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  • Question 1 - A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Nasogastric decompression, broad spectrum antibiotics and immediate surgery for suspected recurrent volvulus

      Correct Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery

      Explanation:

      Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following...

    Correct

    • Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Hypercalcemia occurs in association with which of the following diseases? ...

    Correct

    • Hypercalcemia occurs in association with which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcemia refers to increased serum calcium levels and is characterized by a number of significant constellations, including polyuria, muscle weakness, abdominal pain, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias. The causes of hypercalcemia can be classified as PTH-dependant causes and PTH-independent causes. The causes can be both congenital and acquired. The most common cause of PTH-dependent hypercalcemia is the primary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism, resulting from parathyroid gland tumours. Hyperparathyroidism is also associated with chronic renal failure. PTH-independent hypercalcemia is caused by William’s syndrome, hypervitaminosis (vitamin A and D intoxication), endocrinopathies (hyperthyroidism), various drugs (thiazide diuretics), and some inborn errors of metabolism. One of the congenital causes of PTH-independent hypercalcemia is idiopathic infantile hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A child suffering from a chest infection is prescribed flucloxacillin. A few days...

    Correct

    • A child suffering from a chest infection is prescribed flucloxacillin. A few days later, he develops jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. What is he suffering from now?

      Your Answer: Cholestatic jaundice

      Explanation:

      Due to its cholestatic properties, Flucloxacillin can block bile flow through the liver, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, giving rise to jaundice. Dark urine is the result of excessive bilirubin in the blood being filtered by the kidney. As the bile doesn’t move into the small intestine, stools are pale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT team

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he...

    Correct

    • A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?

      Your Answer: Treat when ill

      Explanation:

      At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 2 year old male is able to run down the stairs and...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old male is able to run down the stairs and say mama and dada. He can understand what he is saying and can say one word. How is this child developing?

      Your Answer: Delayed speech

      Explanation:

      This child is experiencing delayed speech. By the age of 2, a child should be able to combine at least 2 words to make a very simple sentence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan,...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan, generalized stiffness, swollen wrists and fingers and lower extremity oedema bilaterally. There is a facial rash over her cheeks and palms. She complains that while combing her hair, she has started to notice hair loss. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Low serum complement levels

      Explanation:

      Complement activation plays a key role in the pathophysiology of SLE and it is recommended to continue monitoring serum levels of C3 and C4 to assess for disease activity. However, it is important to note that decreased serum complement is not consistently associated with disease flares.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his friends after...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his friends after he collapsed at a dance club and developed jerky movements of his upper limbs. On further questioning, it is revealed that the boy has been clumsier than usual and has frequently been dropping his toothbrush while brushing his teeth in the morning. From the drugs provided below, which one should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is an epilepsy syndrome characterized by myoclonic jerks, generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCSs), and sometimes, absence seizures. The seizures of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy often occur when people first awaken in the morning. Seizures can be triggered by lack of sleep, extreme fatigue, stress, or alcohol consumption. Onset typically occurs around adolescence in otherwise healthy children. The causes of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy are very complex and not completely understood. Mutations in one of several genes, including the GABRA1 and the EFHC1 genes, can cause or increase susceptibility to this condition. Although patients usually require lifelong treatment with anticonvulsants, their overall prognosis is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 3-year-old girl presents with pallor and marked gland enlargement. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with pallor and marked gland enlargement. She has been unwell for the past three weeks. She had a full term normal delivery with no neonatal problems. Her immunisations are up to date. There is no family or social history of note. On examination, her temperature is 37.6°C, and she looks pale and unwell. She has a few petechiae on the neck and palate, with moderate generalised lymphadenopathy and a 3 cm spleen. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma: The history is of enlarged reticuloendothelial system with abnormalities in all 3 cell lines of the bone marrow (pallor, fever and petechiae). The most likely diagnosis is therefore acute (lymphoblastic) leukaemia. Lymphadenopathy may be prominent: mediastinal nodes are characteristic of T-cell leukaemia. In lymphoma the marrow involvement tends to be much less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains of anaesthesia of the web spaces between his first and second toes. Injury to which of the following nerves leads to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Long saphenous nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve lies in the anterior muscular compartment of the lower leg and can be compromised by compartment syndrome affecting this area. It provides cutaneous sensation to the first web space. The superficial peroneal nerve provides more lateral cutaneous innervation.Origin: It originates from the common peroneal nerve, at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to peroneus longus. Root values of common peroneal nerve: L4, L5, S1, and S2.Course and relation: It pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Following which, it passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.Throughout the course it innervates:- Tibialis anterior- Extensor hallucis longus- Extensor digitorum longus- Peroneus tertius- Extensor digitorum brevisAt its termination, it innervates the skin in the web space between the first and second toes.Actions performed by the muscles supplied by the nerve:- Dorsiflexion of ankle joint- Extension of all toes- Inversion of the foot

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent chest infections. CXR showed an absent thymic shadow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Downs syndrome

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge syndrome usually presents at a young age with abnormal faces. Chest x-ray is characterised by an absent thymic shadow and recurrent infections due to an abnormal T-cell mediated immune response. Sometimes it presents by convulsions of the new-born due to hypocalcaemia as a result of a malfunctioning parathyroid gland and low levels of PTH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: High calorie and low fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for evening meal

      Correct Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal

      Explanation:

