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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic heart disease and heart failure. You decide to add a loop diuretic to her current drug regime to control the oedema. Which of the following is a contraindication to using a loop diuretic?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Anuria

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics are drugs used to manage and treat fluid overload associated with CHF, liver cirrhosis, and renal disease. The drugs commonly used are:

      • Furosemide
      • Bumetanide
      • Torsemide
      • Ethacrynic Acid

      Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-Cl pump in the ascending loop of Henle, resulting in salt-water excretion. This relieves congestion and reduces oedema.

      The contra-indications to the use of loop diuretics are:
      1. Anuria
      2. Comatose and precomatose states associated with liver cirrhosis
      3. Renal failure due to nephrotoxic or hepatotoxic drugs
      4. Severe hypokalaemia
      5. Severe hyponatremia
      6. History of hypersensitivity to furosemide, bumetanide, or torsemide (or sulphonamides)

      The following conditions or states are not contraindications, but loop diuretics needs to be used cautiously in these conditions:
      1. Diabetes (but hyperglycaemia less likely than with thiazides)
      2. Gout
      3. Hypotension (correct before initiation of treatment)
      4. Hypovolaemia (Correct before initiation of treatment)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure is complaining of worsening oedema, bloating, and a loss of appetite. She has ascites and peripheral oedema on examination. Her oedema is being controlled by an oral diuretic, but it appears that this is no longer enough. You discuss her care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who believes she is very likely to have significant gut oedema that is interfering with her diuretic absorption and that she will need to change her medication.

      Which of the following oral diuretics is most likely to help you overcome this problem?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Correct Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is primarily used in patients with heart failure who have failed to respond to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency. In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. As a result, when it has a better bioavailability than furosemide, it is commonly used in patients with gut oedema.

      When taken alone, Bendroflumethiazide is a moderately potent diuretic that is unlikely to control her oedema.

      Mannitol is a type of osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral oedema and high intracranial pressure.

      Acetazolamide is a weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase. It’s a rare occurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.

      Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Correct Answer: Nicardipine

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.

      Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.

      The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.
      An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 34-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with the complaint of palpitations...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with the complaint of palpitations and difficulty breathing, which started suddenly half an hour ago. His ECG shows findings of supraventricular tachycardia. You attempt vagal manoeuvres but cannot convert them back to sinus rhythm. Therefore, drug therapy is necessary to terminate the arrhythmia. Adenosine cannot be used in this patient because of a contra-indication listed in his medical record.

      Which one of the conditions listed below would be a contraindication in this case?

      Your Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a mixture of 50% Oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide and is given in an inhaled form as a quick form of analgesia. Entonox causes non-competitive inhibition of NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors, which are a subtype of the glutamate receptor.

      It is stored in blue and white cylinders and administered via a pressure regulator and demand valve. The administration of this medicine reduces pain and anxiety in paediatric and dental procedures ands during labour.

      Effects are apparent after 20 seconds, and peak action occurs after 3 to 5 minutes as it is a drug with a rapid onset and the patient will also recover rapidly from its effects. Entonox is widely used as it does not accumulate in the body and does not cause many side effects. However, a notable side effect is the inhibition of Vitamin B12 synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      84.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate...

    Correct

    • You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate an elderly gentleman who had collapsed at home. The team leader requests that you administer an adrenaline shot.

      Which of the following statements about adrenaline is FALSE?

      Your Answer: The IM dose in anaphylaxis is 1 ml of 1:1000

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a sympathomimetic amine that binds to alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors and acts as an agonist. It is active at both alpha and beta receptors in roughly equal amounts.

      When taken orally, it becomes inactive. Subcutaneous absorption is slower than intramuscular absorption. In cardiac arrest, it is well absorbed from the tracheal mucosa and can be given through an endotracheal tube.

      At the adrenergic synapse, catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) metabolise it primarily. The inactive products are then passed through the kidneys and excreted in the urine.

      In adult cardiac arrest, the IV dose is 1 mg, which is equal to 10 ml of 1:10000 or 1 ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, the IM dose is 0.5 ml of 1:1000. (500 mcg).

