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Question 1
Correct
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A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?
Your Answer: An organophosphate insecticide
Explanation:The farmer has most likely ingested an organophosphate insecticide.Organophosphorus compounds are used widely as:• Insecticides – Malathion, parathion, diazinon, dichlorvos• Nerve gases – Soman, sarin, tabun, VX• Ophthalmic agents – Echothiophate• Antihelmintics – Trichlorfon• Herbicides – merphos• Industrial chemical (plasticizer) – Tricresyl phosphateSigns and symptoms of Organophosphorus Poisoning (OPP) can be classified as:• Muscarinic effects:o Cardiovascular – Bradycardia, hypotensiono Respiratory – Rhinorrhoea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distresso Gastrointestinal – Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, faecal incontinenceo Genitourinary – Incontinenceo Ocular – Blurred vision, miosiso Glands – Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis• Nicotinic effects:o Muscle fasciculation, weakness, cramping, diaphragmatic failure, and autonomic side effects include: hypertension, tachycardia, and mydriasis.• Central nervous system (CNS) effects:o Anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, coma, apnoeaMainstay Treatment:• Decontamination• Securing Airway, Breathing and Circulation• Atropine• Pralidoxime• Benzodiazepines
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?
Your Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%
Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination
Explanation:Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation. Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose. Other options are true:By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine. Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?
Your Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Methemoglobinemia
Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning
Explanation:Confusion and pink mucosae are typical features of CO poisoning.The patient often presents, most commonly with headaches, and other symptoms like malaise, nausea, and dizziness.Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Features of carbon monoxide toxicity- Headache: 90% of cases- Nausea and vomiting: 50%- Vertigo: 50%- Confusion: 30%- Subjective weakness: 20%- Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathTreatment:Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treating mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast.Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?
Your Answer: Sweating
Explanation:Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.Treatment of opioid overdose:Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?
Your Answer: Goitre
Correct Answer: Alopecia
Explanation:All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality for which of the following drugs?
Your Answer: Barbiturates
Correct Answer: Tricyclics
Explanation:Tricyclic compounds can’t be cleared by haemodialysis.Drugs that can be cleared with haemodialysis include: (BLAST)- Barbiturate- Lithium- Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)- Salicylates- Theophyllines (charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable)Drugs which cannot be cleared with haemodialysis include:- Tricyclics- Benzodiazepines- Dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)- Digoxin- Beta-blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?
Your Answer: Causes adrenal suppression
Correct Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination
Explanation:Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed sleep. The physician has prescribed temazepam. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid
Explanation:Temazepam is an orally available benzodiazepine used in the therapy of insomnia. The soporific activity of the benzodiazepines is mediated by their ability to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) mediated inhibition of synaptic transmission through binding to the GABA-A receptor.The recommended initial dose for insomnia is 7.5 mg before bedtime, increasing as needed to a maximum dose of 30 mg. The most common side effects of temazepam are dose-related and include daytime drowsiness, lethargy, ataxia, dysarthria, and dizziness.Tolerance develops to these side effects, but tolerance may also develop to the effects on insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?
Your Answer: Alopecia
Explanation:All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.Common lithium side effects may include:- dizziness, drowsiness;- tremors in your hands;- trouble walking;- dry mouth, increased thirst or urination;- nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, stomach pain;- cold feeling or discoloration in your fingers or toes;- rash; or.- blurred vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia?
Your Answer: Amantadine can increase its unwanted effects
Correct Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor antagonist
Explanation:Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.
Drug interactions:
- When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) there is increased risk of psychosis.
- Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
- Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen) enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
- Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.
- Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?
Your Answer: Factor Xa
Explanation:Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH): It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot. LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation. Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.Dosage and uses:LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.Adverse effects:The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.Less commonly it can cause:Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)Osteoporosis and spontaneous fracturesHypoaldosteronismHypersensitivity reactions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion. Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?
Your Answer: Dyspnoea normally improves on commencement of infusion
Correct Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use
Explanation:The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma. The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of an anticholinesterase?
Your Answer: Tachycardia and diarrhoea
Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis
Explanation:Bradycardia and miosis should be anticipated following the administration of anticholinesterases.Anticholinesterase agents include the following medications:- Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium which play a significant role in the diagnosis and the management of myasthenia gravis.- Rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors found to be significantly useful in the management of Alzheimer’s disease.Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects:Inhibition of cholinesterase increases the level and the duration of action of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft. Thus, cholinergic effects such as a reduction in heart rate (bradycardia), miosis (pupillary constriction), increased secretions, increased gastrointestinal motility and reduction in BP may occur with anticholinesterases.Toxins such as organophosphates and carbamates also are primarily anticholinergic and cause the following typical SLUDGE symptoms:- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Diaphoresis- Gastrointestinal upset- Emesis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following drug can cause galactorrhoea?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Metoclopramide causes extrapyramidal effects (especially in children and young adults), hyperprolactinaemia, and occasionally tardive dyskinesia on prolonged administration. Also reported are drowsiness, restlessness, diarrhoea, depression, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, rashes, pruritus, oedema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of pins and needles sensation in both hands. He also has prognathism. He also gives a history of recent onset right upper quadrant pain after being started on a new medication for his condition. Which of the following medications acting on his endocrine system can be responsible for this adverse effect?
Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:The patient (known case of acromegaly) seems to have developed cholelithiasis (presenting with right upper quadrant pain) probably due to octreotide.It is a long-acting analogue of somatostatin which is released from D cells of the pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin.Uses- Acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage- Acromegaly- Carcinoid syndrome- Prevent complications following pancreatic surgery- VIPomas- Refractory diarrhoeaAdverse effectsGallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)Other options:- Bromocriptine – a dopamine agonist with side effects arising from its stimulation of the brain vomiting centre.- Desmopressin – predominantly used in patients with diabetes insipidus by increasing the presence of aquaporin channels in the distal collecting duct to increase water reabsorption from the kidneys. The main side effects include headache and facial flushing due to hypertension.- Metformin – mainly reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis in patients with type 2 diabetes, common side effects include diarrhoea, vomiting, and lactic acidosis- Levothyroxine – synthetic thyroxine used in patients with hypothyroidism, common side effects result from incorrect dosing and mimic the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not your patient, you can make out that the man has a history of schizophrenia, and has recently had his medications altered. Clinically, you find evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection, and blood investigations indicate a neutropenic picture.What is the most likely drug causing the neutropenia?
Your Answer: Sulpiride
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis.Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia, and in patients who are intolerant to, or unresponsive to other antipsychotics. It is a weak D2-receptor and D1-receptor blocking activity, with noradrenolytic, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic properties.Many antipsychotic drugs can occasionally cause bone marrow depression, but agranulocytosis is particularly associated with clozapine.Other side effects include:Hypotension, tachycardiaFever, sedation, seizures (with high doses)Appetite increaseConstipationHeartburnWeight gainExtrapyramidal symptomsAgranulocytosisNeuroleptic malignant syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity. Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemiaManagement of these patients should be done in the following manner:• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation• Supportive therapy• GI decontamination• Urinary excretion and alkalization• Haemodialysis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma?
Your Answer: Action on eosinophils to reduce the inflammatory response to inhaled allergens
Correct Answer: Inhibition of mast-cell degranulation
Explanation:Sodium cromoglycate principally acts by inhibiting the degranulation of mast cells triggered by the interaction of antigen and IgE. The inhibitory effect on mast cells appears to be cell-type specific since cromoglycate has little inhibitory effect on mediator release from human basophils.Thus, it inhibits the release of histamine, leukotrienes, and slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by inhibiting degranulation following exposure to reactive antigens.Adverse effects include cough, flushing, palpitation, chest pain, nasal congestion, nausea, fatigue, migraine, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an unknown coagulopathy and has a previous history of stroke. She has been on warfarin therapy for the past 4 months. Her international normalised ratio (INR) was stabilised between 2.5 and 3.0. Noticing abnormal coagulation results, her surgeon has requested a medical consult.Her blood investigations revealed:White cell count: 13 × 109/lHaemoglobin (Hb): 11 g/dlActivated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): NormalPlatelets: 140 × 109/lINR: 6.0Pancreatic enzymes and liver function tests were normal.Other investigations:An ultrasound of the abdomen was normal.An upper GI endoscopy revealed mild gastritis. What is the most appropriate step to be taken regarding warfarin therapy?
Your Answer: Stop warfarin and observe
Explanation:The most appropriate treatment in this patient would be to stop warfarin therapy and keep the patient under observation.The drugs that lead to enhanced potency of warfarin include: disulfiram, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, metronidazole, phenylbutazone, aspirin, heparin, and clofibrate. Liver disease, thrombocytopenia, hyperthyroidism also increase the oral anticoagulant potency.If the patient has minor bleeding and the international normalized ratio (INR) is >6.0, warfarin should be stopped; the INR should be rechecked daily and in addition to the stoppage of warfarin, vitamin K 2.5 mg oral or 0.5 mg intravenously should also be administered.In a patient with INR of 2.0 or 3.0, it takes two or three times longer for that individual’s blood to clot than someone who is not taking any anticoagulants. Most patients on warfarin have an INR goal of 2 to 3.If there is major bleeding then prothrombin complex concentrates 50 u/kg or fresh-frozen plasma 15 ml/kg may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical attack in the city. The patients are extremely unwell, with symptoms of excessive salivation, lacrimation, diarrhoea, and emesis. Sarin gas was suspected as the most likely agent used in the attack. What is the mechanism of action of this chemical agent?
Your Answer: Anti-cholinergic
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:Sarin acts by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.Sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesteraseSarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. This results in high levels of acetylcholine (ACh).The effects of excessive ACh can be remembered by the mnemonic DUMBELLS:DiarrhoeaUrinationMiosis/muscle weaknessBronchorrhea/BradycardiaEmesisLacrimationSalivation/sweatingOrganophosphate insecticide poisoning:One of the effects of organophosphate poisoning is inhibition of acetylcholinesteraseFeatures can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD)SalivationLacrimationUrinationDefecation/diarrhoeacardiovascular: hypotension, bradycardiamiosis, muscle fasciculation.Organophosphate poisoning is treated with the anti-muscarinic atropine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?
Your Answer: Decreased post-prandial acid production
Correct Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?
Your Answer: Glutathione S-transferase
Correct Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4
Explanation:The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice. Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities. Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following drugs requires plasma level monitoring?
Your Answer: Vancomycin
Explanation:All patients require plasma-vancomycin measurement (after 3 or 4 doses if renal function normal, earlier if renal impairment). There is a risk of nephrotoxicity including renal failure, interstitial nephritis and ototoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high dose steroids for a few days. The nurses report that she is very agitated and talks about trying to open the window of her room and jump out from the fourth floor.You review her notes and see that she admits to drinking a few glasses of wine per week and has smoked cannabis on a few occasions.On examination her BP is 145/88 mmHg, her pulse is 80 bpm.Blood investigations reveal:Haemoglobin: 12.1 g/dL (11.5-16.5)WBC count: 16.2 x 103/dL (4-11)Platelets: 200 x 109/L (150-400)C-reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10)Sodium: 140 mmol/l (135-146)Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5)Creatinine: 92 μmol/l (79-118)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cannabis-related psychosis
Correct Answer: Corticosteroid-related psychosis
Explanation:Agitation, hypomania and suicidal intent within a few days after initiating corticosteroid therapy is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of corticosteroid-induced psychosis.In some patients corticosteroid related psychosis has been diagnosed up to 12 weeks or more after commencing therapy.Euphoria and hypomania are considered to be the most common psychiatric symptoms reported during short courses of steroids.During long-term treatment, depressive symptoms were the most common. Higher steroid doses appear to carry an increased risk for such adverse effects; however, there is no significant relationship between dose and time to onset, duration, and severity of symptoms. Management: Reduction or cessation of corticosteroids is the mainstay of treatment for steroid psychosis. For those patients who cannot tolerate this reduction/cessation of steroids, mood stabilizers may be of some benefit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next day he finds that he feels excessively thirsty and is passing more urine than usual. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the polyuria due to excessive alcohol consumption?
Your Answer: Supratentorial reflex to cleanse the body of toxins
Correct Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion
Explanation:Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.Thus, ethanol’s inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys.Nausea associated with hangovers is mainly due to vagal stimulation to the vomiting centre. Following a particularly severe episode of alcohol excess, people may experience tremors due to increased glutamate production by neurons to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol.Management of alcoholism:Nutritional support: – Alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’.Pharmacological management:- Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal- Disulfiram promotes abstinence – alcohol intake causes a severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.- Acamprosate reduces craving, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, improves abstinence in placebo-controlled trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Correct
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What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates?
Your Answer: Inhibit osteoclasts
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are analogues of pyrophosphate, a molecule which decreases demineralisation in bone. They inhibit osteoclasts by reducing recruitment and promoting apoptosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg at night for Addison’s disease. The endocrinology consultant would like her to take prednisolone instead. What dose of prednisolone should be started?
Your Answer: 25 mg
Correct Answer: 7 mg
Explanation:1mg Prednisolone = 4mg hydrocortisone, so the actual equivalent daily dose is 7mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 30-year-old female presents with a 4-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She has been unable to keep fluids down for 4 days and has been treated with metoclopramide. She develops a dystonic reaction. What is the most appropriate treatment for this woman?
Your Answer: Benztropine
Explanation:Acute dystonic reactions (extrapyramidal symptoms) such as spasmodic torticollis, trismus, and oculogyric crises can occur following the administration of metoclopramide or stemetil and thus, neither is recommended for the treatment of nausea in young women.
Such reactions respond well to treatment with benztropine or procyclidine.
– Benztropine: It is an anticholinergic medication with significant CNS penetration. A single dose of benztropine 1 to 2 mg IV followed by 1 to 2 mg p.o twice a day for up to 7 days to prevent a recurrence. Subsequently, both the offending agent and those from the same group should be avoided.
– Alternatively, diphenhydramine can be used intravenously (up to a dose of 50mg) or intramuscularly followed by p.o therapy every 6 hours for 1 to 2 to prevent a recurrence.- Second-line therapy with IV benzodiazepines is reserved for those patients who do not respond to anticholinergics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion. In-transit to hospital he had a generalized seizure which terminated spontaneously after around 30 seconds. On arrival to the emergency department, his GCS is 14/15 and he is noted to have a coarse tremor. Suspecting a diagnosis of lithium toxicity, intravenous access is obtained, a blood sample was drawn for investigations and a saline infusion is started. The blood investigations revealed:Lithium level: 4.2 mmol/lNa+: 136 mmol/lK+: 4.6 mmol/lUrea: 8.1 mmol/lCreatinine: 99 µmol/lBicarbonate: 18 mmol/lWhat is the most appropriate management for the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange haemodialysis
Explanation:The presentation of the patient is typical of chronic lithium toxicity (due to the presence of mainly neurological manifestations). Additional to the blood investigations mentioned, urine analysis, electrolyte levels, and renal function should also be performed. A low urine Anion gap and a low urine specific gravity are highly suggestive of lithium toxicity.ECG obtained in this patient is likely to show: nonspecific, diffuse ST segment depression with T wave inversion.Acute lithium toxicity presents with more GI manifestations while, the clinical features of chronic lithium toxicity are mainly neurological and can include:Coarse tremors (fine tremors are seen in therapeutic levels), hyperreflexia, acute confusion, seizures, and coma.The management of lithium toxicity is as follows:Immediate GI decontamination with gastric lavage (in case of acute intoxication)Saline Administrations: the goal of saline administration is to restore GFR, normalize urine output and enhance lithium clearance.Haemodialysis remains the mainstay treatment for lithium toxicity as lithium is readily dialyzed because of water solubility, low volume of distribution, and lack of protein binding.The Extracorporeal Treatments in Poisoning Workgroup (EXTRIP Workgroup) recommendations for dialysis (extracorporeal treatment) in lithium toxicity include:• Impaired kidney function and lithium levels > 4.0 mEq/L• Decreased consciousness, seizures, or life-threatening dysrhythmias, regardless of lithium levels• Levels are > 5.0 mEq/L, significant confusion is noted, or the expected time to reduce levels to < 1.0 mEq/L is more than 36 hoursAs post-dialysis rebound elevations in lithium levels have been documented, continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) has been advocated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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