      The management of cystic fibrosis requires a multidisciplinary approach, starting with a planned diet.The critical points of this management approach are:Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage – the parents are usually taught to do this.Deep breathing exercises,High calorie, high fat intake with vitamin supplementation.Pancreatic enzyme supplements with meals.Heart-lung transplantation would be the definitive treatment.Note: Previously, a high-calorie, low-fat diet was recommended to reduce steatorrhea. However, it is no longer the desired approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      70.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the ear has been itchy over the past few days but has become excruciatingly painful today. On examination, she appears uncomfortable at rest but otherwise well. Her observations are within normal limits. Otoscopy is difficult as the girl flinches in pain, the ear canal appears oedematous. The tympanic membrane is difficult to see with oedema and discharge present in the external canal. The oropharynx seems normal with no erythema or tonsillar exudate. What is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the patient has features suggestive of acute otitis externa, which can be managed with topic antibiotics.Otitis externa:It can be classified as acute (< 3 weeks) or chronic (> 3 months). Frequent exposure to water, e.g. swimming, is a risk factor for the condition. Itching, pain, hearing loss and discharge are common complaints. Examination demonstrates oedema of the external auditory canal with discharge. Pain may be elicited on the movement of the tragus or pinna. First-line treatment is with topical drops/sprays for one week. Acidic preparations such as 2% acetic acid, antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations may be used (1% hydrocortisone and 0.3% gentamicin). Acetic acid can be used as the first-line treatment for mild cases without discharge or hearing impairment. On selecting an appropriate topical preparation remember that topical aminoglycosides are contraindicated if the tympanic membrane is perforated and that chloramphenicol ear drops cause contact dermatitis in approximately 10% of people. Clinoquinol, a combination of antibacterial and antifungal, may be preferred over aminoglycoside containing preparations due to the theoretical lower risk of ototoxicity and dermatitis. However, there is no clear evidence to support the use of one topical preparation over another.Other options:- Admit for IV antibiotics: First line management is with analgesia and topical antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations. Thus, IV antibiotics is not an appropriate action.- Oral antibiotics: Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin or erythromycin are considered only for severe infections such as the spread of cellulitis beyond the ear canal. – Reassurance is not sufficient to treat these patients. They require topic antibiotic therapy.- Referral to ENT: Should be considered only in case of treatment failure. ENT referral can also be considered if there is cellulitis extending past the margin of the external ear canal, extreme pain or extensive swelling and discharge likely to require suction or the insertion of an ear wick. Urgent ENT referral is reserved for suspected cases of malignant otitis externa (with the extension of the condition into the adjacent bone and spreading osteomyelitis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. On examination, the maximum tenderness was at the McBurney's point. What is the surface landmark of McBurney's point?

      Your Answer: 1/3rd laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine

      Correct Answer: 2/3rds laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine

      Explanation:

      McBurney’s point is found 2/3rds of the way along an imaginary line that runs from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine on the right-hand side. On examination, features of generalised peritonitis can be observed if the appendix has perforated.Retrocecal appendicitis may have relatively fewer signs.Digital rectal examination may reveal boggy sensation if a pelvic abscess is present.Diagnosis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers coupled with compatible history, and examination findings.Ultrasound is useful in females where pelvic organ pathology can be a close differential diagnosis. Although it is not always possible to visualise the appendix on ultrasound, the presence of free fluid (always pathological in males) should raise suspicion. Ultrasound examination can also show evidence of luminal obstruction and thickening of the appendix.Management: Definitive management of appendicitis and appendicular perforation is appendicectomy which can be performed via either an open or laparoscopic approach.Simultaneous administration of metronidazole reduces wound infection rates. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage. Patients without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep'...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep' pain during intercourse and pain on defecation during this time. She states that her periods are regular with little bleeding.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavityAbout one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:- Dysmenorrhea- Heavy or irregular bleeding- Pelvic pain- Lower abdominal or back pain – Dyspareunia- Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation- Bloating, nausea, and vomiting- Inguinal pain- Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency- Pain during exercise- Patients with endometriosis do not frequently have any physical examination findings beyond tenderness related to the site of involvement. – The most common finding is nonspecific pelvic tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 38.5℃ and acute abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 38.5℃ and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. On examination, he’s found to be tachycardic. Abdominal examination reveals guarding. An ultrasound scan shows gall stones in the gall bladder, free fluid in the pelvis and an appendix with a diameter of 8 mm.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sickle Cell Crisis

      Correct Answer: Acute Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is acute appendicitis.Acute appendicitis presents typically with central abdominal pain migrating to the right iliac fossa, anorexia, nausea and fever. The temperature usually does not go beyond 40C. Although appendicitis is a clinical diagnosis, an ultrasound scan showing an appendix width of greater than 6mm is diagnostic.Pyrexia, guarding, and pain are all in keeping with appendicitis.Other options:- Cholecystitis is very rare in children, and although gall stones are present, there is no jaundice or biliary tree dilatation suggested by the scan.- Impacted Gall Stone: There is no mention of common bile duct dilatation in the clinical scenario.- Sickle Cell Crisis: A sickle cell crisis should not cause guarding, or an ultrasound scan finding of a dilated appendix base.- Gastroenteritis: Gastroenteritis would not produce the ultrasound scan findings described above with a thickened appendix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?

      Your Answer: Erythema Nodosum and topical tetracycline

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis and Vitamin D analogues

      Explanation:

      One of the options of Psoriasis treatment is vitamin D analogues i.e. calcipotriol. Acne is exacerbated by steroids. Erythema nodosum can be caused by various diseases and the treatment of the primary condition resolves the symptoms. Lipomas requires surgery, whereas Steven-Johnson syndrome requires use of steroids and eliminating the culprit drug, which is one of the most common causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 5 week old boy presents for developmental assessment. Clinical examination reveals a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old boy presents for developmental assessment. Clinical examination reveals a bluish, well-circumscribed lesion located on the bridge of the nose. It measures 5 mm in diameter and feels firm to the touch. Parents admit that the mass was not present at birth. They have noticed that the lesion gets bigger when the baby cries and then it gets back to its initial size. Doctors suspect a capillary haemangioma. What would you advise the parents?

      Your Answer: Reassure parents that it is likely to heal without scarring with time

      Correct Answer: Arrange follow-up for the child in the outpatient clinic to monitor the growth of the lesion over the coming weeks

      Explanation:

      Capillary haemangiomas (strawberry naevi) are very common benign tumours that may appear in infancy. This particular case requires a close follow-up to monitor the naevus’ size and make sure it doesn’t expand or gets bigger, affecting the baby’s visual field.It is more common in preterm babies and girls are 3x more commonly affected than boys. It presents at birth in 30%, and is a focal and solitary in 80% of cases, most commonly found on the head and neck (60%), followed by the trunk (25%) and extremities (15%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has not responded to over a year of medical management.A colonoscopy-guided biopsy has ruled out Hirschsprung's disease.Which of the following procedures would be appropriate in the surgical management of this child?