      In open-angle glaucoma, adrenaline causes mydriasis and lowers pressure.

      Adrenaline is used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the treatment of severe croup, and the emergency management of acute allergic and anaphylactic reactions (as a nebuliser solution).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You administer a dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), which rapidly resolved his symptoms. Unfortunately, he also develops an unpleasant side effect.
      Which of the following side effects is he most likely to have developed? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Nitrates are used in the treatment of angina pectoris and the prevention of myocardial ischaemia. Commonly used examples of nitrates are glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide dinitrate. Unwanted effects, however, are common and can limit therapy, particularly when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.
      The following are common or very common side effects of nitrates
      Arrhythmias
      Asthenia
      Cerebral ischaemia
      Dizziness
      Drowsiness
      Flushing
      Headache
      Hypotension
      Nausea and vomiting
      Diarrhoea, syncope and cyanosis can occur, but these are rare side effects. Dry eyes, bradycardia and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In the resus area of your Emergency Department, you are called to a...

    Correct

    • In the resus area of your Emergency Department, you are called to a VF cardiac arrest.

      During an adult VF arrest, which of the following points should be treated with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: After the 3 rd shock, once chest compressions have been resumed

      Explanation:

      In non-shockable (PEA/asystole) cardiac arrests, adrenaline should be given as soon as circulatory access is gained. The dose is 1 mg via IV or IO (10 mL of 1:10,000 or 1 mL of 1:1000).

      Once chest compressions have been resumed after the third shock in a shockable (Vf/pVT) cardiac arrest, adrenaline should be administered. The dosage is one milligram (10 mL of 1:10,000 or 1 mL of 1:1000)

      It should be given every 3-5 minutes after that (i.e. alternate loops) and without interrupting chest compressions.
      Systemic vasoconstriction is caused by the alpha-adrenergic effects of adrenaline, which raises coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures.

      Adrenaline’s beta-adrenergic effects are inotropic (increased myocardial contractility) and chronotropic (increased heart rate), and they can increase coronary and cerebral blood flow. However, concomitant increases in myocardial oxygen consumption and ectopic ventricular arrhythmias (especially in the absence of acidaemia), transient hypoxemia due to pulmonary arteriovenous shunting, impaired microcirculation, and increased post-cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction may offset these benefits.

      Although there is no evidence of long-term benefit from its use in cardiac arrest, the improved short-term survival reported in some studies justifies its use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old female is admitted under your care with the complaint of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female is admitted under your care with the complaint of shortness of breath and massive pedal oedema. There are fine crepitations up to the mid zones on both lung fields on chest auscultation. When questioned about her medication, she doesn't remember everything she takes but knows that there is a tablet to get rid of excess water.

      Out of the following medications, which one increases the osmolality of the filtrate in the glomerulus and the tubule, creating an osmotic effect?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Mannitol

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that stops the absorption of water throughout the tubule, thus increasing the osmolality of both glomerular and tubular fluid. It is used to:
      1. decrease intraocular pressure in glaucoma
      2. decrease intracerebral pressure
      3. oliguria.

      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na/K/2Cl transported in the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle.

      Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic which inhibits the Na/Cl transporter.

      Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone receptor antagonist.

      Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - One of your patients is undergoing resuscitation and is in septic shock. The...

    Incorrect

    • One of your patients is undergoing resuscitation and is in septic shock. The intensive care outreach team arrives to assess them and determines that a dobutamine infusion should be started.

      Which of the following receptors does dobutamine primarily affect?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 receptors

      Correct Answer: Beta-1 receptors

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.

      Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.

      A summary of the mechanism and effects of different inotropic agents is shown below:
      Inotrope
      Mechanism
      Effects
      Adrenaline (epinephrine)
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
      Mainly alpha-agonist;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses
      Vasoconstriction;
      Some increased cardiac output
      Dopamine
      Dopamine agonist at low doses;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Dobutamine
      Mainly beta-1 agonist
      Increased cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level...

    Correct

    • You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level is elevated. When you tell her about it, she tells you that her doctor recently ran some tests and discovered that she has impaired glucose tolerance.

