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  • Question 1 - All the following arteries contribute to the blood supply of the hip joint...

    Correct

    • All the following arteries contribute to the blood supply of the hip joint except:

      Your Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the hip joint is from two main arteries, the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries. These are branches of the deep artery of the thigh, which itself is a branch of the femoral artery. There is contribution of blood supply from the inferior gluteals, foveal and obturator arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the...

    Correct

    • The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the head that tenses the soft palate. Which of the following structures is associated with the tensor villi palatini muscle?

      Your Answer: The hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate

      Explanation:

      The pterygoid hamulus is a hook-like process at the lower extremity of the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone around which the tendon of the tensor veli palatini passes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Lateral spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: Gracile nucleus

      Explanation:

      The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.

      The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia on Pap smear of a 34-year old lady is most...

    Correct

    • Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia on Pap smear of a 34-year old lady is most likely associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus infection

      Explanation:

      CIN (Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia) is considered a precursor of cervical cancer and is likely caused due to infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16, 18, 31, 33, 35 or 39. The risk factors for cervical cancer include multiple sex partners, young age at the time of first intercourse, intercourse with men whose previous partners had cervical cancer. Also, smoking and immunodeficient states are considered contributory. CIN is graded as mild (grade I), moderate (grade II) and severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ (grade III). CIN III rarely regresses spontaneously and can lead to invasive carcinoma by invading the basement membrane. Squamous cell carcinomas are the commonest cervical cancer seen in 80-85% of all cases. Others are commonly adenocarcinomas. Cervical cancer can spread by direct extension, lymphatic spread to pelvic and para-aortic nodes or by hematogenous route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node...

    Correct

    • An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node metastasis. The doctor said he will excise the tumour and remove all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the edge of the pectoralis minor muscle. One of the following axillary lymph nodes won't be removed by this procedure. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Apical

      Explanation:

      The apical lymph node group won’t be removed which include 20 to 30 lymph nodes.

      Axillary lymph nodes are grouped according to location. The lateral group, the anterior to pectoral group, the posterior or subscapular group, the central group, and the medial or apical group. The lateral, pectoral, and subscapular groups are found lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle. The central group is situated directly under that muscle. Thus, if all lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed, all the above four groups will be removed. The apical group won’t be removed which is situated medial to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The...

    Correct

    • A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Inferior lobe

      Explanation:

      The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.

      The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.

      The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.

      The middle lobe is only found on the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 78-year-old diabetic man undergoes renal function tests. Which of the following substances...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old diabetic man undergoes renal function tests. Which of the following substances will be the most accurate for measuring glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

      Your Answer: Inulin

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. Clinically, this is often measured to determine renal function. Inulin was originally used as it is not reabsorbed by the kidney after glomerular filtration, therefore its rate of excretion is directly proportional to the rate of filtration of water and solutes across the glomerular filter. However, in clinical practice, creatinine clearance is used to measure GFR. Creatinine is an endogenous molecule, synthesised in the body, that is freely filtered by the glomerulus (but also secreted by the renal tubules in very small amounts). Creatinine clearance exceeds GFR due to creatinine secretion, and is therefore a close approximation of the GFR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the role of factor VII in coagulation? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of factor VII in coagulation?

      Your Answer: Initiates the process of coagulation in conjunction with tissue factor

      Explanation:

      The main role of factor VII is to initiate the process of coagulation along with tissue factor (TF). TF is found in the blood vessels and is not normally exposed to the bloodstream. When a vessel is injured tissue factor is exposed to blood and circulating factor VII. Factor VII is converted to VIIa by TF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured...

    Correct

    • During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured his pelvis and shattered his coccyx following a motorbike accident. It is mentioned that he is likely to have lacerated his middle sacral artery from this kind of injury. Where does the middle sacral artery branch from?

      Your Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      The middle sacral artery arises from behind the aorta a little above the point of its bifurcation to descend down in front of L4,5, the sacrum and coccyx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:

      Your Answer: Sigmoid artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old man complains of shortness of breath, cough and chest pain. Chest...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man complains of shortness of breath, cough and chest pain. Chest X ray revealed a perihilar mass with bronchiectasis in the left mid-lung. Which of the following is most probably associated with these findings?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Bronchial carcinoids are neuroendocrine tumours that arise from Kulchitsky’s cells of the bronchial epithelium. Kulchitsky’s cells belong to the diffuse endocrine system. Patients affected by this tumour may be asymptomatic or may present with symptoms of airway obstruction, like dyspnoea, wheezing, and cough. Other common findings are recurrent pneumonia, haemoptysis, chest pain and paraneoplastic syndromes. Chest radiographs are abnormal in the majority of cases. Peripheral carcinoids usually present as a solitary pulmonary nodule. For central lesions common findings include hilar or perihilar masses with or without atelectasis, bronchiectasis, or consolidation. Bronchial carcinoids most commonly arise in the large bronchi causing obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior...

