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  • Question 1 - A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that is increasing in intensity. This pain is associated with abdominal distension and faint, high-pitched bowel sounds. An old scar is also noted on the abdomen. An erect abdominal X-ray shows multiple air-fluid levels in dilated bowel loops. No occult blood was found in stool sample. What is the most likely predisposing factor for his present condition?

      Your Answer: Adhesions from previous surgery

      Explanation:

      The described features suggest acute bowel obstruction. The scar described points toward previous surgery, which suggests development of peritoneal adhesions that could lead to obstruction. Hepatitis does not lead to dilated bowel loops. Amoebiasis could lead to inflammatory bowel disease, however, occult blood in stool is usually positive. Ileal adenocarcinoma is rare. Meckel’s diverticulum can possibly lea to obstruction but the findings described here are more consistent with obstruction due to peritoneal adhesions from a past surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Raised alkaline phosphatase and positive antimitochondrial antibody indicates which of the following conditions...

    Correct

    • Raised alkaline phosphatase and positive antimitochondrial antibody indicates which of the following conditions presenting with pruritus?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      An autoimmune disease, primary biliary cirrhosis results in destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts. This leads to cholestasis, cirrhosis and eventually, hepatic failure. Symptoms includes fatigue, pruritus and steatorrhea. Increased IgM levels, along with antimitochondrial antibodies are seen in the serum. Liver biopsy is diagnostic, and also aids in staging of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the likely diagnosis in a 55-year old man presenting with jaundice,...

    Correct

    • What is the likely diagnosis in a 55-year old man presenting with jaundice, weight loss, pale coloured stools and elevated alkaline phosphatase?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Increased alkaline phosphatase is indicative of cholestasis, with a 4x or greater increase seen 1-2 days after biliary obstruction. Its level can remain elevated several days after the obstruction is resolved due to the long half life (7 days). Increase up to three times the normal level can be seen in hepatitis, cirrhosis, space-occupying lesions and infiltrative disorders. Raised alkaline phosphatase with other liver function tests being normal can occur in focal hepatic lesions like abscesses or tumours, or in partial/intermittent biliary obstruction. However, alkaline phosphatase has several isoenzymes, which originate in different organs, particularly bone. An isolated rise can also be seen in malignancies (bronchogenic carcinoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma), post-fatty meals (from the small intestine), in pregnancy (from the placenta), in growing children (from bone growth) and in chronic renal failure (from intestine and bone). One can differentiate between hepatic and non-hepatic cause by measurement of enzymes specific to the liver e.g. gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT).

      In an elderly, asymptomatic patient, isolated rise of alkaline phosphatase usually points to bone disease (like Paget’s disease). Presence of other symptoms such as jaundice, pale stools, weight loss suggests obstructive jaundice, most probably due to pancreatic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is found to be elevated in a case of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is found to be elevated in a case of hepatocellular carcinoma?

      Your Answer: ALP

      Correct Answer: AFP

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a glycoprotein that is normally produced by the yolk sac of the embryo, and then the fetal liver. It is elevated in the new-born and thus, also in the pregnant women. Eventually, it decreases in the first year of life to reach the adult normal value of < 20 ng/ml by 1 year of age. Markedly elevated levels (>500 ng/ml) in a high-risk patient is considered diagnostic for primary hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). Moreover, due to smaller tumours secreting less quantities of AFP, rising levels can be a better indication. However, not all hepatocellular carcinomas produce AFP. Also, the level of AFP is not a prognostic factor. Populations where hepatitis B and HCC are common (e.g.: sub-Saharan Africans, ethnic Chinese) can see AFP levels as high as 100,000 ng/ml, whereas levels are low (about 3000 ng/ml) in regions with lesser incidences of HCC.

      AFP can also be elevated up to 500 ng/ml in conditions like embryonic teratocarcinomas, hepatoblastomas, fulminant hepatitis, hepatic metastases from gastrointestinal tract cancers, some cholangiocarcinomas). Lesser values are seen in acute and chronic hepatitis.

      Overall, the sensitivity of AFP value ≥20 ng/ml is 39-64% and the specificity is 76%–91%. Value of 500 ng/ml is considered as the diagnostic cut-off level for HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Hepatomegaly with greatly increased serum alpha-fetoprotein is seen in which of the following...

    Correct

    • Hepatomegaly with greatly increased serum alpha-fetoprotein is seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma or hepatoma affects people with pre-existing cirrhosis and is more common in areas with higher prevalence of hepatitis B and C. Diagnosis include raise alpha-fetoprotein levels, imaging and liver biopsy if needed. Patients at high-risk for developing this disease can undergo screening by periodic AFP measurement and abdominal ultrasonography. The malignancy carries poor prognosis (see also Answer to 10.4).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Mallory bodies are characteristic of which of the following conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Mallory bodies are characteristic of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Mallory bodies (or ‘alcoholic hyaline’) are inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of liver cells, seen in patients of alcoholic hepatitis; and also in Wilson’s disease. These pathological bodies are made of intermediate keratin filament proteins that are ubiquinated or bound by proteins like heat chock protein. Being highly eosinophilic, they appear pink on haematoxylin and eosin staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include:

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Heptitis E

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma include hepatitis B and C, aflatoxin, anabolic steroids, alcohol cirrhosis and primary liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year old farmer was referred to the surgical clinic with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old farmer was referred to the surgical clinic with complaints of pain in his right hypochondrium. Investigations confirmed the diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma with malignant ascites. According to you, what is the most likely cause of HCC in this patient?

      Your Answer: Oestrogens

      Correct Answer: Aflatoxin

      Explanation:

      Aflatoxins are naturally occurring toxins produced by the Aspergillus fungus (most often, A. flavus and A. parasiticus). These organisms are common and their native habitat is soil, decaying vegetation and grains. They can contaminate the grain before harvest or after storage, more likely in high-humidity (at least 7%) or high temperature environment of after stressful conditions like drought. Aflatoxins are mycotoxins and also carcinogenic. They get metabolized in the liver to an epoxide, aflatoxin M1. High exposure can lead to acute necrosis, cirrhosis or liver carcinoma. These substances can cause haemorrhage, acute liver damage, oedema, and alteration in digestion, absorption and/or metabolism of nutrients. Although humans are susceptible to these toxins like all other animals, they have a high tolerance level and hence, rarely develop acute aflatoxicosis. However, children are particularly susceptible to exposure leading to growth impairment and delayed development. Chronic exposure carries a high risk of hepatic cancer, due to intercalation of its metabolite aflatoxin M1 into the DNA and alkylation of the bases because of its epoxide moiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The blood investigations of a 30-year old man with jaundice revealed the following...

    Incorrect

    • The blood investigations of a 30-year old man with jaundice revealed the following : total bilirubin 6.5 mg/dl, direct bilirubin 1.1 mg/dl, indirect bilirubin 5.4 mg/dl and haemoglobin 7.3 mg/dl. What is the most likely diagnosis out of the following?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Haemolysis

      Explanation:

      Hyperbilirubinemia can be caused due to increased bilirubin production, decreased liver uptake or conjugation, or decreased biliary excretion. Normal bilirubin level is less than 1.2 mg/dl (<20 μmol/l), with most of it unconjugated. Elevated unconjugated bilirubin (indirect bilirubin fraction >85%) can occur due to haemolysis (increased bilirubin production) or defective liver uptake/conjugation (Gilbert syndrome). Such increases are less than five-fold usually (<6 mg/dl or <100 μmol/l) unless there is coexistent liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      4.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (9/10) 90%
Pathology (9/10) 90%
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