      Which of the following medications has not been linked to a reduction in glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The following drugs have been linked to impaired glucose tolerance:
      Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide
      Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide
      Steroids, e.g. prednisolone
      Beta-blockers, e.g. atenolol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old woman complains of general malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She is perplexed...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of general malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She is perplexed and declares that everything 'looks yellow.' Her potassium level is 6.8 mmol/l, according to a blood test.

      Which of the drugs listed below is most likely to be the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, it can cause toxicity both during long-term therapy and after an overdose. Even when the serum digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range, it can happen.

      Acute digoxin toxicity usually manifests itself within 2-4 hours of an overdose, with serum levels peaking around 6 hours after ingestion and life-threatening cardiovascular complications following 8-12 hours.

      Chronic digoxin toxicity is most common in the elderly or those with impaired renal function, and it is often caused by a coexisting illness. The clinical signs and symptoms usually appear gradually over days to weeks.

      The following are characteristics of digoxin toxicity:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Diarrhoea
      Abdominal pain
      Confusion
      Tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias
      Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision)
      Hyperkalaemia (early sign of significant toxicity)

      Some precipitating factors are as follows:
      Elderly patients
      Renal failure
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Hypokalaemia
      Hypomagnesaemia
      Hypercalcaemia
      Hypernatraemia
      Acidosis
      Hypothyroidism
      Spironolactone
      Amiodarone
      Quinidine
      Verapamil
      Diltiazem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You have been called to review a patient and his management in the...

    Incorrect

    • You have been called to review a patient and his management in the resuscitation room. A very sick patient has been started on mannitol in his treatment protocol.

      Out of the following, what is NOT an FDA-recognized indication for the use of mannitol?

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Correct Answer: Congestive cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      Mannitol has four FDA approved uses clinically:
      1. Reduction of intracranial pressure and brain mass
      2. reduce intraocular pressure if this is not achievable by other means
      3. promote diuresis for acute renal failure to prevent or treat the oliguric phase before irreversible damage
      4. promote diuresis to promote the excretion of toxic substances, materials, and metabolites

      It can be used in rhabdomyolysis-induced renal failure, especially in crush injuries. Mannitol reduces osmotic swelling and oedema in the injured muscle cells and helps restore skeletal muscle function.

      It is a low molecular weight compound and can be freely filtered at the glomerulus and not reabsorbed. This way increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB).

      Mannitol causes an expansion of the extracellular fluid space, which may worsen congestive cardiac failure. Contraindications to the use of mannitol include:

      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath. He has had a heart transplant in the past. His electrocardiogram reveals supraventricular tachycardia.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate adenosine dose for him to receive as a first dose?

      Your Answer: Adenosine 12 mg IV

      Correct Answer: Adenosine 3 mg IV

      Explanation:

      A rapid IV bolus of adenosine is given, followed by a saline flush. The standard adult dose is 6 mg, followed by 12 mg if necessary, and then another 12 mg bolus every 1-2 minutes until an effect is seen.

      Patients who have had a heart transplant, on the other hand, are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is transported to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which indicates that he is in VT. An amiodarone infusion is set up.

      Which of the following statements about amiodarone side effects is correct?

      Your Answer: It commonly causes optic neuritis

      Correct Answer: It can cause jaundice

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a lot of potential toxic side effects, so it’s important to get a full clinical evaluation before starting treatment with it.

      The following are some of the most common amiodarone side effects:

      Arrhythmias
      Corneal microdeposits
      Hepatic disorders
      Hyperthyroidism
      Hypothyroidism
      Hepatic disorders and jaundice
      Nausea
      Peripheral neuropathy
      Respiratory disorders (including lung fibrosis)
      Sleep disturbance
      Skin reactions
      QT prolongation

      Amiodarone can cause optic neuritis, which is a very rare side effect. If this happens, the amiodarone should be stopped right away because it poses a risk of blindness.

      Most people who take amiodarone develop corneal microdeposits, which go away once the medication is stopped and rarely cause vision problems.

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before initiating treatment with Glyceryl nitrate, you examine the patient and find a murmur. The patient reveals that he has a heart valve disorder, and you immediately put a hold on the GTN order.