    Correct

    • A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior surface of his wrist was lacerated with loss of sensation over the thumb side of his palm. Which nerves have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      The median nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the palmar radial three and a half fingers. Also the site of injury indicates that the medial nerve may have been injured as it passes into the hand by crossing over the anterior wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle: ...

    Correct

    • To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle:

      Your Answer: Buccinator muscle

      Explanation:

      The parotid duct or Stensen duct is a duct and the route that saliva takes from the major salivary gland, the parotid gland into the mouth. The parotid duct is formed when several interlobular ducts—the largest ducts inside the parotid gland join. It emerges from the gland and runs forward along the lateral side of the masseter muscle. In this course, the duct is surrounded by the buccal fat pad. It takes a steep turn at the border of the masseter and passes through the buccinator muscle, opening into the vestibule of the mouth, between the cheek and the gums, at the parotid papilla, which lies across the second superior molar tooth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure that articulates with the tubercle of the 7th rib. Which structure is fractured?

      Your Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T7

      Explanation:

      A rib tubercle is a projection that is postero-inferior and lateral to the neck of a rib which articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebra i.e. of the same number. Therefore, the tubercle of rib 7 articulates with the transverse process of T7 vertebra. The head of the rib 7, on the other hand, articulates with the 6th vertebra superiorly and the 7th vertebra inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect: ...

    Correct

    • Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect:

      Your Answer: Initiation of abduction of the humerus

      Explanation:

      This muscle arises from the medial two-thirds of the supraspinatus fossa and from the supraspinatus fascia. It is inserted into the highest impression on the greater tubercle of the humerus after passing over the upper part of the shoulder joint. It works with the deltoid to raise the arm from the side of the trunk and initiate abduction. It also assists in fixation of the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 80–100 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 31–37 g/dl. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s erythrocytes:

      Your Answer: Normal MCV

      Explanation:

      MCV is the mean corpuscular volume and it is calculated from the haematocrit and the RBC count. It is normally 90 fl. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) [g/dl] = haemoglobin [g/dl]/haematocrit = 11/0.27 = 41 g/dl and is higher than normal range (32 to 36 g/dL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the...

    Correct

    • Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the inguinal ligament?

      Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The inguinal ligament is the inferior border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis and extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle from whence it is reflected backward and laterally to attach to the pectineal line and form the lacunar ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      470.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is the most common germ cell tumour of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common germ cell tumour of the testis affecting an adult male?

      Your Answer: Seminoma

      Explanation:

      Germ cell tumours represent 90% of primary tumours arising in the testis. They are broadly divided into seminomas and non-seminomas. Seminomas are the most common testicular germ cell tumour seen in 40% cases. The other non-seminomatous histological subtypes include embryonal (25%), teratocarcinoma (25%), teratoma (5%) and pure choriocarcinoma (1%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      341.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of the right mediastinal lymph nodes. What is the nodal staging according to the TNM staging?

      Your Answer: N4

      Correct Answer: N2

      Explanation:

      The N stages for lung cancer are from NO to N3 : NO, there is no lung cancer in any lymph nodes: N1, there is lung cancer in the proximal lymph nodes: N2, there is lung cancer in the mediastinal hilar lymph nodes, but on the same side as the affected lung or there is lung cancer in the carinal lymph nodes: N3, there is metastatic lung cancer in lymph nodes on the opposite side of the chest, in the cervical or apical lymph nodes. In this patient the ipsilateral mediastinal node is involved, thus it is classified as N2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The mandibular nerve, which is the largest of the 3 divisions of the...

    Correct

    • The mandibular nerve, which is the largest of the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve, exits the cranial cavity through which foramen?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      67.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall...

    Correct

    • During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall of the rectus sheath ends in a thin curved margin whose concavity is directed downwards. What is the name of this inferior border of the rectus sheath?

      Your Answer: Arcuate line

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is a tendinous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It covers the entire anterior surface however on the posterior surface of the muscle the sheath is incomplete ending inferiorly at the arcuate line. Below the arcuate line, the rectus abdominis is covered by the transversalis fascia. The linea alba is a band of aponeurosis on the midline of the anterior abdominal wall, which extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis. It is formed by the combined abdominal muscle aponeuroses. This is a useful site for midline incision during abdominal surgery because it does not carry many blood vessels. All of the other answer choices are related to the inguinal canal.

