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  • Question 1 - The enzyme located on the brush border of the small intestine activating the...

    Correct

    • The enzyme located on the brush border of the small intestine activating the proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins is called?

      Your Answer: Enterokinase

      Explanation:

      Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme of the duodenum that activates proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by the action of enterokinase. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the pancreatic acinar cells and are enzymes that aid in protein digestion. Pepsin is secreted by chief cells of the gastric mucosa. Procarboxydase is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase which is converted to its active form by trypsin and is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of an anticholinesterase?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia and mydriasis

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      Bradycardia and miosis should be anticipated following the administration of anticholinesterases.Anticholinesterase agents include the following medications:- Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium which play a significant role in the diagnosis and the management of myasthenia gravis.- Rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors found to be significantly useful in the management of Alzheimer’s disease.Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects:Inhibition of cholinesterase increases the level and the duration of action of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft. Thus, cholinergic effects such as a reduction in heart rate (bradycardia), miosis (pupillary constriction), increased secretions, increased gastrointestinal motility and reduction in BP may occur with anticholinesterases.Toxins such as organophosphates and carbamates also are primarily anticholinergic and cause the following typical SLUDGE symptoms:- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Diaphoresis- Gastrointestinal upset- Emesis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the most compelling indication for starting HRT?

      Your Answer: Control of vasomotor symptoms such as flushing

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to help alleviate menopausal symptoms. The main indication is the control of vasomotor symptoms. The other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy and prevention of osteoporosis, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The following are Gram-negative cocci: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are Gram-negative cocci:

      Your Answer: Streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Neisseria

      Explanation:

      Gram-negative cocci include the four types that cause a sexually transmitted disease (Neisseria gonorrhoeae), a meningitis (Neisseria meningitidis), and respiratory symptoms (Moraxella catarrhalis, Haemophilus influenzae).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which inhibitor of gastric enzyme secretion is released by the presence of fat...

    Correct

    • Which inhibitor of gastric enzyme secretion is released by the presence of fat in the jejunum?

      Your Answer: Peptide yy

      Explanation:

      Peptide yy is secreted from the jejunum due to the presence of fat. It inhibits gastric acid secretion and motility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is healthy and has no past medical history. Blood pressure and blood tests are all within normal parameters however the ECG confirms a narrow complex tachycardia. The tachycardia persists after giving IV adenosine 6mg. What should be the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: IV 12mg adenosine

      Explanation:

      For narrow complex tachycardias with no compromise then vagal manoeuvres should be trialled first. The Valsalva manoeuvre should be the first vagal manoeuvre tried and works by increasing intra-thoracic pressure and affecting baroreceptors (pressure sensors) within the arch of the aorta. It is carried out by asking the patient to hold his/her breath while trying to exhale forcibly as if straining during a bowel movement. Adenosine, an ultra-short-acting AV nodal blocking agent, is indicated if vagal manoeuvres are not effective. Adenosine may be safely used during pregnancy. In adults the recommended first dose of intravenous adenosine is 6 mg. The dose is administered rapidly and then followed by a saline flush. Adenosine is only present in the circulation for about 5 seconds, so it is an excellent drug for diagnosis and treatment. If there was a response to adenosine but it was not long lasting, an additional dose of 12 mg of adenosine intravenously can be attempted. Doses greater than 12 mg are not recommended. If adenosine fails then Verapamil or a beta blocker can be used as alternatives. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable or other treatments have not been effective, synchronized electrical cardioversion may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Endotoxin ...

    Incorrect

    • Endotoxin

      Your Answer: Is heat labile

      Correct Answer: Composed of Lipid A in liposaccharide in cell wall

      Explanation:

      Lipopolysaccharides (LPS), also known as lipoglycans and endotoxins, are large molecules consisting of a lipid (lipid A) and a polysaccharide composed of O-antigen, outer core and inner core joined by a covalent bond; they are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, and elicit strong immune responses in animals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer: Thrombin

      Correct Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH): It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot. LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation. Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.Dosage and uses:LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.Adverse effects:The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.Less commonly it can cause:Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)Osteoporosis and spontaneous fracturesHypoaldosteronismHypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer: It is associated with right ventricular failure

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is a physical finding with arterial pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis. A pathological third heart sound is usually associated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - With regard to the cell membrane: ...

    Correct

    • With regard to the cell membrane:

      Your Answer: It consists of an outer hydrophilic & an inner hydrophobic layer

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane consists primarily of a thin layer of amphipathic phospholipids that spontaneously arrange with the hydrophobic tail regions on the inside and the hydrophilic head regions outside. Membranes typically have a large content of proteins, around 50% of membrane volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme ...

    Incorrect

    • Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme

      Your Answer: Protein Kinase C

      Correct Answer: Adenylate cyclase

      Explanation:

      Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by adenylate cyclase located on the inner side of the plasma membrane and anchored at various locations in the interior of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance...

    Correct

    • Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance can be present in the lowest concentration before taste buds will respond?

      Your Answer: Strychnine hydrochloride (bitter)

      Explanation:

      The lowest concentration of a gustatory stimulus to which the taste buds respond is considered to be the threshold concentration for that substance. The threshold concentration for strychnine is 0.0001 mm; this is because it allows the body to detect potentially dangerous substances (bitter plant components) at lower concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He also has a history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His main complaint is a blue tinge to his vision. Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Blue tinge of vision/cyanopsia is caused due to the intake of sildenafil citrate.Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.Note: Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision) may occur secondary to treatment with digoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following takes place during fasting ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following takes place during fasting

      Your Answer: Migrating motor complex

      Explanation:

      Migrating motor complexes (MMC) are waves of electrical activity that sweep through the intestines in a regular cycle during fasting. These motor complexes trigger peristaltic waves, which facilitate transportation of indigestible substances such as bone, fiber, and foreign bodies from the stomach, through the small intestine, past the ileocecal sphincter, and into the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - When is the blood pressure at its lowest during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • When is the blood pressure at its lowest during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Second trimester

      Explanation:

      It is lowest during the second trimester.

      Previous studies have reported changes in blood pressure (BP) throughout pregnancy, and it was generally accepted that in clinically healthy pregnant women, BP falls gradually at first trimester, reaching the lowest around 22–24 weeks, rising again from 28 weeks, and reaching preconception levels by 36 weeks of gestation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding integrins, which option is false? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding integrins, which option is false?

      Your Answer: Play no role in cell signalling.