      Which of the following valve disorders is an absolute contraindication to the use of GTN?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Nitro-glycerine (NTG) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis), acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, hypertension
      2. Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) – chronic angina pectoris (treatment)
      3. Isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis)

      The nitrate drugs cause vasodilation via the action of nitric oxide.

      The contraindications to the use of nitrate are the following:
      1. Allergy to nitrates
      2. Concomitant use of phosphodiesterases (PDE) inhibitors such as tadalafil and sildenafil
      3. Right ventricular infarction
      4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      5. Cardiac tamponade
      6. Constrictive pericarditis
      7. Hypotensive conditions
      8. Hypovolaemia
      9. Marked anaemia
      10. Mitral stenosis
      11. Raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral haemorrhage or head trauma
      12. Toxic pulmonary oedema

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 47-year-old woman comes in with palpitations that have been bothering her for...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman comes in with palpitations that have been bothering her for the past four days. Her haemodynamics are normal, but her heart rate is currently 150 beats per minute. An ECG is performed, which reveals that she is experiencing atrial flutter. The patient is examined by a cardiology registrar, who recommends starting her on verapamil to control her ventricular rate while she waits for cardioversion.

      In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to the use of verapamil?

      Your Answer: Acute porphyria

      Explanation:

      In most cases of atrial flutter, ventricular rate control is used as a stopgap measure until sinus rhythm is restored. A beta-blocker (e.g. bisoprolol), diltiazem, or verapamil can be used to reduce the rate of contractions in the heart.
      Electrical cardioversion, pharmacological cardioversion, and catheter ablation can all be used to return the heart to a normal rhythm. Cardioversion should not be attempted until the patient has been fully anticoagulated for at least three weeks if the duration of atrial flutter is unknown or it has lasted longer than 48 hours. Emergency electrical cardioversion is the treatment of choice when there is a sudden onset of symptoms and haemodynamic compromise. For recurrent atrial flutter, catheter ablation is preferred.

      Verapamil is a calcium-channel blocker that is non-dihydropyridine phenylalkylamine and can be used to treat supraventricular arrhythmias. It’s a calcium channel blocker with a high negative inotropic effect that lowers cardiac output, slows the heart rate, and may impair atrioventricular conduction. At high doses, it can cause heart failure, exacerbate conduction disorders, and cause hypotension.

      Adults should take 240-480 mg of verapamil in 2-3 divided doses. 5-10 mg IV over 30 seconds is the corresponding intravenous (IV) dose. After an IV injection, the peak effect lasts 3-5 minutes, and the action lasts 10-20 minutes.

      Verapamil should not be taken with beta-blockers like atenolol or quinidine because the combination of their negatively inotropic and negatively chronotropic effects can result in severe hypotension, bradycardia, impaired atrioventricular conduction, heart failure (due to impaired cardiac contractility), and sinus arrest.
      The use of verapamil is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Acute porphyrias are a type of porphyria that occurs suddenly.
      Accessory conducting pathways are linked to atrial flutter or fibrillation (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White-syndrome)
      Bradycardia
      Shock caused by the heart
      Insufficiency of the heart (with reduced ejection fraction)
      Left ventricular function has been significantly harmed in the past (even if controlled by therapy)
      Hypotension (blood pressure less than 90 mmHg)
      AV block in the second and third degrees
      Sinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses become
      Sino-atrial occlusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      66.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with the complaint of fever and vomiting for the past two days. When her medical chart is reviewed, you see that she takes Warfarin for her arrhythmia.

      Which ONE of the following medications cannot be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Like other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, Ibuprofen cannot be given with Warfarin as it would increase the bleeding risk of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis.

      She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.

      Which of the following does heparin activate?

      Your Answer: Factor IX

      Correct Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III.

      Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.

      Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:
      1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths
      2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only

      Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.

      Heparin is used for:
      1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism
      2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation
      3. Treatment of fat embolism
      4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The...