      The falx inguinalis (sometimes called the inguinal falx or conjoint tendon), is the inferomedial attachment of the transversus abdominis with some fibres of the internal abdominal oblique – it contributes to the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The inguinal ligament is the ligament that connects the anterior superior iliac spine with the pubic tubercle – it makes the floor of the inguinal canal.

      The internal (deep) inguinal ring is the entrance to the inguinal canal, where the transversalis fascia pouches out and creates an opening through which structures can leave the abdominal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      431.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid...

    Correct

    • The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid that has been filtered by the glomerulus. Which of the following substances is actively secreted into the renal tubules?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      The renal corpuscle filters out solutes from the blood, delivering water and small solutes to the renal tubule for modification. In normal circumstances more than 90% of the filtered load of K is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and loops of Henlé and almost all K appearing in the urine has been secreted by the late distal tubules and collecting tubules. So the rate of excretion is usually independent of the rate of filtration, but is closely tied to the rate of secretion and control of K excretion, largely accomplished by control of the secretion rate. Around 65–70% of the filtered potassium is reabsorbed along with water in the proximal tubule and the concentration of potassium in the tubular fluid varies little from that of the plasma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged thrombin clotting...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged thrombin clotting time?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII deficiency

      Correct Answer: Hypofibrinogenemia

      Explanation:

      Thrombin clotting time, also called thrombin time (TT), is test used for the investigation of possible bleeding or clotting disorders. TT reflects the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and it’s also very sensitive to the presence of the anticoagulant heparin. A prolonged thrombin time may indicate the presence of hypofibrinogenemia (decreased fibrinogen level ), dysfibrinogenaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), end stage liver disease or malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - what is the cause of a prolonged PT(prothrombin time)? ...

    Incorrect

    • what is the cause of a prolonged PT(prothrombin time)?

      Your Answer: Heparin therapy

      Correct Answer: Liver disease

      Explanation:

      PT measure the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It determines the measure of the warfarin dose regime, liver disease and vit K deficiency status along with the clotting tendency of blood. PT measured factors are II,V,VII,X and fibrinogen. It is used along with aPTT which measure the intrinsic pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?

      Your Answer: Nucleated red blood cells

      Correct Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve?

      Your Answer: Buccinator

      Explanation:

      Buccinator is a muscle of facial expression and is therefore innervated by the facial nerve. The lateral pterygoid, masseter, anterior belly of digastric and temporalis are all muscles of mastication and therefore innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck; Neurology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer: Sulphonamides

      Explanation:

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein?

      Your Answer: Left suprarenal

      Explanation:

      The left suprarenal vein empties into the left renal vein which crosses the vertebral column to reach the inferior vena cava. The left renal vein also receives the left gonadal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood...

    Correct

    • A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood group is not known, but on testing it clotted when mixed with Type A antibodies. Which blood should be transfused?

      Your Answer: B +ve

      Explanation:

      There are two stages to determine the blood group, known as ABO typing. The first stage is called forward typing. In this method, RBCs are mixed with two separate solutions of type A or type B antibodies to see if they agglutinate. If this blood clumps, this indicates the presence of antigens within the blood sample. For example, a sample of type B blood will clump when tested with type A antibodies as it contains type B antigens. Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)

      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. Those who have not are called Rh–. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. The patient’s blood group is B positive as he has antigen B, antibody A and Rh antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod?

      Your Answer: Clostridium tetani

      Explanation:

      Gram-positive rods include Clostridia, Listeria and diphtheroids.

      Gram-negative rods include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Yersinia, Haemohilus, Pseudomonas, Shigella, Legionella, proteus and Salmonella

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of...

    Correct

    • What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of complex foodstuffs?

      Your Answer: Hydrolysis

      Explanation:

      Breakdown of complex food into simpler compounds is achieved by hydrolysis, with the help of different enzymes specific for different compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Correct

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in: ...

    Correct

    • Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in:

      Your Answer: Hyperaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of thalamic syndrome include contralateral hemi anaesthesia, burning or aching sensation in one half of a body (hyperaesthesia), often accompanied by mood swings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?

      Your Answer: CHOP

      Correct Answer: ABVD

      Explanation:

      ABVD is a chemotherapy regimen used in the first-line treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It consists of concurrent treatment with the chemotherapy drugs, adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine. It supplanted the older MOPP protocol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - QT interval in the electrocardiogram of a healthy individual is normally: ...