      Explanation:

      Integrins are transmembrane receptors that facilitate cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) adhesion. Upon ligand binding, integrins activate signal transduction pathways that mediate cellular signals such as regulation of the cell cycle, organization of the intracellular cytoskeleton, and movement of new receptors to the cell membrane. Integrins are obligate heterodimers, meaning that they have two subunits: α (alpha) and β (beta). Integrins play an important role in cell signalling by modulating the cell signalling pathways of transmembrane protein kinases such as receptor tyrosine kinases (RTK).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Indicator dilution method

      Explanation:

      There are two methods of calculating the cardiac output in humans other than doppler with echocardiography: The direct Fick’s method and the indicator dilution method. In the indicator dilution technique, a known amount of a substance such as a dye or, more commonly, a radioactive isotope is injected into an arm vein and the concentration of the indicator in serial samples of arterial blood is determined. The output of the heart is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation through the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of...

    Correct

    • A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above...

    Correct

    • The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above mentioned enzymes is located where?

      Your Answer: Brush border of small intestine

      Explanation:

      The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell...

    Incorrect

    • Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell bodies in which nuclei?

      Your Answer: Supraoptic

      Correct Answer: Arcuate

      Explanation:

      Arcuate nucleus dopaminergic neurons consist of a single group of neurons that project to the median eminence where they release dopamine into the hypophyseal portal circulation to inhibit pituitary prolactin secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Where does the SA node develop? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the SA node develop?

      Your Answer: From the endocardium

      Correct Answer: From structures on the right side of the embryo.

      Explanation:

      The SA node develops from the right side of the embryo and the AV node from the left. This is the reason why in adults the right vagus supplies the SA node and the left vagus supplies the AV node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK): ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK):

      Your Answer: It causes gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion.

      Explanation:

      CCK has a primary action of increasing the motility of the gallbladder by contracting the muscles in the mucosa of the gall bladder. Apart from this, it augments the action of secretin, resulting in the production of an alkaline pancreatic juice. It increases the synthesis of enterokinase, inhibits gastric emptying and may also enhance the motility of the small intestine and colon. It is released (secreted) by your small intestine during the digestive process. It’s sometimes called pancreozymin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Cell membrane proteins may act as: ...

    Correct

    • Cell membrane proteins may act as:

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Membrane proteins perform a variety of functions including:Membrane receptor proteins relay or carry signals between the cell’s internal and external environments.Transport proteins move molecules and ions (ionic channels) across the membrane. Membrane enzymes may have many activities, such as oxidoreductase, transferase or hydrolase andCell adhesion molecules

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto...

    Correct

    • The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:

      Your Answer: Southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Portal vein receives its blood from all the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Portal vein receives its blood from all the following except:

      Your Answer: GIT

      Correct Answer: Kidney

      Explanation:

      The portal vein receives blood from the intestines via the superior and inferior mesenteric veins, from stomach via the gastric veins and from the spleen and pancreas via splenic vein. The kidney is supplied by the renal artery and drains into the renal vein into the inferior venacava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly? ...

    Incorrect

    • The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly?

      Your Answer: Α fibers

      Correct Answer: C fibers

      Explanation:

      According to Erlanger- Grasser classification preganglionic fibers are B fibers whereas post ganglionic fibers are C fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - When 2 nucleotide chains of DNA bind together, thymine is bound to: ...

    Correct

    • When 2 nucleotide chains of DNA bind together, thymine is bound to:

      Your Answer: Adenine

      Explanation:

      As a general rule in the structure of DNA, thymine always binds to adenine with two hydrogen bonds, cytosine always binds to guanine with three hydrogen bonds and vice versa. However In the structure of RNA the only difference is that adenine binds to uracil instead of thymine. But thymine will always bind to adenine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      81.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - How does pregnancy affect the cardiac output of a patient? ...

    Correct

    • How does pregnancy affect the cardiac output of a patient?

      Your Answer: Increased cardiac output due to increase in heart rate and stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Output increases to a similar degree as the blood volume. During the first trimester cardiac output is 30-40% higher than in the non-pregnant state. Steady rises are shown on Doppler echocardiography, from an average of 6.7 litres/minute at 8-11 weeks to about 8.7 litres/minute flow at 36-39 weeks; they are due, primarily, to an increase in stroke volume (35%) and, to a lesser extent, to a more rapid heart rate (15%). There is a steady reduction in systemic vascular resistance (SVR) which contributes towards the hyperdynamic circulation observed in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Protozoa is part of which pathogenic group? ...

    Incorrect

    • Protozoa is part of which pathogenic group?

      Your Answer: Parasites

      Correct Answer: Eukaryotes

      Explanation:

      Protozoa are a diverse group of unicellular eukaryotic organisms. Historically, protozoa were defined as single-celled organisms with animal-like behaviours, such as motility and predation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active B lymphocyte proliferation?

      Your Answer: Medulla

      Correct Answer: Germinal centre

      Explanation:

      The cortex of the lymph node consists of the lymphoid nodules and sinusoids and posses a germinal centre from which B cells proliferate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Concerning surface anatomy, where is the base of the heart ...

    Correct

    • Concerning surface anatomy, where is the base of the heart

      Your Answer: 2nd left costal to 3rd right costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The base of the heart, also known as the superior border of the heart corresponds to a line connecting the inferior border of the 2nd left costal cartilage to the superior border of the 3rd right costal cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute rheumatic fever

      Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      70.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Bacteria constantly remodel their peptidoglycan cell walls, simultaneously building and breaking down portions of the cell wall as they grow and divide. β-Lactam antibiotics inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall; this is achieved through binding of the four-membered β-lactam ring of penicillin to the enzyme DD-transpeptidase. As a consequence, DD-transpeptidase cannot catalyse formation of these cross-links, and an imbalance between cell wall production and degradation develops, causing the cell to rapidly die.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome?

      Your Answer: Pellagra

      Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      The main syndrome of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms:Megaloblastic anaemiaGastrointestinal symptoms &Neurological symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - The coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium, serves to? ...

    Correct

    • The coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium, serves to?

      Your Answer: Drain the venous supply of the myocardium

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the heart muscle (myocardium). It delivers deoxygenated blood to the right atrium, as do the superior and inferior vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which is true of the citric acid cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true of the citric acid cycle?

      Your Answer: Acetyl-CoA is the only entry point

      Correct Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated

      Explanation:

      The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?

      Your Answer: Negatively birefringent calcium carbonate crystals

      Correct Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Cell mediating innate immunity include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cell mediating innate immunity include:

      Your Answer: Chemokines

      Correct Answer: Natural killer cells

      Explanation:

      Antigen receptors recognize the shape of the antigen. They identify specific epitopes and are found on T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Phosphate absorption in the proximal tubules is via which transporting molecule? ...

    Incorrect

    • Phosphate absorption in the proximal tubules is via which transporting molecule?

      Your Answer: K/Pi co transporter

      Correct Answer: Na/Pi co transporter

      Explanation:

      Sodium/phosphate cotransporters are located in the renal proximal tubular brush border, and are the key elements in proximal tubular phosphate reabsorption and phosphate homeostasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - The a-wave is created by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The a-wave is created by:

      Your Answer: Rise in atrial pressure before the tricuspid valve opens

      Correct Answer: Regurgitation of some blood to the great veins when the atria contracts in atrial systole

      Explanation:

      The a-wave created on the venous pulse curve occurs as a result of atrial systole. Due to the pressure build-up in the atria, it causes a back pressure in the vena cava. This pressure is exerted on the valve and this back pressure is what causes a slight increase in the venous pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?