    Correct

    • You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The rhythm strip is shown in the diagram below. Defibrillation has already been attempted three times on the patient. You intended to administer amiodarone, but your department has informed you that it is not available. In these circumstances, if amiodarone is not available, which of the following drugs is recommended by the ALS guidelines? Ventricular fibrillation

      Your Answer: Lidocaine

      Explanation:

      If amiodarone is unavailable in VF/pVT arrests, lidocaine at a dose of 1 mg/kg can be used instead, according to the latest ALS guidelines. If amiodarone has already been given, no lidocaine should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old female has been prescribed a medication in the first trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female has been prescribed a medication in the first trimester of pregnancy due to a life-threatening medical problem. After delivery, the foetus is found to have nasal hypoplasia, stippling of his bones and atrophy of bilateral optic discs along with growth retardation.

      Which ONE of the following drugs has this woman most likely received?

      Your Answer: Captopril

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is teratogenic and can cause a host of abnormalities in the growing foetus. These include hypoplasia of the nasal bridge, stippling of the epiphyses, multiple ophthalmic complications, growth retardation, pectus carinatum, atrial septal defect, ventriculomegaly and a patent ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The average BP reading on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring for a 59-year-old Caucasian...

    Correct

    • The average BP reading on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring for a 59-year-old Caucasian man is 152/96 mmHg (ABPM).

      The first-line drug treatment for this patient would be which of the following? Please only choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      An ambulatory blood pressure reading of >150/95 is classified as stage 2 hypertension, according to the NICE care pathway for hypertension, and the patient should be treated with an antihypertensive drug.

      A calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine, would be the most appropriate medication for a 59-year-old Caucasian man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old patient presents with a chronic digoxin overdose. She has vomited several...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient presents with a chronic digoxin overdose. She has vomited several times, is extremely tired, and her vision 'appears yellow,' according to her.

      Which of the following is a reason for this patient's use of Digifab?

      Your Answer: Coexistent renal failure

      Explanation:

      An antidote for digoxin overdose is digoxin-specific antibody (Digifab). It’s a lyophilized preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments that’s sterile, purified, and lyophilized. These fragments were extracted from the blood of healthy sheep that had been immunised with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA), a digoxin analogue that contains the functionally important cyclopentaperhydrophenanthrene:lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).

      Digifab has a higher affinity for digoxin than digoxin does for its sodium pump receptor, which is thought to be the site of its therapeutic and toxic effects. When given to a patient who is intoxicated, Digifab binds to digoxin molecules, lowering free digoxin levels and shifting the equilibrium away from binding to receptors, reducing cardio-toxic effects. The kidney and reticuloendothelial system then clear the Fab-digoxin complexes.

      The following summarises the indications for Digifab in acute and chronic digoxin toxicity:
      Acute digoxin toxicity
      Chronic digoxin toxicity
      Cardiac arrest
      Life-threatening arrhythmia
      Potassium level > 5 mmol/l
      >10 mg digoxin ingested (adult)
      >4 mg digoxin ingested (child)
      Digoxin level > 12 ng/ml
      Cardiac arrest
      Life-threatening arrhythmia
      Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
      Symptoms of digoxin toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw. An ECG is taken, and the lateral leads show extensive ST depression. His blood pressure is currently 190/123 mmHg, and as part of his treatment, you intend to begin drug therapy to lower it.

      Which of the following is the INITIAL drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      In the presence of cardiac ischaemia, hypertensive emergencies require immediate treatment to prevent myocardial infarction.

      Similarly, if myonecrosis occurs in the presence of an existing infarction, prompt treatment is required to prevent further myonecrosis. When thrombolysis is used as the primary reperfusion therapy for acute myocardial infarction, blood pressure control is especially important.

      An intravenous nitrate is the drug of choice in this situation (e.g. GTN). These have a dual purpose in that they can help patients with ischaemic chest pain manage their symptoms. Because lowering blood pressure with nitrates isn’t always enough to achieve optimal results, intravenous beta-blockers are frequently used as a supplement. For this, intravenous atenolol and metoprolol are commonly used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.

      At the moment, he is completely symptom-free. When it comes to this type of overdose, how long does it usually take for symptoms to appear?

      Your Answer: 3-6 hours

      Correct Answer: 1-2 hours

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      >10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem can cause serious toxicity (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules)

      In children, 1-2 tablets of verapamil or diltiazem (immediate or sustained-release)

      Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of ingestion with standard preparations. However, with slow-release preparations, significant toxicity may take 12-16 hours to manifest, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.

