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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statistical measures does not indicate the spread of variability...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statistical measures does not indicate the spread of variability of data?

      Your Answer: Mean

      Explanation:

      The mean, mode, and median are all measures of central tendency.

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Disinhibition is most likely to occur as a result of dysfunction in which...

    Correct

    • Disinhibition is most likely to occur as a result of dysfunction in which of the following regions?

      Your Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric and behavioral disturbances in individuals with frontal lobe lesions show a pattern of lateralization. Lesions in the left hemisphere are more commonly linked to depression, especially if they affect the prefrontal cortex’s dorsolateral region. Conversely, lesions in the right hemisphere are linked to impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression.

      Cerebral Dysfunction: Lobe-Specific Features

      When the brain experiences dysfunction, it can manifest in various ways depending on the affected lobe. In the frontal lobe, dysfunction can lead to contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, lack of initiative, Broca’s aphasia, and agraphia (dominant). The temporal lobe dysfunction can result in Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant), homonymous upper quadrantanopia, and auditory agnosia (non-dominant). On the other hand, the non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can lead to anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia. Meanwhile, the dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lastly, occipital lobe dysfunction can lead to visual agnosia, visual illusions, and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A child is referred to a neurologist. On entering the neurologist's room, the...

    Correct

    • A child is referred to a neurologist. On entering the neurologist's room, the child is observed to have a broad-based gait. When introduced, the child's speech is noted to be abnormal. When the child attempts to shake the doctor's hand, a tremor is observed. Which area of the brain is likely to be dysfunctional?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar Dysfunction: Symptoms and Signs

      Cerebellar dysfunction is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. The symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction include ataxia, intention tremor, nystagmus, broad-based gait, slurred speech, dysdiadochokinesis, and dysmetria (lack of finger-nose coordination).

      Ataxia refers to the lack of coordination of voluntary movements, resulting in unsteady gait, difficulty with balance, and clumsiness. Intention tremor is a type of tremor that occurs during voluntary movements, such as reaching for an object. Nystagmus is an involuntary movement of the eyes, characterized by rapid, jerky movements.

      Broad-based gait refers to a wide stance while walking, which is often seen in individuals with cerebellar dysfunction. Slurred speech, also known as dysarthria, is a common symptom of cerebellar dysfunction, which affects the ability to articulate words clearly. Dysdiadochokinesis is the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as tapping the fingers on the palm of the hand.

      Dysmetria refers to the inability to accurately judge the distance and direction of movements, resulting in errors in reaching for objects of touching the nose with the finger. These symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction can be caused by a variety of conditions, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and alcoholism. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, physical therapy, and surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is considered a 'neurological soft sign' in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered a 'neurological soft sign' in children?

      Your Answer: Cognitive impairment

      Correct Answer: Impaired fist-edge-palm test

      Explanation:

      Subtle impairments of motor or sensory function that are not specific to a particular neurological condition and are referred to as neurological ‘soft’ signs. These signs are prevalent in individuals with schizophrenia and may serve as a potential endophenotype.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - At what point does Piaget's formal operational stage commence? ...

    Correct

    • At what point does Piaget's formal operational stage commence?

      Your Answer: Logical thinking and hypothesis testing

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You encounter a 30-year-old patient in the Emergency department who reports experiencing intense...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 30-year-old patient in the Emergency department who reports experiencing intense visual hallucinations while listening to music. How would you characterize this symptom?

      Your Answer: Écho de la pensée

      Correct Answer: Reflex hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations

      Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one sensory modality leads to hallucinations in another sensory modality. Autoscopy is the experience of seeing one’s own body projected into external space, typically in front of oneself. Extracampine hallucinations are those that occur outside of an individual’s sensory fields. Écho de la pensée refers to the experience of hearing voices that repeat one’s thoughts immediately after thinking them. Functional hallucinations occur when an external stimulus triggers hallucinations that are experienced simultaneously and in the same modality as the initial stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - After receiving a negative evaluation from his supervisor, John spends the entire evening...