      Your Answer: Switch to gliclazide 40mg od

      Correct Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal

      Explanation:

      Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step. There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity. Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.Note:Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2. Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase V

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells? ...

    Correct

    • Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells are hepatic macrophages. They are responsible for 80% of the phagocytic activity in the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What is a characteristic findings on ECG in hyperkalaemia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a characteristic findings on ECG in hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Tall, tented T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia leads to:

      – Prolonged PR interval

      – Small P waves

      – Tall, tented T waves

      – Widened QRS complexes and eventually asystole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - With regard to the endothelial structure, the epithelium constitute: ...

    Correct

    • With regard to the endothelial structure, the epithelium constitute:

      Your Answer: Simple squamous

      Explanation:

      The single layer of squamous epithelium lining the heart and blood vessels is known as the endothelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - The interior of lysosomes is kept at a pH of around 5 by...

    Correct

    • The interior of lysosomes is kept at a pH of around 5 by the action of:

      Your Answer: H+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      The lysosome maintains its pH differential by pumping in protons (H+ ions) from the cytosol across the membrane via proton pumps and chloride ion channels. Vacuolar H+-ATPases are responsible for transport of protons, while the counter transport of chloride ions is performed by ClC-7 Cl−/H+ antiporter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?

      Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:- Idiopathic- Trauma, excessive manicuring- Infection: especially fungal- Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis- Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s- Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda- Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).- Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?...

    Correct

    • The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?

      Your Answer: Action potential

      Explanation:

      This process is known as an action potential. Upon generation of an action potential when depolarization reaches threshold, it spreads throughout the muscle fiber, resulting in generation of an excitation-contraction coupling leading to contraction of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site...

    Correct

    • Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole

      Explanation:

      The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which vitamin plays a major role in the metabolism of many amino acids?...

    Incorrect

    • Which vitamin plays a major role in the metabolism of many amino acids?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B3

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B6

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B6 is part of the vitamin B group, and its active form, pyridoxal 5′-phosphate (PLP) serves as a coenzyme in many enzyme reactions in amino acid, glucose, and lipid metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A patient with achalasia ...

    Correct

    • A patient with achalasia

      Your Answer: Has decreased production of vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus and the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES). It is characterized by incomplete LES relaxation, increased LES tone, and lack of peristalsis of the oesophagus (inability of smooth muscle to move food down the oesophagus) in the absence of other explanations like cancer or fibrosis. In achalasia, there is loss of nitric oxide (NO) and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP) releasing inhibitory neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache,...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache, fever and malaise. He also complains of scalp sensitivity while combing his hair. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following would be the definite test?

      Your Answer: Temporal artery biopsy

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling, and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed...

    Incorrect

    • The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed for ATP production. These proteins are also essential for:

      Your Answer: Oxidative phosphorylation

      Correct Answer: Apoptotic cell death

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway or the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis is activated due to the loss of BCL-2 and other antiapoptotic proteins. This loss results in the increased membrane permeability and release of cytochrome C which activates caspases downstream resulting in apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated? ...

    Correct

    • In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated?

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is a programmed form of cell death involving the degradation of cellular constituents by a group of cysteine proteases called caspases. The caspases can be activated through either the intrinsic (mitochondrial mediated) or extrinsic (death receptor mediated) apoptotic pathways.

      The intrinsic apoptotic pathway, also known as the mitochondrial pathway, is primarily initiated within the mitochondria. This pathway is activated in response to various internal stimuli, such as DNA damage, oxidative stress, and other cellular stresses.

      When the intrinsic pathway is triggered, several events occur in the mitochondria:

      1. Release of cytochrome c: Cytochrome c is released from the mitochondrial intermembrane space into the cytoplasm.
      2. Formation of the apoptosome: Cytochrome c in the cytoplasm binds to apoptotic protease activating factor-1 (Apaf-1) and procaspase-9, forming a complex known as the apoptosome.
      3. Activation of caspase-9: The apoptosome activates caspase-9, an initiator caspase.
      4. Caspase cascade: Activated caspase-9 then activates executioner caspases, such as caspase-3, leading to the execution phase of apoptosis, which results in the orderly dismantling of the cell.

      The mitochondria play a crucial role in this pathway by regulating the release of pro-apoptotic factors that are essential for the activation of downstream apoptotic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:

      Your Answer: Divalent metal transporter 1

      Correct Answer: Ferroportin

      Explanation:

      Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except:

      Your Answer: Depolarisation of the t-tubular system

      Correct Answer: Binding of Ca2+ to calmodulin

      Explanation:

      In the excitation contraction coupling model, an action potential is transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ from the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors. These are voltage gates calcium channels. Calcium binds to calmodulin during contraction of the smooth muscle and not the cardiac muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen to fibrin?

      Your Answer: Prekallikrein

      Correct Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Prothrombin (coagulation factor II) is proteolytically cleaved to form thrombin in the coagulation cascade, the clotting process. Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - The actions of dihydrotestosterone in male reproductive physiology include: ...

    Correct

    • The actions of dihydrotestosterone in male reproductive physiology include:

      Your Answer: Development of external genitalia in utero and at puberty

      Explanation:

      Dihydrotestosterone mediates the differentiation of the urogenital sinus and genital tubercles, leading to the fusion of the urethral and labial folds; thus, it leads to the development of external genitalia in the male.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to ...

    Correct

    • Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to

      Your Answer: Produce pancreatic juice rich in enzymes

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) mediates digestion in the small intestine by inhibiting gastric emptying and decreasing gastric acid secretion. It stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to release a juice rich in pancreatic digestive enzymes, hence the old name pancreozymin. Together these enzymes catalyse the digestion of fat, protein, and carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - What microscopic changes are visible in an active thyroid gland? ...

    Correct

    • What microscopic changes are visible in an active thyroid gland?

      Your Answer: Follicle lining cells are cuboid or columnar.

      Explanation:

      Active follicles are lined by cuboidal or columnar cells; this is because active follicles are smaller and have less colloid. Their cells are tall because they are actively secreting hormones, whereas older follicles have a flat epithelium and are filled with more colloid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Correct

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which of the following options best describes rheumatoid factor? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following options best describes rheumatoid factor?

      Your Answer: IgM against the Fc portion of IgG

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid factor is an IgM antibody that targets the Fc portion of IgG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Which of the following stimulates glucagon release? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following stimulates glucagon release?