      The following are the main clinical features of calcium-channel blocker overdose:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Hypotension
      Bradycardia and first-degree heart block
      Myocardial ischaemia and stroke
      Renal failure
      Pulmonary oedema
      Hyperglycaemia

      The following are some of the most important bedside investigations to conduct:
      Blood glucose
      ECG
      Arterial blood gas
      Other investigations that can be helpful include
      Urea & electrolytes
      Chest X-ray (pulmonary oedema)
      Echocardiography

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started since he started her on amiodarone for atrial arrhythmia. The cardiologist recognised that she is experiencing a side effect of amiodarone.

      Which one of the following conditions will this woman NOT have?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Xanthopsia

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a class III potassium channel blocker used to treat multiple types of arrhythmias.

      Side effects include:
      1. pulmonary fibrosis
      2. blue discolouration of the skin
      3. phototoxicity
      4. corneal deposits
      5. hepatic necrosis
      6. thyroid dysfunction
      7. sleep disturbances
      8. peripheral neuropathy.

      Xanthopsia is a condition where the patient complains of seeing yellow lines and is seen in digoxin overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to...

    Incorrect

    • For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to begin taking warfarin. He also takes a number of other medications.

      Which of the following medications will prevent warfarin from working?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Many medications, including warfarin, require cytochrome P450 enzymes for their metabolism. When co-prescribing cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors with warfarin, it’s critical to be cautious.

      Inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibit the effects of warfarin, resulting in a lower INR. To remember the most commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, use the mnemonic PC BRASS:

      P– Phenytoin
      C– Carbamazepine
      B– Barbiturates
      R– Rifampicin
      A– Alcohol (chronic ingestion)
      S– Sulphonylureas
      S– Smoking

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. He takes several medications, including amiodarone.

      Which of the following is amiodarone mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Blocks Na + and K + channels and beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III anti-arrhythmic that works by blocking a variety of channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, as well as beta-adrenoreceptors. As a result, it slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential (slowing repolarisation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 62-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. You diagnose him with an acute coronary syndrome and prescribe enoxaparin as part of his treatment plan.

      Enoxaparin inactivates which of the following?

      Your Answer: Factor IX

      Correct Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that works in the same way as heparin by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin by forming a 1:1 complex with it. Factor Xa and a few other clotting proteases are also inhibited by the heparin-antithrombin III complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide...

    Incorrect

    • You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide to contact the intensive care outreach team because she appears to be in septic shock. They decide to start a dobutamine infusion as soon as they arrive.

      Which of the following statements about dobutamine is correct?

      Your Answer: It is a precursor of adrenaline

      Correct Answer: It may be infused via a peripheral line

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.

      Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.

      It is infused intravenously after being diluted to a volume of at least 50 ml in a suitable crystalloid solution. The dose is titrated to response and ranges from 0.5 to 40 g/kg/min. Extravasation-induced skin necrosis is uncommon, and dobutamine can be administered through a peripheral line.

      At doses below 10 g/kg/min, side effects are rare, but at higher doses, they can include:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension
      Headache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You examine a 72-year-old man who has recently begun bumetanide treatment for worsening...

    Correct

    • You examine a 72-year-old man who has recently begun bumetanide treatment for worsening heart failure.

      Which of these statements about bumetanide is correct?

      Your Answer: It has better intestinal absorption than furosemide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that is used to treat congestive heart failure. It is frequently used in patients who have failed to respond to high doses of furosemide.

      It has a potency of about 40 times that of furosemide, with a 1 mg dose being roughly equivalent to a 40 mg dose of furosemide.
      Seizures are not known to be triggered by bumetanide. In fact, it lowers the concentration of neuronal chloride, making GABA’s action more depolarizing, and it’s currently being tested as an antiepileptic in the neonatal period.

      It takes effect after 1 hour of oral administration, and diuresis takes 6 hours to complete.

      Bumetanide absorbs much better in the intestine than furosemide. Because it has a higher bioavailability than furosemide, it is commonly used in patients with gut oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the...

