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  • Question 1 - In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation… ...

    Correct

    • In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation…

      Your Answer: Reduces towards the centre

      Explanation:

      Cells located close to the portal triad or peripheral zone which consist of arterioles from the hepatic artery are the most oxygenated cells. Cells in the central zone are least oxygenated and mainly receive blood supply from the central vein which is a branch of the hepatic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except--- ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except---

      Your Answer: In thermodilution, the indicator used is warm saline

      Explanation:

      In thermodilution, the indicator used is cold saline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system?

      Your Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Microglia are the smallest of the neuroglial cells in the nervous system. They are scattered throughout the central nervous system and have phagocytic properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 24-year-old student is brought to A&E having ingested at least 20 tablets...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old student is brought to A&E having ingested at least 20 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. She weighs 61kg. What should her immediate management consist of?

      Your Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion. The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium, serves to? ...

    Correct

    • The coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium, serves to?

      Your Answer: Drain the venous supply of the myocardium

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the heart muscle (myocardium). It delivers deoxygenated blood to the right atrium, as do the superior and inferior vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Majority of gastrinomas are found in the: ...

    Correct

    • Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from: ...

    Correct

    • The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from:

      Your Answer: Paracrine hormones secreted from the hypothalamus via axons.

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary or neurohypophysis consists of a collection of axonal projections emerging from the hypothalamus. It releases hormones directly from these axonal endings into circulation; these hormones are oxytocin and vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The rate of depolarisation of the sinus node membrane potential is modulated by...

    Correct

    • The rate of depolarisation of the sinus node membrane potential is modulated by all the following except:

      Your Answer: Cardiac output

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output has no effect on the depolarization of the pacemaker potential of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Visceral afferent fibers are found in the following areas except the…? ...

    Incorrect

    • Visceral afferent fibers are found in the following areas except the…?

      Your Answer: Vagus nerve

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The general visceral afferent (GVA) fibers carry impulses from viscera to the central nervous system. The cranial nerves that contain GVA fibers include the facial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve and the vagus nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      135.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The cerebellum consist of which three lobes? ...

    Correct

    • The cerebellum consist of which three lobes?

      Your Answer: Anterior, posterior and flocculonodular

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum consists of 3 lobes; Anterior, Posterior and Flocculonodular lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Restriction Enzymes... ...

    Correct

    • Restriction Enzymes...

      Your Answer: Cut DNA sequences at specific sites

      Explanation:

      Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that recognise short sequences of double stranded DNA and cut them at specific nucleotide points or sequences. These sequences differ for different restriction endonucleases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Muscular weakness

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome is characterised by hypertension which may cause poor vision or headaches. Occasionally there may be muscular weakness, muscle spasms, tingling sensations, or excessive urination. Complications include cardiovascular disease such as stroke, myocardial infarction, kidney failure, and abnormal heart rhythms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The alpha amylases hydrolyse which linkages in the ingested polysaccharides? ...

    Correct

    • The alpha amylases hydrolyse which linkages in the ingested polysaccharides?

      Your Answer: 1:4α linkages

      Explanation:

      Alfa amylase hydrolyses the α (1-4) glyosidic bonds in amylose and amylopectin and leave primarily maltose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The complex twisting and folding of peptide chains describes which order of protein...

    Correct

    • The complex twisting and folding of peptide chains describes which order of protein structure?

      Your Answer: Secondary structure

      Explanation:

      Secondary Structure refers to the coiling or folding of a polypeptide chain that gives the protein its 3-D shape. There are two types of secondary structures: the alpha (α) helix and the beta (β) pleated sheet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In the presence of oxygen , lactate that was produced under anaerobic conditions...

    Correct

    • In the presence of oxygen , lactate that was produced under anaerobic conditions is converted to:

      Your Answer: Pyruvate

      Explanation:

      Lactate can be used in two ways:Oxidation back to pyruvate by well-oxygenated muscle cells, heart cells, and brain cells. Pyruvate is then directly used to fuel the Krebs cycle orConversion to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver and release back into circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current. ...

    Correct

    • The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current.

      Your Answer: K+

      Explanation:

      The hyperpolarization phase is a continuation of the repolarization phase but the membrane potential dips below the resting membrane potential. This results due to the fact that the K+ channels take a longer time to close than the Na+ channels. Hence efflux of the K+ will result in hyperpolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently...

    Correct

    • A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by...

    Correct

    • The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by follicles resembling which human gland?

      Your Answer: Thyroid

      Explanation:

      The cells located between the two main pituitary lobes form what is known as the intermediate pituitary. This area secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone and it is only a few cell layers thick. It is rich in follicles filled with colloid, and lined by basophilic cells. This configuration resembles that of another important gland: the thyroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams:

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav is more likely to cause obstructive jaundice than amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      β-lactam antibiotics are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics, consisting of all antibiotic agents that contain a β-lactam ring in their molecular structures. This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems. Most β-lactam antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism and are the most widely used group of antibiotics. Bacteria often develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing a β-lactamase, an enzyme that attacks the β-lactam ring. To overcome this resistance, β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid. Immunologically mediated adverse reactions to any β-lactam antibiotic may occur in up to 10% of patients receiving that agent (a small fraction of which are truly IgE-mediated allergic reactions). Rarely, cholestatic jaundice has been associated with Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid). The reaction may occur up to several weeks after treatment has stopped, and usually takes weeks to resolve. It is more frequent in men, older people, and those who have taken long courses of treatment; the estimated overall incidence is one in 100,000 exposures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      105.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the? ...