      Your Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown a small increase in glucagon levels during stress tests and exercise. This occurs in response to the reduction of blood glucose levels during physical activity; epinephrine levels are also a stimulus for the release of glucagon during exercise, since it suppresses insulin, which accounts for its stimulatory effects on glucagon. The use of stored fats for energy during exercise also stimulates the release of glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?

      Your Answer: An organophosphate insecticide

      Explanation:

      The farmer has most likely ingested an organophosphate insecticide.Organophosphorus compounds are used widely as:• Insecticides – Malathion, parathion, diazinon, dichlorvos• Nerve gases – Soman, sarin, tabun, VX• Ophthalmic agents – Echothiophate• Antihelmintics – Trichlorfon• Herbicides – merphos• Industrial chemical (plasticizer) – Tricresyl phosphateSigns and symptoms of Organophosphorus Poisoning (OPP) can be classified as:• Muscarinic effects:o Cardiovascular – Bradycardia, hypotensiono Respiratory – Rhinorrhoea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distresso Gastrointestinal – Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, faecal incontinenceo Genitourinary – Incontinenceo Ocular – Blurred vision, miosiso Glands – Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis• Nicotinic effects:o Muscle fasciculation, weakness, cramping, diaphragmatic failure, and autonomic side effects include: hypertension, tachycardia, and mydriasis.• Central nervous system (CNS) effects:o Anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, coma, apnoeaMainstay Treatment:• Decontamination• Securing Airway, Breathing and Circulation• Atropine• Pralidoxime• Benzodiazepines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter?

      Your Answer: Purkinje

      Correct Answer: A delta and C pain fibers

      Explanation:

      A delta and C fibers use glutamate as their primary neurotransmitter where it acts as a fast acting localized neurotransmitter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following phases in depolarization and repolarization of cardiac muscle cells...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following phases in depolarization and repolarization of cardiac muscle cells are caused by the inactivation of Na+ channels?

      Your Answer: Phase 3 : resting membrane potential

      Correct Answer: Phase 1 : rapid repolarization

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 is caused by the sodium current. Voltage gated sodium channels open leading to the influx of sodium into the cardiac muscle cell. Phase 1 is the rapid transient repolarization phase which is caused by the inactivation of the voltage gated sodium channels and opening of the voltage gated potassium channels along with opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 2 which is the plateau is caused by opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 4 is caused by closing of the slow calcium channels and opening of the potassium channels leading to efflux of potassium leading to the establishment of the resting membrane potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which two ducts form the ampulla of Vater? ...

    Correct

    • Which two ducts form the ampulla of Vater?

      Your Answer: The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct of Wirsung

      Explanation:

      The ampulla of Vater, also known as the hepatopancreatic ampulla or the hepatopancreatic duct, is formed by the union of the pancreatic duct and the common bile duct. The ampulla is specifically located at the major duodenal papilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - In which phase do chromosomes in the nucleus become condensed into well-defined chromosomes?...

    Incorrect

    • In which phase do chromosomes in the nucleus become condensed into well-defined chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Prophase

      Correct Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best?

      Your Answer: Commensal flora that gain access to an inappropriate area

      Explanation:

      All answers A, B, C, and D are examples of exogenous infections. Endogenous infection is an infection by organisms that normally reside in the body but have previously been dormant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Telomerase is active in the following cells except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomerase is active in the following cells except:

      Your Answer: Stem cells

      Correct Answer: Certain osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Some cells have the ability to reverse telomere shortening by expressing telomerase, an enzyme that extends the telomeres of chromosomes. Telomerase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, meaning an enzyme that can make DNA using RNA as a template.

      Telomerase is not usually active in most somatic cells (cells of the body), but it’s active in germ cells (the cells that make sperm and eggs) and some adult stem cells. These are cell types that need to undergo many divisions, or, in the case of germ cells, give rise to a new organism with its telomeric “clock” reset.
      Interestingly, many cancer cells have shortened telomeres, and telomerase is active in these cells. If telomerase could be inhibited by drugs as part of cancer therapy, their excess division (and thus, the growth of the cancerous tumor) could potentially be stopped.
       A subset of liver cells with high levels of telomerase renews the organ during normal cell turnover and after injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia is common

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis occurs

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes? ...

    Correct

    • Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes?

      Your Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      Luteinizing hormone or LH is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Studies have shown surges in LH levels during menopausal hot flushes, suggesting that a pulsatile release of LH is responsible for increased hypothalamic norepinephrine activity, causing the hot flushes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Concerning surface anatomy, where is the mitral valve found? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning surface anatomy, where is the mitral valve found?

      Your Answer: Situated in the 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum

      Correct Answer: Situated in the 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is situated in the left 4th intercostal space just beneath the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - The following is true in relation to coronary venous drainage? ...

    Correct

    • The following is true in relation to coronary venous drainage?

      Your Answer: Most venous return ultimately drains into right atrium via the coronary sinus

      Explanation:

      Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline are positively inotropic due to: ...

    Correct

    • Xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline are positively inotropic due to:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cAMP breakdown

      Explanation:

      Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed?

      Your Answer: Lacrimal puncta

      Correct Answer: Canal of schlemm

      Explanation:

      Aqueous humor is a clear protein free fluid secreted by the ciliary body, it travels to the anterior chamber through the pupil and is absorbed through a network of trabeculae into the canal of schlemm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 20-year-old female has been admitted with an acute infection. She gives a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female has been admitted with an acute infection. She gives a history suggestive of hypersensitivity to amoxicillin. After consultation with the allergy specialist, she has now been diagnosed with an IgE mediated penicillin allergy. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      Cefalexin should be avoided in this patient.This patient is known to have a severe penicillin allergy. None of the above antibiotics are penicillin based. However, 0.5 – 6.5% of patients who are proven to have an IgE mediated penicillin allergy will also be allergic to cephalosporins, including cefalexin. Penicillin, cephalosporins, and carbapenems are all members of the beta-lactam group of antibiotics and share a common beta-lactam ring. There is, therefore, a small risk of allergy cross-over between all these antibiotics. The rates of allergy cross-over are lower with second and third-generation cephalosporins than first-generation cephalosporins such as cefalexin.It is important to question the patient carefully to ascertain what symptoms they had on exposure to penicillin. Symptoms such as an urticarial rash or itching make it more likely that they have an IgE mediated allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of...

    Correct

    • One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of the following will result in hypoalbuminemia?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Both trauma and sepsis cause an acute inflammatory response causing plasma leakage of albumin. Nephropathy causes leakage of albumin from glomeruli and excretion of albumin in urine known as albuminuria. A hypercatabolic state is characterized by increased circulating catabolic hormones and increase break down of proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?...

    Incorrect

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?

      Your Answer: GLUT 1

      Correct Answer: GLUT 2

      Explanation:

      Glucose transporter 2, also known as GLUT2 is a transmembrane carrier protein which is not insulin dependent. It is found in the liver and the pancreatic islet ß cells, where it functions as the primary glucose transporter that allows the transfer of glucose between these organs and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin? ...