    Correct

    • After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the department with severe diarrhoea and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and takes an ACE inhibitor to treat it.

      Which of the following statements about angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors is correct?

      Your Answer: They have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors prevent angiotensin I from being converted to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II has a variety of effects:
      Sympathetic activity has increased.
      Vasoconstriction in the arteries
      Secretion of Vasopressin
      Secretion of aldosterone

      The increase in systemic blood pressure is caused by arteriolar vasoconstriction. Vasopressin stimulates water reabsorption in the kidneys as well as the thirst sensation. In the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts, aldosterone causes the reabsorption of sodium and water from the urine in exchange for potassium secretion. As a result, ACE inhibitors lower systemic blood pressure while also causing hyperkalaemia.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) are used in a variety of clinical settings, including heart failure. According to a meta-analysis, ACE inhibitors reduce death, MI, and overall admission in patients with heart failure by 28%.
      ACE inhibitors are also used in the following clinical settings:
      Hypertension
      Chronic kidney disease
      Diabetic nephropathy 
      Following a myocardial infarction

      In the presence of renal artery stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated because they can cause or exacerbate renal failure.
      The most common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough caused by increased bradykinin production. There is, however, no known link to fibrosis of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?

      Your Answer: Vasculitis

      Correct Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta...

    Correct

    • As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta blocker. He starts having nightmares and has trouble sleeping soon after starting the beta-blocker.

      Which of the beta blockers listed below is the most likely to be in his system?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The beta-adrenoceptors in the heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas, and liver are blocked by beta-adrenoceptor blocking drugs (beta blockers).

      Beta blockers come in a wide range of strengths, with the choice largely determined by the disease being treated and the patient’s unique circumstances. The intrinsic sympathomimetic activity, lipid solubility, duration of action, and cardioselectivity of beta blockers all differ.

      Some beta blockers are lipid (lipophilic) soluble, while others are water soluble (hydrophilic). Drugs that are more lipid-soluble are absorbed faster from the gut, undergo more first-pass metabolism, and are eliminated faster. They’re also more likely to get into the brain and cause central effects like insomnia and nightmares. Propranolol, pindolol, labetalol, and metoprolol are examples of lipid-soluble beta blockers. Beta blockers that are water-soluble are less likely to enter the brain and are more resistant to first-pass metabolism. They are excreted by the kidneys, and in renal impairment, dosage reduction is frequently required. Atenolol, nadolol, celiprolol, and sotalol are examples of water-soluble beta blockers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - An ambulance transports a 72-year-old woman to the Emergency Department. She is confused,...

    Incorrect

    • An ambulance transports a 72-year-old woman to the Emergency Department. She is confused, has been vomiting and having stomach pains. Digoxin is one of her medications.

      Which of the following claims about digoxin is correct?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia can predispose to digoxin toxicity

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic plasma levels are between 1.0-1.5 nmol/l

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat atrial fibrillation and flutter, as well as congestive heart failure. In cardiac myocytes, it works by inhibiting the membrane Na/K ATPase. Through Na/Ca exchange, this raises intracellular sodium concentration and indirectly increases intracellular calcium availability. Increased intracellular calcium levels have both a positive inotropic and negative chronotropic effect.

      Digoxin therapeutic plasma levels are typically between 1.0 and 1.5 nmol/l, though higher concentrations may be required, and the value varies between laboratories. At concentrations greater than 2 nmol/l, the risk of toxicity increases dramatically.

      In patients with normal renal function, digoxin has a long plasma half-life of 36 to 48 hours. This can take up to 5 days in patients with impaired renal function.

      Hypokalaemia, rather than hyperkalaemia, has been shown to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

      In the treatment of persistent and permanent atrial fibrillation, digoxin is no longer widely used. Beta-blockers, also known as rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, are now the first-line treatment for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The patient's hemodynamics are normal. You intended to prescribe amiodarone to him, but you can't because he has a contraindication.

      In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to using amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Fever

      Correct Answer: Sinus node disease

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias.

