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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty?

      Your Answer: It is treated with somatostatin analogues

      Correct Answer: It is treated with LHRH agonists

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty refers to the appearance of physical and hormonal signs of pubertal development at an earlier age than is considered normal.Most patients, particularly girls suspected of having central precocious puberty, are otherwise healthy children whose pubertal maturation begins at the early end of the normal distribution curveIn a series of more than 200 patients evaluated at a single medical centre, central precocious puberty occurred 5 times more often in girls than boys.GnRH-dependent precocious puberty is treated with GnRH agonists or Luteinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone (LHRH). Follow up every 4-6 months to ensure that progression of puberty has been arrestedFavourable signs include normalization of accelerated growth, reduction (or at least no increase) in size of breasts, and suppression of gonadotropin levels after a challenge of GnRHThe ideal testing frequency has not been established. Monitor bone age yearly to confirm that the rapid advancement seen in the untreated state has slowed, typically to a half year of bone age per year or less

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 6 month old baby can squeeze an object against his palm, can...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old baby can squeeze an object against his palm, can vocalize and can sit with support. But he cannot hold objects between his index finger and the thumb. He cannot sit without support and he doesn't have stranger fear. Which of the following is correct regarding his development?

      Your Answer: Normal development

      Explanation:

      Children are able to use a palmar grasp by the age of 6 months and use a pincer grasp by the age of 9 to 10 months. They can sit with support by 6 months and sit without support by 7 to 9 months. They can vocalize by 3 months. Stranger fear appears from 7 to 10 months. So this baby’s development is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. This infection is most likely caused by which of the following organism?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus ducreyi

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?

      Your Answer: Adrenocorticotropic hormone

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following are not a recognized feature of Down's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are not a recognized feature of Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Ataxic gait

      Explanation:

      Ataxic gait is not a direct association of Down’s syndrome. All other given responses are associated with Down’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following features suggest lichen sclerosus is more likely than lichen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features suggest lichen sclerosus is more likely than lichen planus?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune aetiology

      Correct Answer: Presence of epidermal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosus is a common chronic skin disorder that most often affects genital and perianal areas. LS typically presents with vulval itching and clinical findings of pallor, epidermal atrophy (cigarette paper wrinkling), purpura, and/or erosions.Lichen sclerosus (LS) and lichen planus (LP) are both immunologically mediated diseases with a preference for the genitalia. The main difference between the two conditions is that LP has a propensity to involve the mucous membranes including the mouth and vagina which are rarely affected in LS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 9-year-old boy is hit by a car at a speed of 40...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is hit by a car at a speed of 40 mph. He sustained a head injury and was intubated at the scene due to reduced GCS. In the emergency department, he is stable with no chest abnormalities on examination. Some bruising was noted in the lower abdomen. Which of the following would be the most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child?

      Your Answer: CT Head and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR and X-ray C-spine

      Correct Answer: CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child would be CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis and chest X-ray (CXR).The C-spine cannot be cleared, this alongside a multi-trauma presentation means a CT C-spine is indicated rather than X-rays alone. The imaging modality for blunt trauma to the chest is CXR| if this shows significant thoracic trauma, a CT chest should be considered. Other options:- CT Head and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR and X-ray C-spine: This child is at risk of C-Spine injury following the mechanism of trauma. He had a reduced GCS, has undergone a multi-region trauma and is now intubated. NICE head injury guidelines, therefore, recommend using CT.- CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis X-rays: Imaging of the chest is required following blunt trauma and for endotracheal tube position.- MRI Head: If there were concerns of abnormal neurology, then spinal MRI could be considered.- Whole-body CT: It is not recommended in children in view of the high radiation doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 8-year-old girl presented to the outpatient clinic with fever, pain and discharge...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presented to the outpatient clinic with fever, pain and discharge from her left ear. Which of the following antibiotics should be used first?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin has high efficacy against haemophilus influenza and streptococcus pneumonia, the most common organisms of otitis media. It is an oral drug with high bioavailability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15 year old girl is taken to the A&E after complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl is taken to the A&E after complaining of right iliac fossa pain which started suddenly. She is well other than having some right iliac fossa tenderness but no guarding. She has no fever and the urinary dipstick result is normal. Her last menstrual cycle was 14 days ago which was also normal and the pregnancy test done is negative. What is the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Explanation:

      Mittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered. Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old male was brought to the OPD with complaints of weight loss...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old male was brought to the OPD with complaints of weight loss and fatigue for the last few months. On examination he was pale and had hepatosplenomegaly. A full blood count was ordered and it revealed immature white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The age of the patient and the presence of immature white blood cells are suggestive of leukaemia. Hodgkin’s disease is unlikely in this age group and it usually presents with lymphadenopathy. In HIV, immature white blood cells are not present in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A mother gives birth to a baby at 28 weeks of gestation. He...