    Correct

    • Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin?

      Your Answer: All the options are true

      Explanation:

      The strength with which oxygen binds to haemoglobin is affected by several factors. These factors shift or reshape the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. A rightward shift indicates that the haemoglobin under study has a decreased affinity for oxygen. The causes of shift to right can be remembered using the mnemonic, CADET, face Right! for CO2 and CO, Acid (H+), 2,3-DPG, Exercise and Temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Emulsification of dietary lipids is brought about by ...

    Correct

    • Emulsification of dietary lipids is brought about by

      Your Answer: Bile salts

      Explanation:

      Digestion of fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine. The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - The primary sensory cortex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary sensory cortex is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 4

      Correct Answer: Brodmann area 3,1,2

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary somatosensory cortex is areas 3,1, and 2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which...

    Incorrect

    • The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which one of the following prostaglandin receptors?

      Your Answer: Ep4

      Correct Answer: Ep3

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin EP3 receptor is a receptor for prostaglandin E2. Fever occurs as a result of the action of prostaglandin E2 and requires EP3 receptors in the preoptic area. Therefore, if there is an absence of EP3 receptors, fever caused by prostaglandin E2 will not occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?

      Your Answer: Glomerular epithelial cells

      Correct Answer: Tubular interstitial cells

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not your patient, you can make out that the man has a history of schizophrenia, and has recently had his medications altered. Clinically, you find evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection, and blood investigations indicate a neutropenic picture.What is the most likely drug causing the neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis.Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia, and in patients who are intolerant to, or unresponsive to other antipsychotics. It is a weak D2-receptor and D1-receptor blocking activity, with noradrenolytic, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic properties.Many antipsychotic drugs can occasionally cause bone marrow depression, but agranulocytosis is particularly associated with clozapine.Other side effects include:Hypotension, tachycardiaFever, sedation, seizures (with high doses)Appetite increaseConstipationHeartburnWeight gainExtrapyramidal symptomsAgranulocytosisNeuroleptic malignant syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Mitosis is the process of cell division which culminates in cell chromosomes which...

    Correct

    • Mitosis is the process of cell division which culminates in cell chromosomes which are:

      Your Answer: Diploid

      Explanation:

      Mitosis is a part of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into two new diploid nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort, xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Examination reveals enlargement of the parotid glands bilaterally, hepatomegaly and peripheral motor neuropathy. Lab results are negative for RF, ANA, SS-A and SS-B antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sjogren's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS)

      Explanation:

      The Diffuse Infiltrative Lymphocytosis Syndrome (DILS) is a rare multisystemic syndrome described in HIV-infected patients. It is characterised by CD8(+) T-cell lymphocytosis associated with a CD8(+) T-cell infiltration of multiple organs. DILS is usually seen in uncontrolled or untreated HIV infection but can also manifest itself independently of CD4(+) T-cell counts. The syndrome may present as a Sjögren-like disease that generally associates sicca signs with bilateral parotiditis, lymphadenopathy, and extra glandular organ involvement. The latter may affect the lungs, nervous system, liver, kidneys, and digestive tract. Anomalies of the respiratory system are often identified as lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia. Facial nerve palsy, aseptic meningitis or polyneuropathy are among the more frequent neurological features. Hepatic lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytic interstitial nephropathy and digestive tract lymphocytic infiltration account for more rarely noted complications. Sicca syndrome, organomegaly and/or organ dysfunction associated with polyclonal CD8(+) T-cell organ-infiltration are greatly suggestive of DILS in people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides?

      Your Answer: Gram negative cocci

      Explanation:

      Neisseria meningitidis, often referred to as meningococcus, is a gram negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease such as meningococcaemia, a life-threatening sepsis. The bacterium is referred to as a coccus because it is round, and more specifically, diplococcus because of its tendency to form pairs. About 10% of adults are carriers of the bacteria in their nasopharynx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - What is the effect of catecholamines (i.e. increased heart rate) on the pressure...

    Correct

    • What is the effect of catecholamines (i.e. increased heart rate) on the pressure volume loop?

      Your Answer: Shifts the diastolic pressure curve upward and leftward

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines have a positive ionotropic and chronotropic effect on the heart. The ventricles develop greater tension during systole resulting in an increase in the stroke volume. The increase in stroke volume results in a decrease in the end diastolic volume. This pushes the loop towards the left and upwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which neurotransmitter is made from hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tryptophan? ...

    Correct

    • Which neurotransmitter is made from hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tryptophan?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Serotonin is synthesized from the essential amino acid tryptophan. The rate-limiting step is the conversion of the amino acid to 5-hydroxytryptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase. This is then converted to serotonin by the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - With regards to the deiodinases, where would you find D1? ...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the deiodinases, where would you find D1?

      Your Answer: Brown fat

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The liver produces an important amount of T3 by outer ring deiodination thanks to its elevated concentration of type I deiodinase. It can also be found in the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 56 year old woman taking procainamide develops drug induced erythematosus. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old woman taking procainamide develops drug induced erythematosus. Which of the following features is the most characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer: It may occur with chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus is usually positive for antinuclear and antihistone antibodies, typically without renal or neurologic involvement. However, pulmonary involvement is common. Drugs that can induce lupus include isoniazid, hydralazine, procainamide, chlorpromazine, and other anticonvulsants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?

      Your Answer: Positive HLA–DR2

      Correct Answer: Monozygotic twin

      Explanation:

      An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its...

    Correct

    • There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)

      Explanation:

      Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution; the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per...

    Correct

    • Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per square millimetre of the cell membrane?

      Your Answer: Nodes of Ranvier

      Explanation:

      The nodes of Ranvier contain Na+/K+ ATPases, Na+/Ca2+ exchangers and a high density of Na+ channels. The estimated concentration of sodium channels in the node is of ∼1500/μm2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend. Though there is little previous history, the friend believes that he has been suffering from depression for several years, and his medications have been changed by his general practitioner quite recently.On examination the patient is agitated and confused, his pupils are dilated. He also has tremors, excessive sweating, and grinding of teeth. His heart rate is 118 beats/min, which is regular, and is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is serotonin syndrome.The serotonin syndrome is a cluster of symptoms and signs (range from barely perceptible tremor to life-threatening hyperthermia and shock). It may occur when SSRIs such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline that impair the reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic neuron are taken in combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants. It has also been reported following an overdose of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) alone.Treatment:Most cases of serotonin syndrome are mild and will resolve with removal of the offending drug alone. After stopping all serotonergic drugs, management is largely supportive and aimed at preventing complications. Patients frequently require sedation, which is best facilitated with benzodiazepines.Antipsychotics should be avoided because of their anticholinergic properties, which may inhibit sweating and heat dissipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - After exercise, O2 debt repay may take up to: ...

    Correct

    • After exercise, O2 debt repay may take up to:

      Your Answer: 90 min

      Explanation:

      Physical activity or exercise requires oxygen for production of ATP or energy via aerobic pathways of energy production. When the amount of oxygen that reaches muscles depletes, cells start producing energy anaerobically by partial breakdown of glucose resulting in lactic acid. Lactic acid should be removed from cells as it causes muscle fatigue. Oxygen is needed to oxidize lactic acid in to carbon dioxide and water and this need is known as oxygen debt. The existence of an oxygen debt explains why we continue to breathe deeply and quickly for a while after exercise. This may take up from 60 – 90 mins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which of the following best describes the cardiac muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the cardiac muscle?

      Your Answer: Striato-smooth and involuntary

      Correct Answer: Striated and involuntary

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle (heart muscle) is an involuntary, striated muscle that is found in the walls and histological foundation of the heart, specifically the myocardium. Cardiac muscle is one of three major types of muscle, the others being skeletal and smooth muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Where is Vitamin B12 mainly stored in the body? ...

    Correct

    • Where is Vitamin B12 mainly stored in the body?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The total amount of vitamin B12 stored in body is about 2–5 mg in adults. Around 50% of this is stored in the liver. Approximately 0.1% of this is lost per day by secretions into the gut, as not all these secretions are reabsorbed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Regarding cardiac muscle contractility, the afterload refers to: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac muscle contractility, the afterload refers to:

      Your Answer: The resistance against which blood is expected

      Explanation:

      The afterload for the left ventricle is the aortic pressure. Hence it is this pressure that offers resistance against which the blood is to be expelled from the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - The T-tubular system in cardiac muscle is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The T-tubular system in cardiac muscle is:

      Your Answer: Located at the junction of the a and i zones

      Correct Answer: Transmits action potential from sarcolemma to the SR to allow for Ca2+ release into the cytoplasm

      Explanation:

      Action potentials are transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ from the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors, which are voltage gated calcium channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - The transporter responsible for most glucose absorption in the lumen of the small...

    Incorrect

    • The transporter responsible for most glucose absorption in the lumen of the small intestine is called?

      Your Answer: GLUT 1

      Correct Answer: SGLT 1

      Explanation:

      GLUT = Glucose transporter. GLUT are a family of proteins of different types. GLUT 1 is mainly expressed in erythrocytes, whereas GLUT 2 is mainly expressed by, liver cells and renal tubular cells. GLUT 5 is a sucrose transporter in enterocytes. SGLT- Sodium-dependent glucose cotransporter or sodium-glucose linked transporter are a family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine and SGLT2 in the proximal tubule of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - In Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP), the DNA fragments are separated by length through...

    Correct

    • In Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - The liver is the principal site for? ...

    Correct

    • The liver is the principal site for?

      Your Answer: Storage of iron

      Explanation:

      The liver mainly synthesizes proteins including albumin, globulins and coalgulative factors. Vitamin B12 is taken in via the diet and stored by the liver. Vitamin C is not stored and excessive vitamin C is excreted via urine. Liver is the main site of iron storage, where it is stored in the form of ferritin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - Carbohydrates digestion starts in the ...

    Correct

    • Carbohydrates digestion starts in the

      Your Answer: Mouth

      Explanation:

      Digestion begins in the mouth with the secretion of saliva and its digestive enzymes. Food is formed into a bolus by the mechanical mastication and swallowed into the oesophagus from where it enters the stomach through the action of peristalsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?

      Your Answer: QT interval on ECG

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes: ...

    Incorrect

    • The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes:

      Your Answer: Cross linkage of actin and myosin

      Correct Answer: Binding to myosin after the power stroke to allow uncoupling of actin and myosin

      Explanation:

      After calcium binds to the troponin C, there is a conformational change in the structure of troponin I and tropomyosin, which moves out of the way and frees the site where myosin can bind to actin. This results in the formation of the cross linkage of the actin and myosin giving rise to the power stroke in the contraction phase. This occurs with the release of ADP. When ATP combines to this complex it breaks and the cycle repeats itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the? ...

    Incorrect

    • Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the?

      Your Answer: Thick ascending limb of Henle

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Renal protein reabsorption is the part of renal physiology that deals with the retrieval of filtered proteins, preventing them from disappearing from the body through the urine. Almost all reabsorption takes place in the proximal tubule. Only ,1% is left in the final urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - In liver failure there is likely to be? ...

    Correct

    • In liver failure there is likely to be?

      Your Answer: Bleeding disorders

      Explanation:

      Liver failure can lead to several significant changes in the body’s physiology, but let’s review each option in the context of liver failure:

      1. Raised blood urea: This is not typical of liver failure. In liver failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are often low because the liver is not effectively converting ammonia to urea.
      2. Increase in the albumin/globulin ratio in the blood: This is incorrect. In liver failure, albumin production decreases, leading to a lower albumin/globulin ratio.
      3. Bleeding disorders: This is possible, but it often fluctuates. Liver failure can lead to both bleeding tendencies due to decreased production of clotting factors and a hypercoagulable state due to the reduced synthesis of anticoagulant proteins like Protein C and S.
      4. Stable blood glucose level: This is incorrect. Liver failure often causes hypoglycemia because the liver’s ability to produce glucose via gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis is impaired.
      5. Increased absorption of fat: This is incorrect. Liver failure can lead to decreased bile production, which is necessary for fat emulsification and absorption, resulting in decreased fat absorption.

      Given these points, the most likely option related to liver failure would actually be issues related to bleeding complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Which of the following results in the resting membrane potential of a myocyte?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following results in the resting membrane potential of a myocyte?

      Your Answer: Activation of gated Na channels

      Correct Answer: Activation of outward K+ channels

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 is caused by the sodium current. Voltage gated sodium channels open leading to the influx of sodium into the cardiac muscle cell. Phase 1 is the rapid transient repolarization phase which is caused by the inactivation of the voltage gated sodium channels and opening of the voltage gated potassium channels along with opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 2 which is the plateau is caused by opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 4 is caused by closing of the slow calcium channels and opening of the potassium channels leading to efflux of potassium leading to the establishment of the resting membrane potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves?

      Your Answer: Circular muscle of iris

      Explanation:

      Circular muscle of iris is exclusively supplied by the parasympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which neurotransmitter is found in the postganglionic parasympathetic synaptic cleft? ...

    Correct

    • Which neurotransmitter is found in the postganglionic parasympathetic synaptic cleft?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released from the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron into the synaptic cleft and also by some postganglionic sympathetic neurons as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - The spinothalamic tracts are particularly concerned with: ...