    Correct

    • QT interval in the electrocardiogram of a healthy individual is normally:

      Your Answer: 0.40 s

      Explanation:

      QT interval extends from beginning of the QRS complex till the end of he T-wave and normally lasts for 0.40 s. It is important in the diagnosis of long-QT and short-QT syndrome. The QT interval varies on the basis of heart rate and may need to be corrected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing...

    Incorrect

    • The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing an indirect inguinal hernia in a female patient. Which structure could this be?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The main structure traversing the inguinal canal in women is the round ligament. In men, it is the spermatic cord.

      The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the abdominal wall and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles before piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to run between the internal and external obliques.

      The inferior epigastric artery is between the peritoneum and the transversus abdominis creating the lateral umbilical fold.

      The ovarian artery and the ovarian vein are branches from the descending aorta and inferior vena cava that supply the ovary in the pelvic cavity.

      The pectineal ligament is a thick fascial layer over the pectineal line of the pubis. It doesn’t traverse the canal.

      The broad ligament if found on the lateral sides of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Normally, the O2 transfer in the lungs from alveolar to capillary is perfusion-limited....

    Correct

    • Normally, the O2 transfer in the lungs from alveolar to capillary is perfusion-limited. In which of the following situations does it become a diffusion-limited process?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Normally, the transfer of oxygen from air spaces to blood takes place across the alveolar-capillary membrane by simple diffusion and depends entirely on the amount of blood flow (perfusion-limited process). Diseases that affect this diffusion will transform the normal process to a diffusion limited process. Thus, the diseases which cause a thickened barrier (such as pulmonary oedema due to increased extravascular lung water or asbestosis) will limit the diffusion of oxygen. Chronic obstructive lung diseases will have little effect on diffusion. Inhaling hyperbaric gas mixtures might overcome the diffusion limitation in patients with mild asbestosis or interstitial oedema, by increasing the driving force. Strenuous (not mild) exercise might also favour diffusion limitation and decrease passage time. Increasing the rate of ventilation will not have this affect but will only maintain a high oxygen gradient from air to blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle?

      Your Answer: Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)

      Explanation:

      The moderator band extends from the base of the anterior papillary muscle to the ventricular septum. It is the structure which carries part of the right AV bundle. Its role it to prevent overdistention of the ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with...

    Correct

    • A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with fever for the past 2 months. A chest x ray revealed a diffuse bilateral reticulonodular pattern. A transbronchial biopsy was performed and histological examination showed focal areas of inflammation with epithelioid macrophages, Langhans cells and lymphocytes. Which of the immune reaction is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      A reactivated tuberculosis with granuloma formation is characteristic of type IV reaction. It is also called a delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction and takes around 2-8 days to deliver. It is a cell mediated response with the involvement of CD8 and CD4 cells and the release of IL-1 from macrophages that further activate these CD cells.

      Granulomatous reactions are mostly cell-mediated.

      Type I reactions are allergic and anaphylactic reactions and type II are complement-mediated immune reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?...

    Correct

    • The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?

      Your Answer: Ischial tuberosities

      Explanation:

      The perineum has it’s deep boundaries in front of the pubic arch and the arcuate ligament of the pubis, behind the tip of the coccyx and on either side of the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium and the sacrotuberous ligament. It also corresponds to the outlet of the pelvis. A line drawn transversely across, in front of the ischial tuberosities divides the space into two portions, the posterior contains the termination of the anal canal and the anterior, contains the external urogenital organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 35 year old patient presenting with haematemesis, heart burn and bloody stool...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old patient presenting with haematemesis, heart burn and bloody stool was diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer that had eroded the gastroduodenal artery. The patient was then rushed into theatre for an emergency procedure to control the haemorrhage. If the surgeon decided to ligate the gastroduodenal artery at its origin, which of the following arteries would most likely experience retrograde blood flow from collateral sources as a result of the ligation?

      Your Answer: Left gastric

      Correct Answer: Right gastroepiploic

      Explanation:

      In the stomach and around the duodenum, there are many arterial anastomoses. Ligation of the gastroduodenal artery would result in the retrograde flow of blood from the left gastroepiploic artery to the right gastroepiploic artery. The blood flows into the right gastroepiploic artery, a branch of the gastroduodenal artery from the left gastroepiploic artery that branches from the splenic artery. This retrograde blood flow is aimed at providing alternate blood flow to the greater curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      347
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following structures lying posterior to the ovary are at risk...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures lying posterior to the ovary are at risk of injury in excision of a malignant tumour in the right ovary?