      The use of amiodarone is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Conduction disturbances that are severe (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sinus node disease is a condition that affects the lymph nodes in (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sensitivity to iodine
      Blockage of the Sino-atrial heart valve (except in cardiac arrest)
      Bradycardia in the sinuses (except in cardiac arrest)
      Thyroid disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology team recently discharged him. He underwent a procedure and was given several medications, including abciximab, during his stay. Which of the following statements about abciximab is correct?

      Your Answer: Major surgery within the past 6 months is a contra-indication to its use

      Correct Answer: It is a glycoprotein IIa/IIIb receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      It’s approved for use as a supplement to heparin and aspirin in high-risk patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention to prevent ischaemic complications. Only one dose of abciximab should be given (to avoid additional risk of thrombocytopenia).

      Before using, it is recommended that baseline prothrombin time, activated clotting time, activated partial thromboplastin time, platelet count, haemoglobin, and haematocrit be measured. 12 and 24 hours after starting treatment, haemoglobin and haematocrit should be measured again, as should platelet count 2-4 hours and 24 hours after starting treatment.
      When used for high-risk patients undergoing angioplasty, the EPIC trial(link is external)found that abciximab reduced the risk of death, myocardial infarction, repeat angioplasty, bypass surgery, and balloon pump insertion.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

      The following are some of the most common abciximab side effects:
      Manifestations of bleeding
      Bradycardia
      Back ache
      Pain in the chest
      Vomiting and nausea
      Pain at the puncture site
      Thrombocytopenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient....

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient. You consider giving him an atropine shot because he is severely bradycardic.

      Which of the following statements about the use of atropine is correct?

      Your Answer: It is recommended in the treatment of haemodynamically stable bradycardias

      Correct Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      The most common cause of asystole during cardiac arrest is primary myocardial pathology, not excessive vagal tone, and there is no evidence that atropine is helpful in the treatment of asystole or PEA. As a result, it is no longer included in the ALS algorithm’s non-shockable section. Atropine is most commonly used in the peri-arrest period. It is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Heart failure

      Atropine is also used for the following purposes:
      Topically as a cycloplegic and mydriatic to the eyes
      To cut down on secretions (e.g. in anaesthesia)
      Organophosphate poisoning is treated with
      Atropine’s side effects are dose-dependent and include:
      Mouth is parched
      Vomiting and nausea
      Vision is hazy
      Retention of urine
      Tachyarrhythmias
      It can also cause severe confusion and hallucinations in patients, especially the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 55-year-old male diabetic patient presents to the Emergency Room complaining of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male diabetic patient presents to the Emergency Room complaining of severe chest pain. His medical record shows that he had coronary angioplasty one week ago, during which he was administered abciximab.

      Which of the following haematological diseases has a similar mechanism of action to this drug?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Correct Answer: Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

      Explanation:

      Abciximab is glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that decreases aggregation of platelets by prevent their cross-linking. In Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia there are low levels of these same receptors leading to decreased bridging of platelets as fibrinogen cannot attach. There is increased bleeding time both in this disease and when there is use of abciximab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man develops hypothyroidism.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall...

    Incorrect

    • You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall all of his medications, but he does know that he takes a diuretic.

      The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is inhibited by which of the following diuretics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is a non-competitive, reversible inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase found in the cytosol of cells and on the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule. Bicarbonate and hydrogen ions are converted to carbonic acid by carbonic anhydrase, which then converts carbonic acid to carbon dioxide and water. As a result, acetazolamide reduces the availability of hydrogen ions, causing sodium and bicarbonate ions to accumulate in the renal tubule, resulting in diuresis.
      The mechanism of action of the various types of diuretics is summarised below:

      1) Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide, bumetanide
      Act on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporters in the ascending loop of Henlé to inhibit sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.

      2) Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
      Act on the Na.Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption.

      3) Osmotic diuretics, e.g. mannitol
      Increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect.

      4) Aldosterone antagonists, e.g. spironolactone
      Acts in the distal convoluted tubule as a competitive aldosterone antagonist resulting in inhibition of sodium reabsorption and increasing potassium reabsorption.

      5) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, e.g. acetazolamide
      Inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase preventing the conversion of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions into carbonic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (17/38) 45%
Pharmacology (17/38) 45%
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