    Correct

    • The spinothalamic tracts are particularly concerned with:

      Your Answer: Pain and temperature sensations

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tracts are part of the anterolateral system in the spinal cord and are responsible for transmitting sensory information related to pain, temperature, and crude touch from the peripheral nervous system to the thalamus in the brain. This sensory information is then relayed to the cerebral cortex for processing. The spinothalamic tracts are divided into two main pathways:

      1. Lateral spinothalamic tract: Transmits pain and temperature sensations.
      2. Anterior spinothalamic tract: Transmits crude touch and pressure sensations.

      Control of posture: The reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts are primarily involved in the control of posture and balance. These tracts originate in the brainstem and help maintain posture by influencing the motor neurons that control axial and proximal muscles.

      Voluntary skilled movements: The corticospinal tracts (also known as the pyramidal tracts) are responsible for voluntary skilled movements. These tracts originate in the motor cortex and descend through the brainstem and spinal cord to synapse on motor neurons that control fine motor movements, especially of the distal limbs.

      Muscular tone: Muscular tone is primarily regulated by several tracts, including the reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts. Additionally, the rubrospinal tract (originating from the red nucleus in the midbrain) also contributes to motor control and muscle tone, particularly of the upper limbs.

      Visual input: The optic tracts and pathways (including the optic nerve, optic chiasm, optic tract, lateral geniculate nucleus, and optic radiations) are responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe. This pathway processes visual input, including aspects such as color, motion, and depth perception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - Platelets are stored in this body organ. ...

    Correct

    • Platelets are stored in this body organ.

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Megakaryocyte and platelet production is regulated by thrombopoietin. Each megakaryocyte produces between 1,000 and 3,000 platelets during its lifetime. An average of 1011 platelets are produced daily in a healthy adult. Reserve platelets are stored in the spleen, and are released when needed by splenic contraction induced by the sympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - Which of the following components regulate cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following components regulate cardiac output?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is regulated by the autonomic nervous system with sympathetic nerves having a positive chronotropic and inotropic effect and parasympathetic nerves having the opposite effect. An increase in preload will increase cardiac output likewise an afterload increase will also increase cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - The main reason for the prolonged effect of the withdrawal reflex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The main reason for the prolonged effect of the withdrawal reflex is:

      Your Answer: Slow afferent conduction

      Correct Answer: Multiple connections between afferent and efferent neurons

      Explanation:

      The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that protects the body from harmful stimuli. Spinal reflexes are mostly monosynaptic and are mediated by a simple reflex arc. Withdrawal reflex is mediated by a polysynaptic reflex resulting in stimulation of many motor neurons in order to establish a quick and prolonged response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is ...

    Incorrect

    • The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is

      Your Answer: IgM

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - In the life cycle of plasmodium species: ...

    Correct

    • In the life cycle of plasmodium species:

      Your Answer: Merozoites are released from the liver and enter the red blood cell

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic protozoa, many of which cause malaria in their hosts. The parasite always has two hosts in its life cycle: a Dipteran insect host and a vertebrate host. Sexual reproduction always occurs in the insect, making it the definitive host.The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - In the cardiac cycle, all of the following are true except: ...

    Correct

    • In the cardiac cycle, all of the following are true except:

      Your Answer: Mitral valve is closed by contraction of papillary muscles

      Explanation:

      Mitral valve is closed by contraction of papillary muscles: This statement is incorrect. The mitral valve closes due to the pressure difference between the left ventricle and the left atrium at the onset of ventricular systole. The papillary muscles contract to prevent prolapse of the valve into the atrium but do not cause the valve to close.

      The left ventricular volume is maximal at the end of atrial systole: This statement is true. At the end of atrial systole, the atria have pushed the remaining blood into the ventricles, making the ventricular volume maximal (end-diastolic volume).

      The left ventricular pressure is maximal just before the aortic valve opens: This statement is true. Left ventricular pressure peaks just before the aortic valve opens, as the ventricle contracts to overcome the pressure in the aorta.

      The ejection fraction is about 55%: This statement is true. The ejection fraction, which is the percentage of blood ejected from the ventricles with each contraction, is typically around 55%.

      The ‘a’ wave is due to atrial systole: This statement is true. The ‘a’ wave on the venous pressure curve corresponds to atrial systole, reflecting the increased pressure from atrial contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH?

      Your Answer: TRH

      Explanation:

      Thyrotropin-releasing hormone, also known as TRH, thyrotropin-releasing factor, TRF is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus. It functions as a releasing hormone, promoting the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone or thyrotropin and prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?

      Your Answer: Rubrospinal

      Correct Answer: Reticulospinal

      Explanation:

      Reticulospinal tract pass down from the reticular formation of the mid brain, pons and medulla. It descends in the lateral white column. Both sets of fibers enter the anterior grey column and may facilitate or inhibit the gamma and alpha neurons. By this means the reticulospinal tract controls voluntary and reflex activities. It also contains the descending autonomic fiber, thus providing a pathway for the hypothalamus to control the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia, dry mouth, gritty sensation in her eyes and increased photosensitivity. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, which of the following tests should be performed?

      Your Answer: Antineutrophil antibodies

      Correct Answer: Labial gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis, especially in patients with negative anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies, labial gland biopsy is done. In performing a labial biopsy, the surgeon typically makes a shallow 1/2 inch wide incision on either side of the inner lip after numbing the area with a local anaesthetic. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test can be done for ocular symptoms of Sjogren syndrome but is of no diagnostic importance as it can be positive with many other diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - The thalamus is a large collection of neuronal groups within the diencephalons which...

    Correct

    • The thalamus is a large collection of neuronal groups within the diencephalons which participates in:

      Your Answer: Sensory, motor and limbic

      Explanation:

      The thalamus has multiple functions. It is the relay station for every sensory system (except olfactory, regulates the sleep-wake cycle and consciousness and also relays motor information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by...

    Correct

    • The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by follicles resembling which human gland?

      Your Answer: Thyroid

      Explanation:

      The cells located between the two main pituitary lobes form what is known as the intermediate pituitary. This area secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone and it is only a few cell layers thick. It is rich in follicles filled with colloid, and lined by basophilic cells. This configuration resembles that of another important gland: the thyroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except--- ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except---

      Your Answer: In thermodilution, the indicator used is warm saline

      Explanation:

      In thermodilution, the indicator used is cold saline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?

      Your Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke when added to standard treatment plans in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. This information was shared in 2015 by The New England Journal of Medicine and the results were expressed per 1000 patient years. In fact, empagliflozin had an event rate of 37.3/1000 patient years and placebo an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years. How many patients who are at high cardiovascular risk need to be treated with empagliflozin to prevent a cardiovascular death, a non-fatal myocardial infarction or a non-fatal stroke?

      Your Answer: 200

      Correct Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is an absolute effect measure that has been used to assess beneficial and harmful effects of medical interventions. In this case the NNT can be calculated as follows: NNT = 1/ Absolute risk reduction (ARR). ARR=(Control event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) – (Experimental event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) = 43.9-37.3 = 6.6/1000 patient yearsNNT=(Patient years)/ARR = 1000/ 6.6 = 151.5. The closest to 151.5 is 150, thus it is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:...