    Incorrect

    • A mother gives birth to a baby at 28 weeks of gestation. He weights 1000g. What of the following is true?

      Your Answer: He should have visual acuity testing at 6 weeks of age

      Correct Answer: Visual screening is not useful if carried out at this gestational age

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) affects premature infants. It is a retinal vasoproliferative disease for which current screening guidelines are primarily based on birth weight and gestational age. The disease is first detected by screening at 32-38 weeks of gestation or in infants that are about 6-7 weeks old. Screening consists of dilation of the pupils and observing for dilated vessel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10...

    Correct

    • A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10 hour history of pelvic pain. Her last normal menstrual cycle was 14 days ago and she is otherwise well. Her abdomen was soft with mild suprapubic pain on examination. What is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Explanation:

      Answer: MittelschmerzMittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered. Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following conditions does not manifest as an autosomal-recessive inheritance? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions does not manifest as an autosomal-recessive inheritance?

      Your Answer: Edward syndrome

      Explanation:

      Most cases of Trisomy 18, also called Edwards syndrome, are not inherited but occur as random events during the formation of eggs and sperm. An error in cell division called nondisjunction results in a reproductive cell with an abnormal number of chromosomes. For example, an egg or sperm cell may gain an extra copy of chromosome 18. If one of these atypical reproductive cells contributes to the genetic makeup of a child, the child will have an extra chromosome 18 in each of the body’s cells.Mosaic trisomy 18 is also not inherited. It occurs as a random event during cell division early in embryonic development. As a result, some of the body’s cells have the usual two copies of chromosome 18, and other cells have three copies of this chromosome.Partial trisomy 18 can be inherited. An unaffected person can carry a rearrangement of genetic material between chromosome 18 and another chromosome. This rearrangement is called a balanced translocation because there is no extra material from chromosome 18. Although they do not have signs of trisomy 18, people who carry this type of balanced translocation are at an increased risk of having children with the condition.Canavan disease is a type of leukodystrophy and a degenerative disorder that causes progressive damage to nerve cells in the brain. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.Cystic Fibrosis is the most common lethal recessive disease of white people, with a carrier frequency of 1:25 and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.Galactosaemic is autosomal recessive and due to mutations in the GALT gene.Phenylketonuria is the most common inborn error of metabolism in the UK with an incidence of 1:10,000 and a carrier rate of 1:50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory...

    Correct

    • A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory effort and an undetectable heart rate initially. Baby is now 20 min old and has been intubated with regular ventilation breaths. Heart rate came up to 110/min following two rounds of chest compressions. Baby appears very pale. No drugs have been given. Oxygen saturations are currently 85% measured on the right hand despite FiO2 1.0. A venous cord gas shows pH 6.89, CO2 –8, BE –14, Hb 8. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Umbilical venous catheter (UVC) placement

      Explanation:

      Umbilical vein catheterization utilizes the exposed umbilical stump in a neonate as a site for emergency central venous access up to 14 days old. Umbilical vein catheterization can provide a safe and effective route for intravenous delivery of medications and fluids during resuscitation.The indication for umbilical vein catheterization is when there is a need for IV access in a neonate for resuscitation, transfusions, or short-term venous access when otherwise unobtainable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old female presented with complaints of haematuria and fatigue. She had a...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old female presented with complaints of haematuria and fatigue. She had a history of bloody diarrhoea starting 7 days previously. On investigation, her serum urea and creatinine were raised and proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most suitable diagnosis for her?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)

      Explanation:

      HUS syndrome occurs mostly in children after some days of bloody diarrhoea. Damaged red blood cells also damage the kidney filtering unit and lead to sudden renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a large swelling on the side of her neck with associated lymph node swellings in her neck and axilla. Which if the following investigations will you order next?

      Your Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      As there is lymphadenopathy already present in this patient, doing a biopsy of the lymph nodes will rule out metastasis of any underlying tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Correct Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Erythema Migrans is associated with Lyme disease, a tic transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia Burgdorferi. The rash usually appears at the bite site after 7 to 10 days. It is flat or slightly raised and migrates as the name suggests. Streptococcal throat infection and Crohn’s disease are both associated with erythema nodosum.Herpes simplex and Rheumatic fever may present with Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Marginatum respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a...