      Your Answer: Laparotomy and resection megarectum

      Correct Answer: Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate procedure in the surgical management of this child would be to perform an appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas (Malone procedure).Idiopathic constipation leading to faecal incontinence is managed in a stepwise progression, first with laxatives such as movicol, enemas and stronger laxatives and in younger children inter-sphincteric injection of botox may be performed. Following this either anal irrigation or antegrade continence enemas are performed. Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas allow colonic washouts and thereby rapid achievement of continence.Other options:- Defunctioning Ileostomy: Although an option in extreme cases, an ACE stoma would be more appropriate in this child.- Laparotomy for resection of the megarectum is performed if ACE stoma fails due to megarectum.- Left hemicolectomy is a procedure reserved for slow-transit colons to increase transit time.- Bishop-Koop stoma: It is a procedure of historical significance. It is a way of washing out and managing meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The severity of psoriasis can be assessed using which of the following tools?...

    Incorrect

    • The severity of psoriasis can be assessed using which of the following tools?

      Your Answer: Dermatology Severity Score- DSS

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis Area and Severity Index- PASI

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that is mainly due to the interplay between keratinocytes, dermal vascular cells, and antigen-presenting cells. There are five main types of psoriasis based on the type and severity of the lesions it produces. A useful tool to determine the extent and severity of psoriasis is the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score, which takes into account the percentage of a specific area affected by psoriasis in combination with severity, which in turn is assessed by the presence of desquamation, induration, and erythema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 12 year old boy presents with a 2 day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • An 12 year old boy presents with a 2 day history of a tree climbing accident in which a small branch gave way, leaving him suspended by one arm. He can move his arm into any position but is unable to use his hand effectively.Which of the following structures has he most likely damaged in the accident?

      Your Answer: The radial nerve

      Correct Answer: The T1 nerve root

      Explanation:

      The boy is most likely to have sustained an injury to his brachial plexus as a result of upward traction of his arm for an extended period of time. We can rule out the topmost nerve roots of the brachial plexus, C6 and C7 as these supply the larger muscles of the arm responsible for moving the shoulder, the elbow and the wrist. The anatomical structure affected is therefore the T1 nerve root which is responsible for movement of the muscles in the hand. This type of injury is called a Klumpke’s Palsy, which is the result of a hyper-abducted trauma to the arm, damaging the C8 and T1 nerve roots. While the radial and ulnar nerve also innervate the hand, the history given points to Klumpke’s palsy as the best explanation for this mechanism of injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Sexual abuse

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially...

    Incorrect

    • A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially appears to be stable. However, over the next 24 hours, he develops worsening neurological function.Which one of the following processes is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Extra dural haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences.Loss of autoregulation of cerebral blood flow is a pathophysiologic feature of germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Prematurity itself results in derangements in cerebral autoregulation. In some patients, a history of additional events that result in loss of autoregulation can be obtained. Furthermore, events that can result in beat-to-beat variability of cerebral blood flow may be identified in some patients.There may be no symptoms. The most common symptoms seen in premature infants include:- Breathing pauses (apnoea)- Changes in blood pressure and heart rate- Decreased muscle tone- Decreased reflexes- Excessive sleep- Lethargy- Weak suck- Seizures and other abnormal movements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      177.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 10-year-old boy is on the operating table undergoing an appendicectomy.Having incised the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is on the operating table undergoing an appendicectomy.Having incised the external oblique aponeurosis and spilt the underlying muscle along the line of its fibres, the surgeon encounters a tough fibrous structure at the medial edge of the wound.Which of the following will the surgeon encounter on entry into this structure?

      Your Answer: Peritoneum

      Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis

      Explanation:

      The structure in question is the rectus sheath. This sheath encloses the rectus abdominis muscle and thus, will be encountered by the surgeon.Note:- Midline incision: It is the most common approach to the abdomen. The structures divided during this incision are linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum ( with care taken to avoid the falciform ligament above the umbilicus).The bladder can be accessed via an extraperitoneal approach through the space of Retzius.- Paramedian incision: It is an incision that is made parallel to the midline. The structures divided or retracted are anterior rectus sheath, rectus (retracted), posterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.- Battle incision: It is similar to a paramedian but the rectus is displaced medially (and thus denervated).- Kocher’s incision: It is an incision made under the right subcostal margin, e.g. cholecystectomy (open).- Lanz incision: It is an incision in the right iliac fossa, e.g. appendicectomy.Gridiron incision: It is an oblique incision centred over the McBurney’s point – usually used for appendicectomy (less cosmetically acceptable than LanzPfannenstiel’s incision: It is a transverse suprapubic incision, primarily used to access pelvic organs.McEvedy’s incision: It is a groin incision used for emergency repair strangulated femoral hernia.Rutherford Morrison incision: It provides an extraperitoneal approach to left or right lower quadrants. It provides excellent access to iliac vessels and is the approach of choice for first-time renal transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?

      Your Answer: Leydig cell tumour

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal...

    Incorrect

    • A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?

      Your Answer: All the laryngeal muscles on the affected side are paralysed

      Correct Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 2-month-old infant was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old infant was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of excessive crying during urination. The urine culture of the infant revealed E.coli. Which of the following investigations should be done next?

      Your Answer: Intravenous Urography

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      Urine culture confirms a diagnosis of a UTI. A kidney ultrasound will be the next best investigation because it will help us to visualise the bladder, kidneys, and ureters to rule out any congenital obstruction in the urinary tract that might be the actual cause of infection in this 2-month old girl.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)White cell count 60 per ml (<5)Lymphocytes 90%Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cryptococcal meningitis

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child whose head circumference is on the 3rd centile? Note that his height and weight are in the 75th centile.

