which may be palliated with an arterial duct stent. This answer is incorrect as the stent placement would not require a midline sternotomy and would give a continuous machinery type murmur. Pulmonary stenosis with PDA ligation is incorrect. The murmur, thrill, and heave all match a pulmonary stenosis but in the absence of an additional shunt lesion the child would not be cyanosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      72.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a consult with a dietician, a decision was made to supplement her nutrition through total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. Which of the following is a common complication associated with TPN?

      Your Answer: Line sepsis

      Correct Answer: Deranged liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) frequently causes derangement of liver function in children. Other options:- While line sepsis and thromboembolism are recognised complications of TPN, they do not occur frequently. – A child who is on TPN will require regular blood tests because of the potential for the development of electrolyte abnormalities. Need to observe their liver function, in order to provide TPN more accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Neonatology (0/2) 0%
Adolescent Health (1/2) 50%
Fluid And Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/3) 0%
Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (2/2) 100%
Nephro-urology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
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