    Correct

    • Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:

      Your Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5

      Explanation:

      Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is true about Kwashiorkor Protein Energy Malnutrition? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about Kwashiorkor Protein Energy Malnutrition?

      Your Answer: Children affected have generalised oedema

      Explanation:

      Protein energy malnutrition often presents in two common forms, Kwashiorkor and Marasmus. Kwashiorkor is characterised by a protein deficiency with an additional inadequate calorie intake. As a result, affected children present with oedema, muscular atrophy, and their weight for age is 60-80% of the expected weight. Their cutaneous tissue is however preserved. Marasmus on the other hand is characterised by a severe calorie deficiency leading to atrophy of the muscles and adipose tissue, with weight loss being less than 60% of the normal. In both cases, if the child is not promptly rehabilitated, the malnutrition could cause irreversible damage, such as hepatic, cardiac and renal impairments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - For a given condition, disease or attribute, there will be a proportion of...

    Correct

    • For a given condition, disease or attribute, there will be a proportion of people in a population who have it at a specified point in time or over a specified period of time. Which of following is the best term which describes the above?

      Your Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Prevalence:

      This is the proportion of individuals in a population who have a specific condition, disease, or attribute at a given point in time or over a specific period.

      Incidence:

      This is the number of new cases of a specific condition, disease, or attribute that develop in a population during a specified period of time.

      Specificity:

      This refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify those without the condition (true negative rate).

      Sensitivity:

      This refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify those with the condition (true positive rate).

      Probability:

      This is a measure of the likelihood that an event will occur. In the context of diseases, it can refer to the likelihood of developing a condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?

      Your Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton

      Explanation:

      The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Constitutional delay

      Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A term baby is admitted to NICU from the postnatal ward following a...

    Correct

    • A term baby is admitted to NICU from the postnatal ward following a large green vomit. The baby was born by forceps delivery following non-reassuring CTG trace. There was meconium-stained liquor just before delivery. Respiratory rate is 60/min, heart rate is 180/min and oxygen saturations are 94% in room air. On examination baby appears quiet with mild nasal flaring. There are no other signs of increased work of breathing. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally. CRT is <2 seconds centrally and baby feels warm peripherally. Abdomen is slightly distended and baby desaturates to 80% on abdominal palpation. What is the most important diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Upper GI contrast study

      Explanation:

      Bilious (green) gastric aspirate or emesis indicates that the intestines are obstructed below the ampulla of Vater.Gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is actually considered an essential diagnostic and therapeutic technique. Upper GI endoscopy in neonatal age allows for exploration of the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum| instead lower GI endoscopy easily reaches the sigmoid-colon junction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Gastroenteritis

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      255
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4...

    Incorrect

    • As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4 year old boy who is has been experiencing intermittent temperature spikes of 38.7C throughout the night. He underwent a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix four days ago, and has opened his bowels with diarrhoea. His chest is clear on examination.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his condition?

      Your Answer: Urinary Tract Infection

      Correct Answer: Intra-abdominal collection

      Explanation:

      Perforated appendices are common in children as it is more difficult to surgically assess an unwell child due to poor localisation of abdominal pain, and their inability to express discomfort. They are therefore prone to a greater risk of post operative complications including would infections, intra abdominal fluid collections, and chest infections. In the above scenario the spiking temperature points to an abscess, which characteristically presents with a swinging temperature. The fever is unlikely due to bacterial resistance as blood tests performed post surgery would have indicated any resistance, and a UTI is also unlikely since the child is already on antibiotics. As his chest is clinically clear, a severe chest infection may be ruled out, leaving intra-abdominal collection as the most likely explanation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the most likely cause for bloody diarrhoea of 3 days duration...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely cause for bloody diarrhoea of 3 days duration in a 10-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Salmonella

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter

      Explanation:

      The most common cause for acute bloody diarrhoea in a 10-year-old child is Campylobacter.Note:Campylobacter is the most common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It typically presents with bloody diarrhoea, fever, abdominal pain and vomiting. The primary source of Campylobacter is uncooked poultry. Treatment is generally supportive unless the child is immunosuppressed or the symptoms are persistent.Other options:- E. coli 0157:H7: It causes acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea, usually afebrile. It can lead to haemolytic uremic syndrome (haemolytic anaemia, acute renal failure and thrombocytopenia), which is the commonest cause of acute renal failure in children.- Rotavirus: It rarely causes bloody diarrhoea.- Salmonella and Yersinia: While they can cause bloody diarrhoea, they are much less common compared to Campylobacter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      59.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop. On examination, there is weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. A small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of the right foot is also present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve lesion