      Your Answer: Ureter

      Explanation:

      The ovaries are two nodular structures situated one on either side of the uterus in relation to the lateral wall of the pelvis and attached to the back of the broad ligament of the uterus, lying posteroinferiorly to the fallopian tubes. Each ovary has a lateral and medial surface. The ureter is at greater risk of iatrogenic injury at this location.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Muscles and tendons in the planter region of the foot mainly take blood...

    Correct

    • Muscles and tendons in the planter region of the foot mainly take blood supply from:

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial artery is the main source of blood supply to the posterior compartment of the leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following substances is most likely to cause pulmonary vasodilatation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following substances is most likely to cause pulmonary vasodilatation?

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      In the body, nitric oxide is synthesised from arginine and oxygen by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and by sequential reduction of inorganic nitrate. The endothelium of blood vessels uses nitric oxide to signal the surrounding smooth muscle to relax, so dilating the artery and increasing blood flow. Nitric oxide/oxygen blends are used in critical care to promote capillary and pulmonary dilation to treat primary pulmonary hypertension in neonatal patients post-meconium aspiration and related to birth defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to...

    Correct

    • In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?

      Your Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      153.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?

      Your Answer: Internal pudendal vein

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with: ...

    Incorrect

    • Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with:

      Your Answer: Hypertonia

      Correct Answer: Penile erections

      Explanation:

      Normal sleep comprises of alternate cycles between slow-wave sleep (non-REM sleep) and REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by increased metabolic brain activity and EEG desynchronization. Somnambulism (sleepwalking), enuresis (bedwetting) and night terrors all occur during slow-wave sleep or during arousal from slow-wave sleep. In comparison, REM sleep is characterized by hypotonia of major muscle groups (excluding ocular muscles), dreams, nightmares and penile erection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where? ...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where?

      Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

      Explanation:

      The adrenal gland comprises an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which represent two developmentally and functionally independent endocrine glands.

      The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline (70%) and noradrenaline (30%)

      The adrenal cortex consists of three layers (remembered by the mnemonic GFR):

      G = zona glomerulosa – secretes aldosterone

      F = zona fasciculata – secretes cortisol and sex steroids

      R = zona reticularis – secretes cortisol and sex steroids.

      Aldosterone facilitates the reabsorption of sodium and water and the excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Conn’s syndrome is characterized by increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral...

    Correct

    • In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral artery located?

      Your Answer: Lateral compartment

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath also known as the crural sheath is made up of three compartments; lateral, intermediate and the medial. The femoral artery is contained in the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath while the femoral vein is in the intermediate compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Right postcentral gyrus

      Correct Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex

      Explanation:

      A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a diagnosis of perforation of the first part of the duodenum that resulted from a long standing ulcer. If this perforation led to the expulsion of the gastric content that resulted to the erosion of an artery found in this part of the duodenum (the posterior of the first part of the duodenum). Which of the following arteries is this most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The proximal part of the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery. This artery is found descending behind the first part of the duodenum after branching from the hepatic artery. If gastric content was to be expelled in the posterior portion of the first part of the duodenum, then this artery would be most likely to be damaged. The common hepatic artery and the left gastric artery are branches of the coeliac trunk that are found superior to the duodenum. The proper hepatic artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery also found superior to the duodenum. The superior mesenteric artery is found behind the pancreas as a branch of the aorta that is at the bottom of the L1 level. The right gastric artery arises above the pylorus from the proper hepatic artery and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach. The intestinal arteries supply the ileum and the jejunum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      65
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - In what form are fats primarily transported in the body? ...

    Correct

    • In what form are fats primarily transported in the body?

      Your Answer: Free fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Fat is mainly transported in the body as free fatty acids. Once out of the adipose cell, the free fatty acids get ionized and combine with albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion...

    Correct

    • Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion at the site of the sting . Which of the following findings is likely to be seen in this lesion?

      Your Answer: Vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Inflammation is the immediate response of the body towards infections or irritations. The cardinal signs of inflammation are 1. redness/rubor, 2. tumour/swelling, 3.dolar/pain, 4.calor/heat and organ dysfunction (function laesa). Inflammation has 2 components; vascular and cellular. Blood vessels dilate upstream of the inflamed area leading to the rubor and calor and constrict downstream, increasing pressure and causing fluid to leak out of the capillary, resulting in swelling. The cellular component includes infiltration by neutrophils. Leukocyte arrival and functions include; 1. margination: cells marginated from the centre to the periphery of the vessel, 2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls, 3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes resulting in adhesion, 4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product and 5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical removal of the gland, which artery is vulnerable to injury?