    Correct

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:

      Your Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?...

    Incorrect

    • The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 3 to 5

      Correct Answer: CN 5 to 8

      Explanation:

      The pontine tegmentum also known as dorsal pons is located within the brain stem. Several cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pontine tegmentum. The nuclei of CN V, CN VI, CN VII and CNVIII are located in the pontine tegmentum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute? ...

    Correct

    • During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute?

      Your Answer: Telophase

      Explanation:

      In telophase the nuclear envelope along with the nucleolus will reappear. The daughter nuclei will enlarge as the chromosome will decondense again. Along with this, cytokinesis will occur. At the end of cytokinesis the daughter centrioles will move from the poles to the intercellular bridge where they will be disassembled and complete the separation of the daughter cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - Which of the following correctly describes stages in the formation of CSF? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly describes stages in the formation of CSF?

      Your Answer: Movement of water through aquaporins

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      All the above are true for the formation of CSF

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - The conversion of fructose to fructose 1-phosphate is catalysed by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The conversion of fructose to fructose 1-phosphate is catalysed by:

      Your Answer: Hexokinase

      Correct Answer: Fructokinase

      Explanation:

      The first step in the metabolism of fructose is the phosphorylation of fructose to fructose 1-phosphate by fructokinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value?(TP = true...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value?(TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)

      Your Answer: TP / (TP + FN )

      Correct Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - Which of the following conditions has no effect on cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions has no effect on cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Sleep

      Explanation:

      Sleep has no effect on the cardiac output. Anxiety, excitement and pregnancy will increase the cardiac output. Standing from a lying position will decrease the cardiac output transiently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - Select the correct statement regarding terminal bronchioles: ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement regarding terminal bronchioles:

      Your Answer: Terminal bronchioles form part of the conducting zone

      Explanation:

      Bronchioles divide into even smaller bronchioles, called terminal bronchioles, which are 0.5mm or less in diameter. Terminal bronchioles in turn divide into smaller respiratory bronchioles which divide into alveolar ducts. Terminal bronchioles mark the end of the conducting division of air flow in the respiratory system while respiratory bronchioles are the beginning of the respiratory division where actual gas exchange takes place. Terminal bronchioles are lined with simple cuboidal epithelium containing club cells. Terminal bronchioles contain a limited number of ciliated cells and no goblet cells. Club cells are non-ciliated, rounded protein secreting cells. Their secretions are a non-stick, proteinaceous compound (surfactant) to maintain the airway in the smallest bronchioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values:Hb 7.9 g/dlPlt 97*109/l WBC 2.7*109/l Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Cimetidine

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?

      Your Answer: Fine tremor

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.Common lithium side effects may include:- dizziness, drowsiness;- tremors in your hands;- trouble walking;- dry mouth, increased thirst or urination;- nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, stomach pain;- cold feeling or discoloration in your fingers or toes;- rash; or.- blurred vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis… ...

    Incorrect

    • Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis…

      Your Answer: Produces the tetramer α2ß2 as the end result.

      Correct Answer: Occurs in the cytosol of developing red cells.

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin (Hb) is synthesized in a complex series of steps. The haem part is synthesized in a series of steps in the mitochondria and the cytosol of immature red blood cells, while the globin protein parts are synthesized by ribosomes in the cytosol. Production of Hb continues in the cell throughout its early development from the proerythroblast to the reticulocyte in the bone marrow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - What is the function of the acute phase protein, C-reactive protein? ...

    Correct

    • What is the function of the acute phase protein, C-reactive protein?

      Your Answer: Opsonises bacteria

      Explanation:

      There are various immune reactions that become activated once the barrier between the body and environment has been compromised. There are certain opsonins that bind to the bacteria and facilitate phagocytosis. One of them is the acute phase protein: C protein. others include antibodies and complement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’?

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Non-disjunction can result in aneuploidy i.e. abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell. It results due to uneven division of chromosomes in the meiosis 1 or 2 phase. All the above mentioned examples are of non-disjunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to Thailand presents with congestion of eyes and swelling of the knee joint. He completed a course of antibiotics for dysentery 4 weeks back. He experiences no dysuria and urine examination is normal. Which further information would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: History and physical examination

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has reactive arthritis which is usually diagnosed on history and clinical examination. The classic triad of symptoms include conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis. Arthritis and conjunctivitis may occur 4-6 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection. Arthritis usually occurs acutely, mostly involving the lower limb and is asymmetrical. Blood culture, urine culture and arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) will not yield positive results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - Choose the correct statement. The cells of the liver… ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement. The cells of the liver…

      Your Answer: Deaminate amino acids to form NH+4 which is excreted as ammonium salts in the urine.

      Correct Answer: Help to maintain the normal blood glucose level.

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of vitamin D3 takes place in both the liver and in the kidneys. The liver is responsible for an intermediate step and final synthesis takes place in the kidneys. Immunoglobulins are manufactured by plasma cells in respective organs where there is antigen exposure. The liver plays a major role in maintaining blood glucose levels by converting excess glucose to glycogen and converting glycogen back to glucose in time of need. Hepatocytes have enzymes that can deactivate steroid hormones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - The pathway responsible for the discriminative aspect of pain, is called the: ...

    Correct

    • The pathway responsible for the discriminative aspect of pain, is called the:

      Your Answer: Neospinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is an ascending or a sensory tract, responsible for transmission of pain and temperature. The neospinothalamic tract is responsible for fast pain or discriminative pain whereas the palaeospinothalamic tract is responsible for transmission of slow pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the?

      Your Answer: Carbonic anhydrase ii

      Correct Answer: Hydrogen potassium ATPase

      Explanation:

      The rate limiting pump in HCl secretion is the H+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is a sympathetic neurotransmitter which increases the heart rate. During atrial fibrillation the atria is contracting at more than 200 beats/min. Acetylcholine is a parasympathetic neurotransmitter decreasing the heart rate. Digital also depresses the conduction at the AV conduction. Vagal discharge and occulocardiac reflux decrease the heart rate and convert the tachycardia into normal sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur?

      Your Answer: G0

      Correct Answer: S

      Explanation:

      DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (12/15) 80%
Medicine (87/150) 58%
Pharmacology (8/14) 57%
Infectious Diseases (4/7) 57%
Cardiovascular (19/29) 66%
Cell Biology (6/8) 75%
Neurology (8/16) 50%
Connective Tissue (7/14) 50%
Endocrinology (6/11) 55%
Genetics (7/11) 64%
Immunology (2/5) 40%
Metabolism (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (3/7) 43%
Renal (0/2) 0%
Research Skills (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Hepatobiliary (2/3) 67%
Passmed