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      Injuries to the peroneal nerve can cause numbness, tingling, pain, weakness and foot drop. The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate and control the muscles in the legs that lift the ankle and toes upward (dorsi flexion).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2–3 white blood cells/mm3. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pyelonephritis

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 9-year-old male presented in the emergency room with sudden nosebleed that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old male presented in the emergency room with sudden nosebleed that started 15 minutes ago. Which management step should be taken in such a case?

      Your Answer: Ice packs

      Correct Answer: Press soft parts of the nose

      Explanation:

      With children nosebleeds often occur after nose picking and are benign in nature. For active bleeding, pressing of soft parts of the nose is required to stop the bleeding before doing anything else.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully conscious but has stridor, is wheezing and has a generalised erythematous rash. She has known allergies. What is the single immediate management?

      Your Answer: Check airway patency and prepare intubation

      Correct Answer: Give 0.3ml in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection

      Explanation:

      This is a case of an anaphylactic reaction that requires immediate intervention. IM adrenaline dose for 6-12 year old children is 300 micrograms IM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his mother who is concerned that she cannot feel his testis. On examination by the doctor, his testis are not palpable either in the scrotum or the inguinal region and cannot be seen on ultrasound either. Which of the following is the most appropriate next stage in management?

      Your Answer: Re-assess at 13 years of age

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      Answer: LaparoscopyThe diagnostic accuracy of laparoscopy for impalpable testis is well recognized. Approximately 20% of undescended testes are truly impalpable, and laparoscopy is actually regarded as the gold standard for their localization| none of the currently available imaging techniques (ultrasound, computerized tomography, or magnetic resonance imaging) has proven to be 100% reliable in predicting the presence or absence of a testis.In this respect, not only can laparoscopy be considered the most reliable tool to provide information on the location of the testis but also to confirm its absence.Undescended testes in boys is a very common congenital abnormality in which one or both testes does not reach the bottom of the scrotum prior to birth. The incidence of the condition is 3–5% among all boys at birth, and decreases to 0.8–1% after 6 months of age.Males with undescended testes have a lower sperm count, poorer quality sperm, and lower fertility rate, compared to males whose testicles descend normally| the rate of subfertility increases with bilateral involvement and increasing age at the time of orchidopexy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born...

    Incorrect

    • A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born to a mother who had not booked at the hospital. Her notes are not available and she does not speak English. However, her partner has managed to communicate that Zika virus had been confirmed in pregnancy. The midwife wants to know if it is safe for the mother to breastfeed the baby in the meantime.What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise the mother not to breastfeed

      Correct Answer: Encourage breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Possible Zika virus infections have been identified in breastfeeding babies, but Zika virus transmission through breast milk has not been confirmed. Additionally, we do not yet know the long-term effects of Zika virus on young infants infected after birth. Because current evidence suggests that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of Zika virus spreading through breast milk, CDC continues to encourage mothers to breastfeed, even if they were infected or lived in or travelled to an area with risk of Zika.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 15-year-old boy was brought by his mother due to his recent clumsy...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy was brought by his mother due to his recent clumsy behaviour. She observes that he has an increased tendency to trip over while running. On examination, his calves were relatively slim, and the soles of his feet were arched. Ankle dorsiflexors were noted to be weak, and the deep tendon reflexes were absent. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s clinical presentation is highly suggestive of Charcot–Marie–Tooth syndrome.It is a hereditary sensory and motor neuropathy. It is also the commonest cause of inherited peripheral neuropathy. The lower motor neuron signs are usually mild in childhood, the age of onset is very variable, and the distal weakness can take years to progress. It is not fatal and does not affect the normal life expectancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer: Numbers needed to harm

      Correct Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
      The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What would you administer to a child with a clean wound that has...

    Incorrect

    • What would you administer to a child with a clean wound that has never been immunized before, assuming there is no contraindication to immunization?