      Your Answer: External carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a major artery of the head and neck. It arises from the common carotid artery when it splits into the external and internal carotid artery. It supplies blood to the face and neck. The external carotid artery begins opposite the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and, taking a slightly curved course, passes upward and forward and then inclines backward to the space behind the neck of the mandible, where it divides into the superficial temporal and internal maxillary arteries. It rapidly diminishes in size in its course up the neck, owing to the number and large size of the branches given off from it. At its origin, this artery is more superficial and placed nearer the midline than the internal carotid and is contained within the carotid triangle. The external carotid artery is covered by the skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep fascia and anterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid. It is crossed by the hypoglossal nerve, by the lingual, ranine, common facial and superior thyroid veins; and by the digastric and stylohyoid; higher up it passes deeply into the substance of the parotid gland, where it lies deep to the facial nerve and the junction of the temporal and internal maxillary veins. It is here that it is in danger during surgery of the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One...

    Correct

    • A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One day after the surgery patient complained of numbness of the skin over the right side of the neck. Injury to the cervical plexus of nerves is suspected. What is the possible nerve affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Transverse cervical

      Explanation:

      The transverse cervical nerve (superficial cervical or cutaneous cervical) arises from the second and third spinal nerves, turns around the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and, passing obliquely forward beneath the external jugular vein to the anterior border of the muscle, it perforates the deep cervical fascia, and divides beneath the platysma into the ascending and descending branches. It provides cutaneous innervation to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      320.2
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition that occurs in critically...

    Correct

    • Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition that occurs in critically ill patients, and can be triggered by events such as trauma and sepsis. Which of the following variables is most likely to be lower than normal in a patient with ARDS?

      Your Answer: Lung compliance

      Explanation:

      Acute (or Adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition occurring in critically ill patients characterized by widespread inflammation in the lungs. The development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) starts with damage to the alveolar epithelium and vascular endothelium, resulting in increased permeability to plasma and inflammatory cells. These cells pass into the interstitium and alveolar space, resulting in pulmonary oedema. Damage to the surfactant-producing type II cells and the presence of protein-rich fluid in the alveolar space disrupt the production and function of pulmonary surfactant, leading to micro atelectasis and impaired gas exchange. The pathophysiological consequences of lung oedema in ARDS include a decrease in lung volumes, compliance and large intrapulmonary shunts. ARDS may be seen in the setting of pneumonia, sepsis, following trauma, multiple blood transfusions, severe burns, severe pancreatitis, near-drowning, drug reactions, or inhalation injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - In a hypertensive patient with secondary hyperaldosteronism, aldosterone is released mainly in response...

    Correct

    • In a hypertensive patient with secondary hyperaldosteronism, aldosterone is released mainly in response to:

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Secondary hyperaldosteronism in hypertension is either due to primary renin overproduction by the kidneys or renin overproduction secondary to decreased renal blood flow. The main stimulus for aldosterone release are adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), angiotensin II and high plasma K+ levels. Low plasma Na+ might also stimulate the adrenal cortex. Fluid overload will reduce aldosterone secretion. Atrial natriuretic peptide is secreted under conditions of expanded extracellular volume and will not lead to aldosterone secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate?

      Your Answer: Lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The macrophage originates from a committed bone marrow stem cell. It is called the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell. This differentiates into a monoblast and then into a promonocyte and finally matures into a monocyte. When called upon they leave the bone marrow and enter into the circulation. Upon entering the tissue they transform into macrophages. Tissue macrophages include: Kupffer cells (liver), alveolar macrophages (lung), osteoclasts (bone), Langerhans cells (skin), microglial cells (central nervous system), and possibly the dendritic immunocytes of the dermis, spleen and lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front...

    Incorrect

    • The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle:

      Your Answer: Transverse cervical

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery is an artery in the neck. It arises from the thyrocervical trunk and passes upward, in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      35.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (24/28) 86%
Lower Limb (3/3) 100%
Head & Neck (6/7) 86%
Neurology (2/5) 40%
Physiology (15/19) 79%
Pathology (8/13) 62%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (3/3) 100%
Thorax (3/3) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
General (3/4) 75%
Abdomen (5/8) 63%
Respiratory (4/4) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Head & Neck; Neurology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (3/3) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Passmed