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Correct Answer: Congenital rubella syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child is congenital rubella syndrome.Microcephaly is defined as head circumference > two standard deviations below the mean.The causes of microcephaly include:- Genetic disorders: Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, Patau syndrome, Williams syndrome, Angelman syndrome, and Rett syndrome.- Infective: Meningitis, toxoplasmosis, CMV, rubella, varicella, HIVand Zika.- Acquired causes: Severe brain malformations, neurodegenerative diseases, hypoxic-ischemic injury, infarction, antenatal exposure to drugs, alcohol, and other toxins. Severe malnutrition and uncontrolled phenylketonuria in the mother are other causes of microcephaly in children.- Craniosynostosis- Neurometabolic disorders- Early non-accidental trauma- Fanconi anaemia- Other causes include: Familial and nonfamilial nonsyndromic microcephalyMost children with microcephaly have one or several associated symptoms:- Developmental delay- Seizures- Visual abnormalities- Short stature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of malaise and inability to...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of malaise and inability to participate in physical activities due to exhaustion. His vitals, including the blood pressure are within the normal range and the labs are as follows: sodium 145 mmol/lpotassium 2.8 mmol/lbicarbonate 30 mmol/lchloride 83 mmol/l (95-107)magnesium 0.5 mmol/l (0.75-1.05)glucose 5.0 mmol/lrenin 5.1 mmol/ml per h (3-4.3)aldosterone 975 mmol/l (330-830)urea 5.2 mmol/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gitelman’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gitelman syndrome is a kidney disorder that causes an imbalance of charged atoms (ions) in the body, including ions of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.The signs and symptoms of Gitelman syndrome usually appear in late childhood or adolescence. Common features of this condition include painful muscle spasms (tetany), muscle weakness or cramping, dizziness, and salt craving. Also common is a tingling or prickly sensation in the skin (paraesthesia), most often affecting the face. Some individuals with Gitelman syndrome experience excessive tiredness (fatigue), low blood pressure, and a painful joint condition called chondrocalcinosis. Studies suggest that Gitelman syndrome may also increase the risk of a potentially dangerous abnormal heart rhythm called ventricular arrhythmia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Mode

      Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the...

    Incorrect

    • What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?

      Your Answer: 1

      Correct Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      77.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are...

    Incorrect

    • A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are they most commonly associated?

      Your Answer: Medulla of the kidney

      Correct Answer: Medulla of the thymus

      Explanation:

      Hassall’s corpuscles are groups of epithelial cells within the thymic medulla. The physical nature of these structures differs between mammalian species. Although Hassall’s corpuscles have been proposed to act in both the removal of apoptotic thymocytes and the maturation of developing thymocytes within the thymus, the function of Hassall’s corpuscles has remained an enigma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial septal defect and duplex kidneys and has had a successful repair of her cleft lip and palate. A cranial ultrasound scan revealed multiple choroid plexus cysts. On examination, you find a small child with micrognathia, low-set ears, and a prominent forehead and occiput. She has hypoplastic nails with an overlapping index and middle finger. Her rocker-bottom feet show no evidence of lymphoedema. Cardiovascular examination reveals a short sternum with a 2/6 pan-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge radiating to the apex. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Edward syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Edward syndrome.Edward syndrome results from trisomy 18. It is the second most common syndrome after Down syndrome. 60% of cases die within 48 hours, and 90% within the first year due to apnoeas. Cardiovascular abnormalities include atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect and a persistent ductus arteriosus. There is no association with exophthalmos, but it may occur. Right choroid plexus cysts are found on coronal imaging, and 40–70% at post mortem are shown to have multiple large bilateral choroid plexus cysts (>10 mm). These may not become pathological but usually trigger an anomaly scan. Around 1% of cases may present with only a cyst, but 4% may present with other abnormalities.Other options:- Children with the velocardiofacial syndrome have a classic facial appearance with hypertelorism, a tubular nose, a cleft lip/palate abnormality and cardiac anomalies. – Children with Patau syndrome usually present with midline defects and are less likely to have rocker-bottom feet. – Children with Treacher Collins syndrome present with abnormalities of the branchial arches and pharyngeal pouches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondroblastoma

      Correct Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back. What diagnosis should he be given?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Chicken pox

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. The clinical signs of infection are fever and a maculopapular rash – this is a unique rash with both flat and raised lesions on the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 2 year old boy was brought to the physician by his mother...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old boy was brought to the physician by his mother with a history of a swelling on the right side of his neck that is extending from the angle of mouth to the middle 1/3rd of sternocleidomastoid muscle. On examination the swelling was on the anterolateral aspect of the muscle and was found to be brilliantly transilluminant. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphangioma

      Explanation:

      A lymphangioma is a swelling or mass that occurs mainly in the head, neck, and mouth. Lymphangiomas are the result of a congenital condition and are usually apparent at birth, or at least by the time a person is 2 years old. It is rare in adult population and when detected, it can be treated with surgical excision. Branchial cyst in most cases does not transilluminate which lymphangioma does.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular meals daily. Which of the following is the insulin regimen of choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Three times daily, short-acting insulin

      Correct Answer: Basal–bolus regimen

      Explanation:

      In older children who are able to have regular meal timings, the insulin regimen of choice is the basal-bolus regimen, which comprises a dose of long-acting insulin in combination with three doses of short-acting insulin. The dosage timings coincide with the meal times, ensuring greater flexibility and feasibility. The long-acting insulin serves to provide a stable glycaemic control. The other given regimens are suitable for younger children with a more irregular meal schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A young family is to fly abroad on holiday with their 3 year...

    Correct

    • A young family is to fly abroad on holiday with their 3 year old son who had grommets inserted 5 weeks ago for otitis media with effusion. The mother is concerned about traveling so she presents to the clinic with questions. The following should be discouraged for children with grommets:

      Your Answer: Immersion of the head in soapy water

      Explanation:

      Grommets are small tubes surgically inserted into the tympanic membrane to drain viscous inflammatory fluid found in the middle ear in bilateral otitis media with effusion of more than three months duration. There is no indication against using in ear headphones or flying. Swimming or snorkelling can be reinforced with ear plugs. However immersion of the child’s head in soapy water is to be avoided as the water is more likely to enter the ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She anxiously explained that he was not responding to loud sounds. He was vocalizing at the presentation and he had normal motor milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Assess Developmental Milestones

      Correct Answer: Arrange Hearing test

      Explanation:

      History is suggestive of a possible hearing impairment. As the baby is vocalizing and has normal motor development, an isolated hearing problem is possible. A hearing test will confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history:Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago.Current medications:Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasoneMesalazine 400 mg TDSShe was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7ºC, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult. What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer: Peptostreptococcus

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis| therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination. The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days. It is associated with vomiting and raised rashes on her legs. She also provides a history suggestive of dysentery. Full blood count and inflammatory markers were normal, but a urine dipstick reveals blood and proteins. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      The initial symptoms of spasmodic abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and vomiting might point towards intussusception, but the peak incidence is in children aged 6–9 months. Considering that this child has additional symptoms of haematuria, proteinuria and a purpuric rash, it is more likely that the child has Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP). HSP is an identifiable cause of intussusception. It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints. It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection. A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure. Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is the suggested minimum time interval between ingestion and measuring the blood plasma paracetamol levels?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Correct Answer: 4 hours

      Explanation:

      The post-ingestion plasma level, which is required in order to guide the treatment, reaches a peak at 4 hours. Levels requiring antidote (N-acetyl cysteine) include: 100 mcg per ml at 4 hours, 35 mcg per ml at 10 hours and 25 mcg per ml at 12 hours. These levels are in conjunction with the levels recorded and they should all be put down on a treatment nomogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of the following statements concerning the gluten-free diet is correct?

      Your Answer: Oats can be included freely in the gluten-free diet

      Correct Answer: Buckwheat is suitable in a gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Buckwheat is not wheat. It’s a seed rather than a grain, which means it’s gluten-free and safe for people with celiac disease and non-celiac gluten sensitivity. It is an excellent source of fibre and nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 15-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency by his parents due...

    Correct

    • A 15-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency by his parents due to vomiting and weight loss. Physical examination reveals a central palpable mass in the abdomen. Ultrasound examination shows a pylorus 8mm long and a target sign centrally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction. Although intussusception can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, it usually occurs at the junction of the small and large intestines. Most describe the symptoms of intussusception as a triad of colicky abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, and currant jelly stool. The primary symptom of intussusception is described as intermittent crampy abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:

      Your Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct

      Correct Answer: Midgut

      Explanation:

      From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Arterial blood haemoglobin >15g/dL

      Correct Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?...

    Incorrect

    • A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?

      Your Answer: Count to 10

      Correct Answer: Make a tower out of 9 bricks

      Explanation:

      3-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalCopies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/CommunicationFollows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handle Movement/Physical DevelopmentClimbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and downstairs one foot on each step

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows and knees associated with swelling of his hands and feet. On examination, he is found to be febrile with a temperature of 39°C. He is also tachycardic with a pulse rate of 120bpm and hypotensive with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. Conjunctival congestion and cervical lymphadenopathy with a red tongue were also noted. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Kawasaki disease.Kawasaki disease:It is an acute systemic disorder of childhood that predominantly occurs in Japan (800 cases per million in children under the age of 5 years). The causative factor is not known, but mycoplasma and HIV infection may be associated in some cases. Clinical Features:The principal clinical features are fever persisting for more than five days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctival congestion, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, arthralgia, palmar erythema and strawberry tongue. Other options:- Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis is associated with skin, renal and gut involvement. Arthralgia, morning stiffness and flexor tenosynovitis are common. – Behçet syndrome is a vasculitis of unknown aetiology that characteristically targets venules. – Felty syndrome is the association of splenomegaly and neutropenia with rheumatoid arthritis. Lymphadenopathy is common, and there is a predisposition to recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?

      Your Answer: Hydronephrosis

      Correct Answer: Urethral valves

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve. A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy. Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography. Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation. Management:The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine. The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 4 year old girl presents to the clinic with sore throat and...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old girl presents to the clinic with sore throat and a small painful ulcer in her mouth since yesterday and small painful ulcers on palms and soles that are not itchy. She is febrile (38.5 degree Celsius) and is refusing to eat for the past two days. Which of the following will be the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie virus

      Explanation:

      Coxsackie viruses are a group of RNA viruses with over 20 serotypes| depending on specific viral characteristics, these serotypes are further divided into groups A and B. Infection is associated with a wide range of symptoms, which are dependent on the exact serotype. Hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD) and herpangina are commonly caused by group A coxsackie viruses, while pleurodynia and myocarditis are caused by group B coxsackie viruses. Both groups may cause viral meningitis, conjunctivitis, or flu‑like symptoms. Diagnostic procedures and treatment should be tailored to the specific disease manifestation. Coxsackie A :HerpanginaHand, foot, and mouth diseaseCharacteristics: highly contagiousClinical presentationGeneral symptoms: fever, reduced general conditionSkin/mucosaMaculopapular and partially vesicular rash on the hands and feetOral ulcersDiagnosis: clinicalTreatment: symptomaticPrognosis: almost always self‑limiting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      163.3
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion?

      Your Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Correct Answer: Cystinosis

      Explanation:

      Cystinosis is a condition characterized by accumulation of the amino acid cystine (a building block of proteins) within cells. This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.Excess cystine damages cells and often forms crystals that can build up and cause problems in many organs and tissues. The kidneys and eyes are especially vulnerable to damage| the muscles, thyroid, pancreas, and testes may also be affected.There are three distinct types of cystinosis. In order of decreasing severity, they are nephropathic cystinosis, intermediate cystinosis, and non-nephropathic or ocular cystinosis.Nephropathic cystinosis begins in infancy, causing poor growth and a particular type of kidney damage (renal Fanconi syndrome) in which certain molecules that should be reabsorbed into the bloodstream are instead eliminated in the urine. The kidney problems lead to the loss of important minerals, salts, fluids, and many other nutrients. The loss of nutrients impairs growth and may result in soft, bowed bones (hypophosphatemic rickets), especially in the legs. The nutrient imbalances in the body lead to increased urination, thirst, dehydration, and abnormally acidic blood (acidosis). By about the age of 2, cystine crystals may be present in the clear covering of the eye (cornea). The build-up of these crystals in the eye causes pain and an increased sensitivity to light (photophobia). Untreated children will experience complete kidney failure by about the age of 10. Other signs and symptoms that may occur in untreated people, especially after adolescence, include muscle deterioration, blindness, inability to swallow, diabetes, thyroid and nervous system problems, and an inability to father children (infertility) in affected men.The signs and symptoms of intermediate cystinosis are the same as nephropathic cystinosis, but they occur at a later age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart defects are common (40-50%)| they are frequently observed in patients with Down syndrome who are hospitalized (62%) and are a common cause of death in this aneuploidy in the first 2 years of life.The most common congenital heart defects are the following:- Endocardial cushion defect (43%), which results in atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)/AV canal defect- Ventricular septal defect (32%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (6%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (4%).About 30% of patients have more than one cardiac defect. The most common secondary lesions are patent ductus arteriosus (16%), atrial septal defect, and pulmonic stenosis (9%). About 70% of all endocardial cushion defects are associated with Down syndrome.Valve abnormalities, such as mitral valve prolapse or aortic regurgitation may develop in up to 40-50% of adolescents and adults who were born without structural heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Sulphonamides

      Explanation:

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following injection complications are more prevalent?

      Your Answer: Infection

      Correct Answer: Lipohypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Lypohypertrophy is the most common skin-related complication of insulin injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage...

    Incorrect

    • A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage with no ventricular dilation while on the ventilator. What advice should ideally be given to the parents in this situation?

      Your Answer: There should be no significant long-term effects provided that the ventricle doesn’t dilate

      Correct Answer: It is probable that there will be no significant long-term effects but his development will be closely followed just in case

      Explanation:

      There are four types of IVH. These are called grades and are based on the degree of bleeding.Grades 1 and 2 involve a smaller amount of bleeding. Most of the time, there are no long-term problems as a result of the bleeding. Grade 1 is also referred to as germinal matrix haemorrhage (GMH).Grades 3 and 4 involve more severe bleeding. The blood presses on (grade 3) or directly involves (grade 4) brain tissue. Grade 4 is also called an intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Blood clots can form and block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This can lead to increased fluid in the brain (hydrocephalus).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric adenitis

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Polyhydramnios

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a heart defect that occurs in around 50% of the preterm or low birth weight infants. It is characterized by the failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth. There are certain risk factors which predispose an infant to a patent ductus arteriosus. The most important risk factor is trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome, which is associated with multiple cardiac defects. Other factors are congenital rubella syndrome, birth at high altitudes, and female gender.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of projectile, non-bilious vomiting which takes place after feeding. The baby seems to have a normal appetite but hasn’t gained weight. You suspect pyloric stenosis. What initial test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Capillary blood gas

      Explanation:

      One of the features of pyloric stenosis is hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. In emergency settings, capillary blood gas is the easiest and fastest way to establish a sustainable suspicion of pyloric stenosis. However, all tests are useful for the diagnosis of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      92.6
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

      Your Answer: T wave

      Explanation:

      The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. Other options:- P wave:Depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria. The wave lasts 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms).The isoelectric period after the P wave represents the time in which the impulse is travelling within the AV node.- P-R interval:Time from the onset of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. The wave ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration.Represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization- QRS complex:It represents ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds.- ST-segment:The isoelectric period following the QRS. It represents the period in which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential- U wave: It is a small positive wave which may follow the T wave. It represents the last remnants of ventricular repolarization.- Q-T intervalIt represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential.The interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate.At high heart rates, ventricular action potentials shorten in duration, which decreases the Q-T interval. Therefore the Q-T interval is expressed as a corrected Q-T (QTc) by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval (interval between ventricular depolarizations). This allows an assessment of the Q-T interval that is independent of heart rate.The normal corrected Q-Tc interval is less than 0.44 seconds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      88.2
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A term baby with a birth weight of 3.6 kg with hypoxic ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 3.6 kg with hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy is intubated and ventilated. Cooling treatment has started. The baby is sedated and paralysed and is being ventilated on the mode continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV). Settings are: targeted tidal volume 14 ml, maximum PIP 25, PEEP 5, rate 60/min, FiO2 0.21. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 100%. Blood gas shows pH 7.47, CO2 2.8 kPa, BE –6.What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer: Increase targeted tidal volume

      Correct Answer: Decrease rate

      Explanation:

      Ventilatory rates of 40-60 breaths/min should be provided initially, with proportionally fewer assisted breaths provided if the infant’s spontaneous respiratory efforts increase. Although this practice has not been extensively studied, initial inflation of the new-born’s lungs with either slow-rise or square-wave inflation to a pressure of 30-40 cm H2 O for approximately 5 seconds has been reported to result in more rapid formation of Functional Residual Capacity (FRC).At the moment of delivery and first breath, the neonatal lung is converting from a fetal non-aerated status to a neonatal status. The neonatal lung requires gas exchange, and this necessitates the development of FRC with the resorption of lung fluid and the resolution of most of the atelectasis. Therefore, initial slow ventilation with more prolonged inspiratory times may be useful to assist in this task, balanced against the need to avoid inappropriate inspiratory pressures.Flow-controlled, pressure-limited mechanical devices are acceptable for delivering PPV. These mechanical devices control flow and limit pressure and be more consistent than bags. Self-inflating and flow-inflating bags remain a standard of care. Laryngeal mask airways are effective for assisted ventilation when bag-mask ventilation and intubation are unsuccessful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Methicillin

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his partner whose HIV status is not known. He is concerned about his risk of acquiring HIV. He is feeling well and shows no symptoms. The physician offers him a post exposure prophylaxis, which consists of 3 different antiviral drugs. Two of these drugs act by which of the following mechanisms?

      Your Answer: CCR5 antagonism

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of viral reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Recommended regimens3 NRTI (e.g., zidovudine, lamivudine, abacavir) OR2 NRTI (e.g., lamivudine + abacavir) AND1 NNRTI (e.g., efavirenz) OR1 PI (e.g., lopinavir) OR1 INI (e.g., raltegravir)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Oculogyric crisisOculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen. Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?

      Your Answer: Ganciclovir

      Correct Answer: Zidovudine

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, zidovudine causes lipoatrophy as a side effect.Zidovudine: Although both hypertrophy and atrophy are described related to HIV medications, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTIs) such as zidovudine and stavudine are closely associated with fat loss.Other options:- Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor. Lipoatrophy is not commonly associated with this drug.- Efavirenz is an NNRTI, which is not associated with lipoatrophy. Common side effects include neuropsychiatric effects, rash and nausea. – Ganciclovir is not an anti-HIV medication and is used for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.- Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor and is associated with fat gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?

      Your Answer: Progestogen implant

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      57.1
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?...

    Incorrect

    • Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?

      Your Answer: Fixed splitting of S2

      Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - An 8 year old male was just hit by a car and brought...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male was just hit by a car and brought by a helicopter to the emergency department. He is intubated and you want to avoid secondary brain injury. Which of the following measures is not indicated to prevent secondary brain injury?

      Your Answer: Maintain CO2 4.5-5kPa

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Low oxygen delivery in hypotension, hypoxia, oedema, intracranial hypertension or changes in cerebral blood flow should all be prevented to avoid secondary brain injury. There is no evidence to suggest that hypothermia prevents secondary brain injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer: Lesser petrosal nerve

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.Note:Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.- Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve- Lingual nerve- Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection. The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      151.1
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 6 year old with a recent history of ear infection, now represents...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old with a recent history of ear infection, now represents with bilateral, erythematous and bulging tympanic membranes. His parents claim the boy also has hearing difficulty. Otoscopy reveals an effusion on the left side. Doctors suggest to perform Weber and Rinne tests. Which of the following is consistent with a left-sided middle ear effusion?

      Your Answer: Weber’s localising to left, Rinne positive on left, Rinne negative on right

      Correct Answer: Weber’s localising to left, Rinne negative on left, Rinne positive on right

      Explanation:

      When a child does not hear the sound in the middle during Weber test, it means they either they have a conductive hearing loss on the side they hear the sound, or a sensorineural hearing loss on the opposite side. Rinne’s test helps distinguish between the two. In this particular case, the hearing loss is most probably conductive due to the middle ear effusion. Therefore, Weber’s test should be localised to the left and Rinne’s should be positive on the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the single most serious side effect associated with IV Lorazepam?

      Your Answer: Cardiac arrhythmia

      Correct Answer: Amnesia

      Explanation:

      The most serious side effects of IV Lorazepam include hallucinations, agitation, confusion, amnesia and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths| Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Use emollient wet wraps at night for 1 week then continue current treatment

      Correct Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap| advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - What is the mode of spread of chickenpox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Vector borne

      Correct Answer: Airborne

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Which of the following is true of scabies? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of scabies?

      Your Answer: The mite lives in the stratum corneum

      Explanation:

      Scabies is a dermatological condition caused by infestation of the Sarcoptes Scaibie. The tiny mite, often unseen by the naked human eye, is able to burrow into the stratum corneum where it lays its eggs, causing irritation and a rash related to the immune response against the mite and its eggs, saliva and faeces. On examination, the pathognomic small burrows are often seen on the skin along with small red papules and scratch marks| granulomatous nodules may also be seen especially in darker skin types. Other clinical subtypes such as bullous, and Norwegian (crusted) also exist. Common areas of infection include the hands, wrists, and the interdigital spaces. Infestation can also occur on the genital area, the buttocks, feet, ankles, flexor surfaces. First line treatment is with permethrin 5% dermal cream. It is important that all members of the household are also treated at the same time, and that contaminated bedding, clothes and furniture is adequately disinfected. Scabies is usually associated with overcrowded conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician after a sexual encounter with...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician after a sexual encounter with his new girlfriend during which they had sexual intercourse around ten days ago. The girlfriend's HIV status is unknown, and the patient is concerned that he might have acquired HIV. He has a blood test for a 4th generation assay, testing for HIV antibody and a p24 antigen. The results come out negative, however, HIV infection cannot be ruled out as he may be presenting in the window period. Which of the following most likely explains the pathology of the window period?

      Your Answer: Lack of clinical symptoms

      Correct Answer: Antibodies to HIV undetectable

      Explanation:

      Any blood test used to detect HIV infection must have a high degree of sensitivity (the probability that the test will be positive if the patient is infected) and specificity (the probability that the test will be negative if the patient is uninfected). Unfortunately, no antibody test is ever 100 % sensitive and specific. Therefore, if available, all positive test results should be confirmed by retesting, preferably by a different test method. HIV antibody tests usually become positive within 3 months of the individual being infected with the virus (the window period). In some individuals, the test may not be positive until 6 months or longer (considered unusual). In some countries, home testing kits are available. These tests are not very reliable, and support such as pre and post test counselling is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Haemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with which of the given laboratory findings? ...

    Incorrect

    • Haemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with which of the given laboratory findings?

      Your Answer: Low white cell count

      Correct Answer: Low platelet count

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic uremic syndrome belongs to a heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by a triad of thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and acute kidney injury. It is one of the most common causes of renal injury in children. The clinical findings are due to thrombotic microangiopathy, which leads to arterioles and capillary wall thickening along with endothelial swelling and detachment. The significant laboratory findings include increased white cell count, raised serum urea and creatinine, increased serum LDH, decreased platelet count, haematuria, and proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of...

    Incorrect

    • Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Hirsutism

      Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Ipecac, or syrup of ipecac (SOI), is a medication once used to induce vomiting. Its medical use has virtually vanished, and it is no longer recommended for routine use in toxic ingestion. The abuse of SOI as a purgative in eating disorders, however, is increasing. Ipecac has a high safety profile. Common side effects include prolonged vomiting (greater than 1 hour), lethargy, somnolence, diarrhoea, fever, irritability. More severe complications can consist of aspiration pneumonia, Mallory-Weiss tears, pneumomediastinum, and gastric rupture.The abuse of syrup of ipecac by patients with major eating disorders have been shown to have toxic effects on the skeletal and cardiac muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 6 month old infant has developed jaundice from breast milk. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old infant has developed jaundice from breast milk. He is otherwise healthy with no signs of dehydration. His LFTs will most likely show which of the following pattern?

      Your Answer: Total bilirubin: 300, conjugated bilirubin 85%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is a type of jaundice associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth. The condition can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It’s safe to continue breast-feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with signs and symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Liver function tests reveal raised unconjugated bilirubin levels. Subsequent genetic testing led to a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason for the unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Reduced levels of CYP2C19

      Correct Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that results from defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronyl transferase – 1. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.The clinical presentation of Gilbert’s syndrome include:- Unconjugated hyperbilinaemia- Jaundice can occur during an intercurrent illnessManagement:Blood investigations usually reveal a rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or intravenous nicotinic acid.No treatment required for these patients.Other options:- CYP2C9 deficiency causes reduced warfarin metabolism, and subsequent enhanced drug effects. – Pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption and certain drugs are common causes of raised GGT levels- Defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin is related to the pathophysiology of Dubin-Johnson syndrome- Reduced CYP2C19 levels can lead to the disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs such as proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants and sedatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Which of the following does not cause a scaly scalp? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not cause a scaly scalp?

      Your Answer: Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Cutaneous lupus erythematous

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis amiantacea: This condition is characterized by thick, asbestos-like scales on the scalp and is often associated with psoriasis or seborrheic dermatitis.

      Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis: Also known as cradle cap, this condition causes greasy, yellowish scales on the scalp.

      Tinea capitis: A fungal infection of the scalp that leads to scaling, hair loss, and sometimes redness and swelling.

      Cutaneous lupus erythematosus: While lupus can cause skin lesions, it is less commonly associated with a scaly scalp compared to the other conditions listed. It can cause hair loss and erythema, but significant scaling is not a primary feature.

      Scalp psoriasis: This condition is well-known for causing thick, silvery scales on the scalp

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with jerking movements in her limbs. This lasted for around 10 seconds, and then she fell unconscious. She soon regained consciousness - she was disorientated but afebrile with no symptoms of meningeal irritation. From the list of options, chose the most appropriate investigation route for this patient.

      Your Answer: No investigation needed

      Correct Answer: 24 hour EEG

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour an epilepsy diagnosis: uncontrollable jerking of the limbs and a loss of consciousness. A 24-hour EEG is used to diagnose epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?

      Your Answer: Measles - five to seven days

      Correct Answer: Mumps - 14-18 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation periods of disorders is extremely important to diagnose, treat, prevent or attenuate a disease. Chickenpox: 7-21 days. Whooping cough: 10-14 days. Hand, foot and mouth disease: 2-6 days. German measles: 14-21 days. Mumps: 14-18 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - What is the risk of an affected mother’s son inheriting the disease condition...

    Incorrect

    • What is the risk of an affected mother’s son inheriting the disease condition in an X-liked dominant condition?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance, sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However, in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child? ...

    Correct

    • Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child?

      Your Answer: Full growth hormone responsiveness develops in puberty

      Explanation:

      Most healthy infants and children grow predictably, following a typical pattern of progression in weight, length, and head circumference. Normal human growth is pulsatile| periods of rapid growth (growth spurts) are separated by periods of no measurable growth Growth hormone levels and responsiveness’ develop in late infancy, increase during childhood and peak during puberty.Typical milestones — General guidelines regarding length or height gain during infancy and childhood include the following:- The average length at birth for a term infant is 20 inches (50 cm)- Infants grow 10 inches (25 cm) during the first year of life- Toddlers grow 4 inches (10 cm) between 12 and 24 months, 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 24 and 36 months, and 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 36 and 48 months- Children reach one-half of their adult height by 24 to 30 months- Children grow 2 inches per year (5 cm per year) between age four years and puberty- There is a normal deceleration of height velocity before the pubertal growth spurt.Growth continues past pubertal growth spurt as there is increase in spinal length.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has a cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following would be the best course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer: Angiographic ligation

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) administration

      Explanation:

      Administration of IV prostaglandin/PGE1 (e.g., alprostadil) is indicated in ductal-dependent CHDs until surgery can be performedMechanism: prostaglandin prevents the ductus arteriosus from closing → creates intentional shunt to allow mixing of deoxygenated with oxygenated blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      108.8
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A pathologist examines a histological section and identifies a clump of Reed Sternberg...

    Incorrect

    • A pathologist examines a histological section and identifies a clump of Reed Sternberg cells.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thymoma

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Reed-Sternberg cells are classically associated with Hodgkin lymphoma.Classical diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells are large (15 to 45 micrometres), have abundant slightly basophilic or amphophilic cytoplasm and have at least two nuclear lobes or nuclei. Diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells must have at least two nucleoli in two separate nuclear lobes. The nuclei are large and often rounded in contour with a prominent, often irregular nuclear membrane, pale chromatin and usually one prominent eosinophilic nucleolus, with perinuclear clearing (halo), resembling a viral inclusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Correct Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Erythema Migrans is associated with Lyme disease, a tic transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia Burgdorferi. The rash usually appears at the bite site after 7 to 10 days. It is flat or slightly raised and migrates as the name suggests. Streptococcal throat infection and Crohn’s disease are both associated with erythema nodosum.Herpes simplex and Rheumatic fever may present with Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Marginatum respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fragile X

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features represent the clues for the diagnosis in the perinatal period and include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

      Your Answer: Acute extra dural haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:- A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels- Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:- A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

      Your Answer: IgM

      Correct Answer: T cells

      Explanation:

      Patients with HIV have a deficiency of CD4 lymphocytes which are also known as helper T cells (Th). They are involved with antigen-specific responses as well as delayed-type hypersensitivity. The risk of developing P. jiroveci pneumonia is greatest with a CD4 count of 200 x 109/l or below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?

      Your Answer: The head-righting reflex is absent

      Correct Answer: The Moro reflex is absent

      Explanation:

      Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 17-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. There is a history of pubertal delay. On examination, he has pallor and looks short for his age. Tissue biopsy of the small intestines reveals damaged villi. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatric Surgery (2/5) 40%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (5/7) 71%
Genitourinary (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (4/4) 100%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
ENT (4/8) 50%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (6/9) 67%
Child Development (3/3) 100%
Infectious Diseases (5/6) 83%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/2) 50%
Haematology And Oncology (3/4) 75%
Musculoskeletal (4/4) 100%
Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Emergency Medicine (3/4) 75%
Adolescent Health (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (5/8) 63%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Neonatology (5/5) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/3) 33%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (3/4) 75%
HIV (3/4) 75%
Passmed