      Your Answer: Only immunoglobin

      Correct Answer: Full course of diphtheria, tetanus, polio

      Explanation:

      A not immunized patient with a clean wound requires an immediate vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus and polio, according to the Green Book of Immunisation against infectious disease. (The Green Book has the latest information on vaccines and vaccination procedures, for vaccine preventable infectious diseases in the UK.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 16-month-old boy presented following a 20 min seizure. He was given 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old boy presented following a 20 min seizure. He was given 5 mg per rectum (PR) diazepam to terminate the seizure and is still only responding to voice 6 hours later. He was diagnosed with measles five days prior to this episode.Which of the following is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intracranial bleed secondary to thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Encephalitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is encephalitis secondary to measles infection.Encephalitis:Encephalitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It usually presents within 1–14 days of the rash, usually day 5. It may present with fever, headache, vomiting, stiff neck, meningeal irritation, drowsiness, seizures, reduced consciousness| 15% will have neurological sequelae| 10% mortality.Other options:- Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It is thought to be a postinfectious immune response. Clinical manifestations include fever, headache, neck stiffness, seizures and mental status changes. It could fit this presentation although it tends to present in the recovery phase of measles infection, typically two weeks after the exanthem. In contrast, encephalitis tends to occur within a few days of the rash.- The history is not that of a typical febrile seizure as it lasted >15 minutes. He has also not recovered consciousness at 4 hours. The diazepam should have been eliminated within 4 hours and so should no longer be contributing to his reduced level of consciousness. Also, the history states the recent diagnosis of measles, and so complications of measles should be considered.- Intracranial bleed secondary to thrombocytopenia: Measles is not known to cause thrombocytopenia.- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (also known as Dawson’s encephalitis): This is an extremely rare complication of measles. It is a progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system that occurs 7–10 years after a measles infection. The treatment for SSPE is mainly intraventricular interferon therapy through an Ommaya reservoir. The prognosis is poor, and it is usually fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of hormones?

      Your Answer: FSH, LH, GH and prolactin are not secreted in pulsatile pattern

      Correct Answer: Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern

      Explanation:

      Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern.The secretion of cortisol is regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus located in the hypothalamus.Other options:- FSH, LH, GH and prolactin are secreted in a pulsatile pattern, i.e. these hormones are secreted in an episodic manner rather than continuously.- Thyroxine is secreted in a continuous pattern, not pulsatile.- The secretion of ACTH is in response to stress.Secondary to stress, the hypothalamus secretes corticotrophin releasing hormones, which are transported to the pituitary gland via the hypophyseal–portal system. ACTH is then released by the pituitary gland and binds to its receptor on the adrenal gland, which releases cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Hypopigmentation is a clinical feature of all of the given conditions EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hypopigmentation is a clinical feature of all of the given conditions EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Hypopigmentation refers to a decrease in the amount of the pigment melanin in the skin, which leads to an abnormally lighter skin tone. Hypopigmentation can be generalized or localized. Generalized hypopigmentation occurs in albinism or can be ethnicity related. Causes of localized hypopigmentation include Incontinentia pigmenti, Lichen planus, Tuberous sclerosis, Piebaldism, vitiligo, and leprosy. Celiac disease is not associated with hypopigmentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and vomiting. Her vitals are as follows: Heart rate: 200 bpm and BP: 100/45 mmHg. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the upper abdomen. Blood investigations reveal:Hb: 13.4 g/dLWBC Count: 16,000 cells/mm3Platelet count: 2,53,000 cells/mm3Na+: 140 mEq/LK+: 3.5 mEq/LCreatinine 6.4 mg/dLUrea 90 mg/dLBilirubin 2 mg/dLAlbumin: 4.2 mg/dLAmylase: 800 IU/L AST: 12 IU/L ALT: 16 IU/LWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis.Although rare in childhood, the presence of abdominal pain radiating to the back with shock and tachycardia, and a raised amylase, should raise a suspicion of pancreatitis. Possible causes include trauma, drugs, viral illness, mumps, hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidaemia and cystic fibrosis. Other options:- Normal LFTs in this patient make hepatitis unlikely. – Gastroenteritis with severe diarrhoea and vomiting may account for the shock and tachycardia, but guarding on abdominal examination and the raised amylase would not be explained by gastroenteritis. – Pregnancy is an important diagnosis to consider in an adolescent with abdominal pain, but the raised amylase and other features point to a diagnosis of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Nephro-urology (1/2) 50%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Emergency Medicine (0/2) 0%
ENT (2/3) 67%
Paediatric Surgery (3/3) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Neonatology (2/2) 100%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (3/3) 100%
Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (2/3) 67%
Neurology And Neurodisability (3/3) 100%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed