00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Correct Answer: Muscular weakness

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome is characterised by hypertension which may cause poor vision or headaches. Occasionally there may be muscular weakness, muscle spasms, tingling sensations, or excessive urination. Complications include cardiovascular disease such as stroke, myocardial infarction, kidney failure, and abnormal heart rhythms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following groups are purines? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following groups are purines?

      Your Answer: Adenine, guanine, hypoxanthine

      Explanation:

      There are many naturally occurring purines. They include the nucleobases, adenine and guanine. Other notable purines are hypoxanthine, xanthine), theobromine, caffeine, uric acid and isoguanine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      70.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is: ...

    Correct

    • The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is:

      Your Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers: the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer. Purkinje cells play a fundamental role in controlling motor movement. They release a neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions thereby reducing transmission of impulses. These inhibitory functions enable purkinje cells to regulate and coordinate motor movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node? ...

    Correct

    • Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node?

      Your Answer: Left vagus

      Explanation:

      As the AV node develops from the left side of the embryo It is supplied by the left vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      144.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In the jugular venous pressure wave… ...

    Correct

    • In the jugular venous pressure wave…

      Your Answer: Consists of 3 peaks and 2 troughs

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections (peaks) and two downward deflections (troughs) have been described:The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      691.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which part of the ECG represents ventricular repolarisation? ...

    Correct

    • Which part of the ECG represents ventricular repolarisation?

      Your Answer: T wave

      Explanation:

      Ventricular repolarisation is denoted by the T wave.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is not innervated by the parasympathetic nerve supply? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not innervated by the parasympathetic nerve supply?

      Your Answer: Sphincter muscle of iris

      Correct Answer: Radial muscle of iris

      Explanation:

      The sphincter pupillae is supplied by the parasympathetic fibers from the Edinger Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor nerve. The dilator pupillae (radial muscle) is supplied by the postganglionic fibers of the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion. The parasympathetic nerve supply to the salivary glands originate in the parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerve (superior salivatory nucleus) and the glossopharyngeal nerve (inferior salivatory nucleus). The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate in the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve and descend into the thorax in the vagus nerve. The fibers terminate by synapsing with postganglionic neurons in the cardiac plexuses. Postganglionic fibers terminate on the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes and on the coronary arteries Parasympathetic supply to the stomach is via the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      414.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Choose the correct answer: The cerebrocerebellum… ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct answer: The cerebrocerebellum…

      Your Answer: Is located in the lateral zones of the hemispheres

      Correct Answer: All options are correct

      Explanation:

      Cerebrocerebellum is comprised of two lateral regions, the cerebellar hemispheres and communicates with the cerebral cortex. It is principally responsible for controlling coordination of movement. Three fiber bundles carry the input and output of the cerebellum. There are three cerebellar peduncles with different connections and functions. The three are mainly, superior, middle and inferior. The superior cerebellar peduncle is also known as the “Brachium conjunctivum”. It predominantly contains efferent fibers from the cerebellar nuclei, as well as some afferents from the spinocerebellar tract. The efferent pathways include cerebellorubral, dentatothalamic, and fastigioreticular fibers. These are tracts projecting from the deep cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus. The middle cerebellar peduncle connects to the pontine nucleus and the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts run through the superior cerebellar peduncle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      763.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current. ...

    Correct

    • The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current.

      Your Answer: K+

      Explanation:

      The hyperpolarization phase is a continuation of the repolarization phase but the membrane potential dips below the resting membrane potential. This results due to the fact that the K+ channels take a longer time to close than the Na+ channels. Hence efflux of the K+ will result in hyperpolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      1427.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by:

      Your Answer: Stimulation of b1-adrenergic receptors

      Correct Answer: Inhibiting the breakdown cAMP

      Explanation:

      Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the function of the BK channel on the vascular smooth muscle...

    Correct

    • What is the function of the BK channel on the vascular smooth muscle membrane?

      Your Answer: Massive K+ efflux, increasing membrane potential, and shutting off the voltage gated Ca2+ channel

      Explanation:

      BK channels, also known as large-conductance calcium-activated potassium channels, play a critical role in regulating vascular smooth muscle tone. When BK channels open, they allow a large efflux of potassium ions (K+) out of the cell. This efflux of K+ causes the membrane potential to become more negative (hyperpolarization), which in turn leads to the closure of voltage-gated calcium channels. The closure of these calcium channels reduces the influx of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the smooth muscle cells, resulting in decreased intracellular calcium levels and subsequent relaxation of the smooth muscle.

      Thus, BK channels promote smooth muscle relaxation by hyperpolarizing the membrane and reducing the activity of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      121.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the main reason for checking the urea and electrolytes prior to...

    Correct

    • What is the main reason for checking the urea and electrolytes prior to commencing a patient on amiodarone?

      Your Answer: To detect hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      All antiarrhythmic drugs have the potential to cause arrhythmias. Coexistent hypokalaemia significantly increases this risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      146.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes: ...

    Incorrect

    • The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breasts: stimulation of lobular and alveolar development

      Explanation:

      Progesterone is a sex hormone which affects mainly the reproductive system. In the breasts, it mediates the lobuloalveolar maturation to allow for milk production; this is done in conjunction with prolactin. It acts to maintain female reproductive and sex characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which vaso metabolite decreases coronary blood flow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vaso metabolite decreases coronary blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      Decreased O2, increased CO2, lactate, prostaglandins, adenine nucleotides, adenosine, H+, K+ and cyanide produce vasodilation and thus an increase in coronary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which is primarily responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3 in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which is primarily responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3 in the periphery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deiodinase 1

      Explanation:

      Type 1 iodothyronine deiodinase, also known simply as deiodinase 1, is an enzyme which can produce both triiodothyronine (active form) or inactivate metabolites from T4. It is responsible for almost 80% of the conversion of peripheral T4 to T3. Iodothyronine deiodinases are not to be confused with iodotyrosine deiodinases, which are also part of the deiodinase enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the average life span of platelets? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average life span of platelets?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 days

      Explanation:

      The average life span of circulating platelets is 8 to 9 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of opioid poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of opioid poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Opioid poisoning is classically associated with pinpoint pupils, reduced respiratory rate, bradycardia, drowsiness and coma. Hypothermia is a feature of barbiturate poisoning, while sweating and lacrimation are seen in cases of opiate withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal end of the left 3rd costal cartilage to the sternal end of the right 6th costal cartilage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular (coronary) groove

      Explanation:

      The AV groove corresponds to the right border of the heart. The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      P53 regulates the cell cycle. It regulates the progression from G1 to S phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The V wave in the jugular pulse is caused by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The V wave in the jugular pulse is caused by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial filling

      Explanation:

      The v wave reflects the passive increase in pressure and volume of the right atrium as it fills in late systole and early diastole.

      The jugular vein pulsations usually have two elevations and two troughs. The first elevation (a wave) corresponds to the slight rise in atrial pressure resulting from atrial contraction. The first descent (x descent) reflects a fall in atrial pressure that starts with atrial relaxation. The second elevation (v wave) corresponds to ventricular systole when blood is entering the right atrium from the vena cavae while the tricuspid valve is closed. Finally, the second descent (y descent) reflects falling right atrial pressure as the tricuspid valve opens and blood drains from the atrium into the ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which statement about the 2nd heart sound is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the 2nd heart sound is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves.

      Explanation:

      The second heart sound is produced due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. It is a high pitched dub sound.

      Normally the aortic closure sound (A2) occurs prior to the pulmonic closure sound (P2), and the interval between the two (splitting) widens on inspiration and narrows on expiration. With quiet respiration, A2 will normally precede P2 by 0.02 to 0.08 second (mean, 0.03 to 0.04 sec) with inspiration. In younger subjects inspiratory splitting averages 0.04 to 0.05 second during quiet respiration. With expiration, A2 and P2 may be superimposed and are rarely split as much as 0.04 second. If the second sound is split by greater than 0.04 second on expiration, it is usually abnormal. Therefore, the presence of audible splitting during expiration (i.e., the ability to hear two distinct sounds during expiration) is of greater significance at the bedside in identifying underlying cardiac pathology than is the absolute inspiratory increase in the A2–P2 interval.

      The respiratory variation of the second heart sound can be categorized as follows: (1) normal (physiologic) splitting; (2) persistent (audible expiratory) splitting, with normal respiratory variation; (3) persistent splitting without respiratory variation (fixed splitting); and (4) reversed (paradoxical) splitting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which structure forms the major part of the sternocostal surface of the heart?...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure forms the major part of the sternocostal surface of the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      The anterior (sternocostal) surface is formed mainly by the right ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Telomerase is active in the following cells except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomerase is active in the following cells except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Certain osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Some cells have the ability to reverse telomere shortening by expressing telomerase, an enzyme that extends the telomeres of chromosomes. Telomerase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, meaning an enzyme that can make DNA using RNA as a template.

      Telomerase is not usually active in most somatic cells (cells of the body), but it’s active in germ cells (the cells that make sperm and eggs) and some adult stem cells. These are cell types that need to undergo many divisions, or, in the case of germ cells, give rise to a new organism with its telomeric “clock” reset.
      Interestingly, many cancer cells have shortened telomeres, and telomerase is active in these cells. If telomerase could be inhibited by drugs as part of cancer therapy, their excess division (and thus, the growth of the cancerous tumor) could potentially be stopped.
       A subset of liver cells with high levels of telomerase renews the organ during normal cell turnover and after injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which is the primary lymphoid organ? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the primary lymphoid organ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thymus

      Explanation:

      Lymphoid organs consist of lymph nodes, the thymus, spleen and tonsils. The thymus is the primary lymphoid organ as it is the organ in which the T cells mature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secretion of tears from lacrimal glands, secretion of saliva from the sublingual and submandibular salivary glands.

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) has both sensory and motor components so it is a mixed nerve. It carries axons of:General somatic afferent – to skin and the posterior earGeneral visceral efferent – which innervate sublingual, submandibular and lacrimal glands and the mucosa of the nasal cavity.General visceral afferent – provide sensation to soft palate and parts of the nasal cavity.Special visceral efferent – innervate muscles of facial expression and stapedius, the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid musclesSpecial visceral afferent – provide taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via chorda tympani.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?...

    Incorrect

    • The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN 5 to 8

      Explanation:

      The pontine tegmentum also known as dorsal pons is located within the brain stem. Several cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pontine tegmentum. The nuclei of CN V, CN VI, CN VII and CNVIII are located in the pontine tegmentum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged. On review, she is making good progress but consideration is given to secondary prevention of further fractures. What is the most appropriate step in the prevention of further fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      In such a clinical scenario, NICE guidelines support initiating treatment with bisphosphonates without waiting for a DEXA scan.Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.Management:Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D repleteAlendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - During strenuous exercise the following arterial change can take place in a fit...

    Incorrect

    • During strenuous exercise the following arterial change can take place in a fit athlete:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No change takes place

      Explanation:

      The changes which occur in arterial pH, PO2 and PCO2 values during exercise are usually small. Arterial PO2 often rises slightly because of hyperventilation although it may eventually fall at high work rates. During vigorous exercise, when sufficient oxygen for flux through the Krebs cycle is not available, the increased reliance on glycolysis results in increased accumulation of lactic acid, which initially leads to an increase in PaCO2 . However, this is counteracted by the stimulation of ventilation and as a result PaCO2 is decreased. This provides some respiratory compensation for further lactic acid production and prevents a decline in blood pH, which remains nearly constant during moderate exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Medicine (8/12) 67%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular (6/7) 86%
Passmed