    Correct

    • After receiving a negative evaluation from his supervisor, John spends the entire evening playing basketball with his buddy. What would be the most appropriate way to describe this behavior?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      In the given example, Mark is using sublimation as a defence mechanism to express his internal impulses in a socially acceptable way. It is not an example of aggression. Similarly, playing tennis cannot be considered as constructive gratifying service to others, which is a characteristic of altruism. Instead, it is an example of displacement, where Mark is transferring his emotional response to a situation that carries less emotional risk. Mark is externalizing his feelings through sublimation, rather than turning them into self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following statements would be correct concerning phobias in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements would be correct concerning phobias in a 3-year-old girl?

      Your Answer: A 3-year-old girl will be scared of loud noises

      Correct Answer: A 3-year-old girl will be scared of monsters

      Explanation:

      The types of fear that arise during childhood and adolescence vary depending on the age of the individual. Fear of new things, like strangers, is common at 6 months and peaks at 2 years old. Fear of heights typically starts at 6 to 8 months and intensifies when the child begins to walk. From 3 to 5 years old, children often fear animals, the dark, and monsters. Between 6 and 11 years old, fear of embarrassing social situations, such as being made fun of, may develop. During adolescence, fear of death, failure, social events like parties, and even nuclear war may become more prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which condition is linked to tardive dyskinesia? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is linked to tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer: Hyperkinetic dysarthria

      Explanation:

      Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.

      Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.

      Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.

      Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.

      Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which statement accurately describes the placebo effect? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the placebo effect?

      Your Answer: Placebo response tends to be greater in milder forms of illness

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.

      Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.

      The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.

      It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?...

    Incorrect

    • How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?

      Your Answer: Need for others to assume responsibility for major areas of their life

      Correct Answer: Transient, psychotic-like features

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that the question is asking for the option that is the most suggestive of a diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern in the ICD-11. The correct answer is ‘transient, psychotic-like features’ as this is a qualifying element of the diagnosis. While the other options may also be present in individuals with this condition, they are not defining features.

      Personality Disorder (Borderline)

      History and Terminology

      The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.

      Features

      The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.

      Abuse

      Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.

      comorbidity

      Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.

      Psychological Therapy

      Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.

      NICE Guidelines

      The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 70 year old woman with post-stroke cognitive deficits is referred for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old woman with post-stroke cognitive deficits is referred for an assessment of intelligence. Which test would give the best indication of her intelligence as it was before she had a stroke?

      Your Answer: Mini Mental State Examination

      Correct Answer: The National Adult Reading Test

      Explanation:

      The National Adult Reading Test as a Valid Measure of Premorbid Intelligence

      The National Adult Reading Test (NART) is a reliable and valid assessment tool for measuring premorbid intelligence. It comprises 50 words with irregular spellings, and the test-taker must correctly pronounce each word to receive a point. The NART is a useful tool for assessing cognitive function in individuals with neurological disorders of brain injuries, as it provides a baseline measure of their intellectual abilities before the onset of their condition. The NART is a widely used and respected measure of premorbid intelligence, and its results can inform clinical decision-making and treatment planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which route of administration is known to have the highest degree of first...

    Correct

    • Which route of administration is known to have the highest degree of first pass effect?

      Your Answer: Oral

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What has research shown about the provision of services for individuals with eating...

    Incorrect

    • What has research shown about the provision of services for individuals with eating disorders?

      Your Answer: Most patients will need an admission to a specialist in-patient unit

      Correct Answer: Outpatient services are more cost effective compared to in-patient care

      Explanation:

      Research has consistently shown that out-patient services, whether they are general of specialized eating disorder clinics, are more likely to be cost-effective than in-patient care. The majority of patients with eating disorders can be effectively managed in out-patient clinics, with only a small percentage requiring in-patient care. When comparing outpatient treatment models, including general child and adolescent mental health services, with in-patient treatment, there were significant improvements in all groups at different points during follow-up, with no significant differences between the two types of treatment. The availability of out-patient care is associated with a lower rate of admission to inpatient units. Clinically and economically, lengthy in-patient stays are not recommended, as they are associated with worse outcomes, particularly when they disrupt the patient’s life, such as their work, studies, of time away from family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is a true statement about pregabalin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about pregabalin?