    Correct

    • Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Renal protein reabsorption is the part of renal physiology that deals with the retrieval of filtered proteins, preventing them from disappearing from the body through the urine. Almost all reabsorption takes place in the proximal tubule. Only ,1% is left in the final urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by: ...

    Correct

    • In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by:

      Your Answer: A pituitary LH surge due to the positive feedback effect of circulating oestrogens

      Explanation:

      FSH and LH are secreted to start the development of a follicle at the start of each menstrual cycle. A surge in oestrogen causes a positive feedback in the LH cells of the pituitary; this causes ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      104.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema...

    Correct

    • A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?

      Your Answer: Odds ratio

      Explanation:

      A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which three parietal cell agonists bind at the basolateral membrane at specific receptors...

    Correct

    • Which three parietal cell agonists bind at the basolateral membrane at specific receptors respectively: M3 , H2 , CCK-B, to stimulate acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine, histamine , gastrin

      Explanation:

      The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shortened by sympathetic stimulation

      Explanation:

      AV nodal delay Is about 0.1s before the action potential spreads to the ventricles. It is shortened by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and lengthened by stimulation of the parasympathetic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Where does the pituitary gland lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the pituitary gland lie?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In a pocket of the sphenoid bone at the base of the brain

      Explanation:

      The pituitary lies in a small depression in the sphenoid bone, known as the sella turcica or Turkish saddle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferroportin

      Explanation:

      Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days.On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal:FBC: NormalU&E: NormalPlasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6)Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.Treatment:- The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam. – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.- Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.- It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is a function of Vitamin C? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a function of Vitamin C?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline for collagen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin C acts as an electron donor for eight different enzymes: Three enzymes (prolyl-3-hydroxylase, prolyl-4-hydroxylase, and lysyl hydroxylase) that are required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Mitosis is the process of cell division which culminates in cell chromosomes which...

    Incorrect

    • Mitosis is the process of cell division which culminates in cell chromosomes which are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diploid

      Explanation:

      Mitosis is a part of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into two new diploid nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following substances is involved in the respiratory burst by the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances is involved in the respiratory burst by the neutrophil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NADPh oxidase

      Explanation:

      The respiratory burst is a rapid release of reactive oxygen species (ROS) from neutrophils and other phagocytes. This process is crucial for the destruction of pathogens. The key components and enzymes involved in the respiratory burst include:

      1. NADPH oxidase: This enzyme complex plays a central role in the respiratory burst by converting oxygen (O2) into superoxide anion (O2•-), a reactive oxygen species. This is the initial step in the production of various ROS.
      2. Superoxide dismutase (SOD): This enzyme converts superoxide anion (O2•-) into hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). While SOD is involved in the pathway, the respiratory burst is initiated by NADPH oxidase.
      3. Myeloperoxidase (MPO): This enzyme uses hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to produce hypochlorous acid (HOCl) from chloride ions (Cl-), which is a potent antimicrobial agent. Myeloperoxidase also produces other reactive species using halide ions.
      4. Catalase: This enzyme degrades hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into water (H2O) and oxygen (O2). While catalase helps to protect the cell from oxidative damage by breaking down H2O2, it is not involved in the generation of ROS during the respiratory burst.
      5. Adenylate cyclase: This enzyme is involved in the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) from ATP and is not directly related to the respiratory burst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - An effect of aging on the kidney includes? ...

    Incorrect

    • An effect of aging on the kidney includes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased GFR

      Explanation:

      The normal range of GFR, adjusted for body surface area, is 100 to 130 mL/min/1.73m2 in men and 90 to 120 ml/min/1.73m2 in women younger than the age of 40. After age 40, GFR decreases progressively with age, by about 0.4 mL/min to 1.2 mL/min per year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the following is most likely to be a feature of this type of carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is capable of metastasising via the lymphatics

      Explanation:

      Squamous-cell skin cancer usually presents as a hard lump with a scaly top but can also form an ulcer. Onset is often over months and it is more likely to spread to distant areas than basal cell cancer vie the lymphatics. The greatest risk factor is high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Other risks include prior scars, chronic wounds, actinic keratosis, lighter skin, Bowen’s disease, arsenic exposure, radiation therapy, poor immune system function, previous basal cell carcinoma, and HPV infection. While prognosis is usually good, if distant spread occurs five-year survival is ,34%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and is not using any birth control other than barrier method. Which among the following antihypertensives is contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Among the following hypertensives, lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) is contraindicated in patients who are planning for pregnancy.Per the NICE guidelines, when treating the woman in question, she should be treated as if she were pregnant given the absence of effective contraception. ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are known teratogens and most be avoided.Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy:AntibioticsTetracyclinesAminoglycosidesSulphonamides and trimethoprimQuinolonesOther drugs:ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonistsStatinsWarfarinSulfonylureasRetinoids (including topical)Cytotoxic agentsThe majority of antiepileptics including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin are known to be potentially harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling for the past two weeks. Which of the following will be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles and thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which will result in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most likely have which of the following hand conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nail dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Nail dystrophy (pitting of nails, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis), dactylitis, sausage shaped fingers are most commonly seen with psoriatic arthropathy. There is asymmetric joint involvement most commonly distal interphalangeal joints. Uveitis and sacroiliitis may also occur. Arthritis mutilans may occur but is very rare. Cutaneous lesions may or may not develop. When they do, its usually much after the symptoms of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Critical shortening of Telomeres result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Critical shortening of Telomeres result in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activation of p53 and prb and cell crisis

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are repetitive nucleotide sequences at the ends of chromosomes that protect them from deterioration or from fusion with neighboring chromosomes. Each time a cell divides, its telomeres shorten. When they become critically short, they can no longer protect the chromosome ends, triggering a DNA damage response.

      This response leads to the activation of tumor suppressor proteins p53 and pRb (retinoblastoma protein). Activated p53 can induce cell cycle arrest, allowing time for DNA repair or triggering apoptosis if the damage is irreparable. Similarly, pRb helps regulate cell cycle progression and can halt the cell cycle to prevent the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA.

      As a result, the cell enters a state of crisis, characterized by widespread cell death and genomic instability, which ultimately prevents the propagation of cells with critically shortened telomeres.

      Therefore, the correct answer is:

      Activation of p53 and pRb and cell crisis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - An exaggerated response to a noxious stimulus is called: ...

    Incorrect

    • An exaggerated response to a noxious stimulus is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperalgesia

      Explanation:

      Allodynia is the sensation of pain following non-painful stimulation.

      Hyperalgesia is enhanced intensity of pain sensation.

      Causalgia is a constant burning pain resulting from peripheral nerve injury.

      Hyperesthesia is the abnormal increase in sensitivity to stimuli of sense.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 43 - A 35 year old sales representative presents with severe pain going down her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old sales representative presents with severe pain going down her neck and right arm. She admits that this pain is worse on sitting and driving for long periods. Past history is significant for two previous road traffic accidents. Examination reveals weakness and sensory loss over C5/C6 nerve distribution. There is pain with neck movement and particularly extension. Which of the following investigations would be the most helpful in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI scan of the cervical spinal cord

      Explanation:

      Cervical radiculopathy is usually due to compression or injury to a nerve root by a herniated disc or degenerative changes. Levels C5 to T1 are the most commonly affected. It is usually, but not always, accompanied by cervical radicular pain, a sharp and shooting pain that travels from the neck and down the upper limb and may be severe. This needs to be differentiated from pain referred from the musculoskeletal (somatic) structures in the neck, which may be aching rather than sharp, and is more severe in the neck than in the upper limb. The neurological signs of cervical radiculopathy depend on the site of the lesion. The patient may have motor dysfunction, sensory deficits or alteration in tendon reflexes. While pain is a common presenting symptom, not all radiculopathies are painful (i.e. only motor deficits may be obvious). CT scanning cannot accurately demonstrate the commonest cause for cervical radiculopathy (disc herniation) without myelography, which requires hospital admission, lumbar puncture and the use of contrast. In patients with cervical radiculopathy, MRI is the imaging technique of choice for the detection of root compression by disc herniation and osteophytes. MRI allows the nerve roots to be directly visualised. Nerve conduction studies are also useful in determining the nerve roots that are involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
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      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which statement is incorrect regarding transcription of DNA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect regarding transcription of DNA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A gene is always read in the 3’-5’ orientation and at 3’ promoter sites.

      Explanation:

      In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes RNA polymerase acts in the 5′-3′ direction and hence the RNA is transcribed in this direction. The mRNA produced is immature as it has introns as well as exons presents. It undergoes a process known as splicing to remove the exons and then interacts with the ribosomes to form proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
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      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left vagus

      Explanation:

      As the AV node develops from the left side of the embryo It is supplied by the left vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 47 - What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The portal vein supplies 75% of the blood to the liver and exceeds the arterial supply of the organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV...

    Incorrect

    • Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The RCA (right coronary artery) supplies the SA and the AV nodes along with the postero-basal wall of the left ventricle, posterior one third of the inferior vena cava, right ventricle and the posteromedial papillary muscle in the left ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - In which area is depolarization initiated? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which area is depolarization initiated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SA node

      Explanation:

      SA node is the pacemaker of the heart. It determines the rate of contractions. It is the place where depolarization is initiated. It exhibits phase 4 depolarization or automaticity. Electrical impulses then spread to the AV node, purkinje fibers, bundle of his and the ventricular muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 50 - Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy

      Explanation:

      Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Medicine (22/23) 96%
Cardiovascular (4/4) 100%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (3/3) 100%
Endocrinology (4/4) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Research Skills (1/1) 100%
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