      Your Answer: It is extensively metabolised by the liver

      Correct Answer: It has a high bioavailability

      Explanation:

      Pregabalin: Pharmacokinetics and Mechanism of Action

      Pregabalin is a medication that acts on the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system. It is known for its anticonvulsant, analgesic, and anxiolytic properties. By decreasing presynaptic calcium currents, it reduces the release of excitatory neurotransmitters that contribute to anxiety. Despite being a GABA analogue, it does not affect GABA receptors of metabolism.

      Pregabalin has predictable and linear pharmacokinetics, making it easy to use in clinical practice. It is rapidly absorbed and proportional to dose, with a time to maximal plasma concentration of approximately 1 hour. Steady state is achieved within 24-48 hours, and efficacy can be observed as early as day two in clinical trials. It has a high bioavailability and a mean elimination half-life of 6.3 hours.

      Unlike many medications, pregabalin is not subject to hepatic metabolism and does not induce of inhibit liver enzymes such as the cytochrome P450 system. It is excreted unchanged by the kidneys and does not bind to plasma proteins. This means that it is unlikely to cause of be affected by pharmacokinetic drug-drug interactions.

      While there is some potential for abuse of pregabalin, the euphoric effects disappear with prolonged use. Overall, pregabalin is a safe and effective medication for the treatment of various conditions, including anxiety and neuropathic pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes? ...

    Incorrect

    • QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The doctor asks the patient the following question:
    Sometimes when kids feel really sad,...

    Incorrect

    • The doctor asks the patient the following question:
      Sometimes when kids feel really sad, they might have thoughts of hurting themselves. Have you ever had thoughts like that?
      What technique is he using?

      Your Answer: Confrontation

      Correct Answer: Validation

      Explanation:

      To encourage patients to express themselves freely, doctors use various techniques such as validation, confrontation, clarification, facilitation, and open-ended questions. Validation involves making patients feel more comfortable by normalizing their thoughts, feelings, of behaviors. Confrontation involves pointing out something that the patient may be missing of denying. Clarification is used to clarify something that the patient has said. Facilitation involves using verbal and non-verbal cues to encourage patients to continue sharing. Open-ended questions are used to prompt patients to respond in their own words, rather than with a simple yes or no answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A pediatrician wants to assess the pain levels in his young patients with...

    Correct

    • A pediatrician wants to assess the pain levels in his young patients with sickle cell disease. He is uncertain if the children are able to rate their pain accurately and prefers a scale that can be rated by either him of the caregiver. What rating scale would be most suitable for his purposes?

      Your Answer: Rating of medication influences (ROMI)

      Explanation:

      Several scales are available to measure medication adherence attitudes and behaviors in psychiatric patients, particularly those with schizophrenia. The Rating of Medication Influences (ROMI) scale has 20 interviewer-rated items with good inter-rater reliability. The ASK-20 Adherence Barrier Survey measures barriers to adherence with 20 clinical items. The Brief Evaluation of Medication Influences and Beliefs (BEMIB) scale is an eight-item Likert-type scale that measures costs and benefits of medication use based on the health belief model. The Drug Attitude Inventory is a 30-item self-report scale that evaluates subjective effects of antipsychotic drugs among patients with schizophrenia. The Medication Adherence Rating Scale (MARS) is a 10-item self-report scale derived from the Drug Attitude Inventory and Medication Adherence Questionnaire, and is used in patients with schizophrenia and psychosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is a frequently observed negative outcome of taking rivastigmine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a frequently observed negative outcome of taking rivastigmine?

      Your Answer: Dizziness

      Explanation:

      Rivastigmine often causes dizziness, while the other listed side effects are less frequently reported.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old female complains of memory decline over the past year. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female complains of memory decline over the past year. She has no other medical issues and is not on any medications.
      What is the most common symptom of dysfunction in the frontal lobe?

      Your Answer: Inability to perform serial 7s

      Correct Answer: Inability to generate a list rapidly

      Explanation:

      A visual field defect can be caused by pathology in the occipital, temporal, of parietal lobes. Homonymous hemianopia is associated with occipital lobe dysfunction, superior quadrantanopia with temporal lobe dysfunction, and inferior quadrantanopia with parietal lobe dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cognitive Assessment
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of these is not a part of MELAS syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these is not a part of MELAS syndrome?

      Your Answer: Asystole

      Explanation:

      Non-Mendelian inheritance patterns include mitochondrial inheritance, trinucleotide expansion, mosaicism, and genomic imprinting. These patterns do not follow the typical Mendelian principles. Examples of non-Mendelian mitochondrial inheritance include Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and MELAS syndrome, which is characterized by mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and recurrent stroke.

      On the other hand, Mendelian genetic inheritance patterns include autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and sex-linked disorders such as X-linked dominant and X-linked recessive.

      Mitochondrial DNA abnormalities can lead to various diseases, including MELAS syndrome. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited solely from the mother’s ovum, and the embryo’s mitochondria are entirely maternally derived. Most mitochondrial diseases manifest as myopathies and neuropathies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is a characteristic of drugs that are eliminated through zero order kinetics?...

    Correct

    • What is a characteristic of drugs that are eliminated through zero order kinetics?

      Your Answer: Zero order reactions follow non-linear pharmacokinetics

      Explanation:

      As the concentration decreases, the half-life of a zero order reaction becomes shorter. This is because zero order kinetics involve constant elimination, meaning that the rate of elimination does not change with increasing concentration. Therefore, as the concentration decreases, there is less drug available to be eliminated at a constant rate, resulting in a shorter half-life.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which theory was significantly influenced by Harlow's experiment with rhesus monkeys? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which theory was significantly influenced by Harlow's experiment with rhesus monkeys?

      Your Answer: Theory of moral development

      Correct Answer: Attachment theory

      Explanation:

      Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys

      Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.

      Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.

      Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which area of the brain is most likely to be damaged in order...

    Incorrect

    • Which area of the brain is most likely to be damaged in order to result in prosopagnosia?

      Your Answer: Cingulate gyrus

      Correct Answer: Fusiform gyrus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prosopagnosia: The Inability to Recognize Faces

      Prosopagnosia, also known as face blindness, is a condition where individuals are unable to recognize faces. This complex process involves various areas of the brain, with the fusiform gyrus in the temporal lobe being the most significant. The inability to recognize faces can be caused by damage to this area of the brain of can be a result of a developmental disorder.

      The condition can be challenging for individuals as it can affect their ability to recognize familiar faces, including family members and friends. It can also impact their social interactions and make it difficult to navigate social situations. While there is no cure for prosopagnosia, individuals can learn to use other cues such as voice, clothing, and context to recognize people.

      Understanding prosopagnosia is crucial in providing support and accommodations for individuals who experience this condition. It is essential to raise awareness and promote research to develop effective interventions to help individuals with face blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What individual proposed a differentiation between fundamental and supplementary symptoms in schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What individual proposed a differentiation between fundamental and supplementary symptoms in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Meehl

      Correct Answer: Bleuler

      Explanation:

      Historical Classification of Schizophrenia

      The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.

      In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’

      Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.

      In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 26 - A 40 year old female is admitted to the ward with a diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old female is admitted to the ward with a diagnosis of depression. On admission the doctor notes skin changes consistent with erythema nodosum and also notes that the patient complains of being short of breath. Unfortunately the lady commits suicide shortly after admission. A post-mortem biopsy reveals Asteroid bodies. Which of the following diagnosis would you most suspect?:

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Pathology Findings in Psychiatry

      There are several pathology findings that are associated with various psychiatric conditions. Papp-Lantos bodies, for example, are visible in the CNS and are associated with multisystem atrophy. Pick bodies, on the other hand, are large, dark-staining aggregates of proteins in neurological tissue and are associated with frontotemporal dementia.

      Lewy bodies are another common pathology finding in psychiatry and are associated with Parkinson’s disease and Lewy Body dementia. These are round, concentrically laminated, pale eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are aggregates of alpha-synuclein.

      Other pathology findings include asteroid bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are acidophilic, stellate inclusions in giant cells. Barr bodies are associated with stains of X chromosomes and are inactivated X chromosomes that appear as a dark staining mass in contact with the nuclear membrane.

      Mallory bodies are another common pathology finding and are associated with alcoholic hepatitis, alcoholic cirrhosis, Wilson’s disease, and primary-biliary cirrhosis. These are eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions in hepatocytes that are made up of intermediate filaments, predominantly prekeratin.

      Other pathology findings include Schaumann bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are concentrically laminated inclusions in giant cells. Zebra bodies are associated with Niemann-Pick disease, Tay-Sachs disease, of any of the mucopolysaccharidoses and are palisaded lamellated membranous cytoplasmic bodies seen in macrophages.

      LE bodies, also known as hematoxylin bodies, are associated with SLE (lupus) and are nuclei of damaged cells with bound anti-nuclear antibodies that become homogeneous and loose chromatin pattern. Verocay bodies are associated with Schwannoma (Neurilemoma) and are palisades of nuclei at the end of a fibrillar bundle.

      Hirano bodies are associated with normal aging but are more numerous in Alzheimer’s disease. These are eosinophilic, football-shaped inclusions seen in neurons of the brain. Neurofibrillary tangles are another common pathology finding in Alzheimer’s disease and are made up of microtubule-associated proteins and neurofilaments.

      Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with Wilson’s disease and are rings of discoloration on the cornea. Finally, Kuru plaques are associated with Kuru and Gerstmann-Sträussler syndrome and are sometimes present in patients with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). These are composed partly of a host-encoded prion protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 27 - What statement accurately describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs model? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs model?

      Your Answer: B needs are also known as Basic needs

      Correct Answer: B needs can only be met once D needs are satisfied

      Explanation:

      Maslow differentiated between two types of needs: deficiency needs (D-needs) and being needs (B-needs). While B-needs enable us to achieve our highest potential, they can only be met once the D-needs have been fulfilled. The lower four levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs correspond to D-needs.

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 28 - What is the defining feature of arched posturing of the head, trunk, and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the defining feature of arched posturing of the head, trunk, and extremities?

      Your Answer: Torticollis

      Correct Answer: Opisthotonus

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 29 - In which mode of inheritance do typically both parents carry a heterozygous unaffected...

    Correct

    • In which mode of inheritance do typically both parents carry a heterozygous unaffected genotype?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns:

      Autosomal Dominant Conditions:
      – Can be transmitted from one generation to the next (vertical transmission) through all forms of transmission observed (male to male, male to female, female to female).
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Usually, one parent is an affected heterozygote and the other is an unaffected homozygote.
      – If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance that a child will inherit the mutated gene.

      Autosomal Recessive Conditions:
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Two copies of the gene must be mutated for a person to be affected.
      – Both parents are usually unaffected heterozygotes.
      – Two unaffected people who each carry one copy of the mutated gene have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having a child affected by the disorder.

      X-linked Dominant Conditions:
      – Males and females are both affected, with males typically being more severely affected than females.
      – The sons of a man with an X-linked dominant disorder will all be unaffected.
      – A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder has a 50% chance of having an affected fetus.

      X-linked Recessive Conditions:
      – Males are more frequently affected than females.
      – Transmitted through carrier females to their sons (knights move pattern).
      – Affected males cannot pass the condition onto their sons.
      – A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder has a 50% chance of having sons who are affected and a 50% chance of having daughters who are carriers.

      Y-linked Conditions:
      – Every son of an affected father will be affected.
      – Female offspring of affected fathers are never affected.

      Mitochondrial Inheritance:
      – Mitochondria are inherited only in the maternal ova and not in sperm.
      – Males and females are affected, but always being maternally inherited.
      – An affected male does not pass on his mitochondria to his children, so all his children will be unaffected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 30 - What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD?

      Your Answer: Inhibiting dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      41.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (1/1) 100%
Neurosciences (4/5) 80%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Psychological Development (1/3) 33%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Basic Psychological Processes (1/1) 100%
Classification And Assessment (1/3) 33%
General Adult Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Psychopharmacology (4/7) 57%
Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services (0/1) 0%
History And Mental State (0/1) 0%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/1) 100%
Cognitive Assessment (0/1) 0%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Social Psychology (0/1) 0%
Passmed