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Question 1
Correct
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Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?
Your Answer: Tubular interstitial cells
Explanation:Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Pain on straight leg raising
Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease. The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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With regard to the endothelial structure, the epithelium constitute:
Your Answer: Stratified squamous
Correct Answer: Simple squamous
Explanation:The single layer of squamous epithelium lining the heart and blood vessels is known as the endothelium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output?
Your Answer: Starling method
Correct Answer: Indicator dilution method
Explanation:There are two methods of calculating the cardiac output in humans other than doppler with echocardiography: The direct Fick’s method and the indicator dilution method. In the indicator dilution technique, a known amount of a substance such as a dye or, more commonly, a radioactive isotope is injected into an arm vein and the concentration of the indicator in serial samples of arterial blood is determined. The output of the heart is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation through the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35 year old sales representative presents with severe pain going down her neck and right arm. She admits that this pain is worse on sitting and driving for long periods. Past history is significant for two previous road traffic accidents. Examination reveals weakness and sensory loss over C5/C6 nerve distribution. There is pain with neck movement and particularly extension. Which of the following investigations would be the most helpful in this case?
Your Answer: MRI scan of the cervical spinal cord
Explanation:Cervical radiculopathy is usually due to compression or injury to a nerve root by a herniated disc or degenerative changes. Levels C5 to T1 are the most commonly affected. It is usually, but not always, accompanied by cervical radicular pain, a sharp and shooting pain that travels from the neck and down the upper limb and may be severe. This needs to be differentiated from pain referred from the musculoskeletal (somatic) structures in the neck, which may be aching rather than sharp, and is more severe in the neck than in the upper limb. The neurological signs of cervical radiculopathy depend on the site of the lesion. The patient may have motor dysfunction, sensory deficits or alteration in tendon reflexes. While pain is a common presenting symptom, not all radiculopathies are painful (i.e. only motor deficits may be obvious). CT scanning cannot accurately demonstrate the commonest cause for cervical radiculopathy (disc herniation) without myelography, which requires hospital admission, lumbar puncture and the use of contrast. In patients with cervical radiculopathy, MRI is the imaging technique of choice for the detection of root compression by disc herniation and osteophytes. MRI allows the nerve roots to be directly visualised. Nerve conduction studies are also useful in determining the nerve roots that are involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic?
Your Answer: Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: Penicillin
Explanation:Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria directly whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics slow their growth or reproduction. Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. Erythromycin which is a macrolide is mainly a bacteriostatic antibiotic but can show bactericidal action depending on the dose. Sulphonamides are mainly bacteriostatic. Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis therefore it is considered as bactericidal. Chloramphenicol is primarily a bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis and can exhibit bactericidal action in high concentrations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes most obvious or prominent?
Your Answer: Prophase
Correct Answer: Metaphase
Explanation:Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of an anticholinesterase?
Your Answer: Bradycardia and miosis
Explanation:Bradycardia and miosis should be anticipated following the administration of anticholinesterases.Anticholinesterase agents include the following medications:- Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium which play a significant role in the diagnosis and the management of myasthenia gravis.- Rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors found to be significantly useful in the management of Alzheimer’s disease.Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects:Inhibition of cholinesterase increases the level and the duration of action of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft. Thus, cholinergic effects such as a reduction in heart rate (bradycardia), miosis (pupillary constriction), increased secretions, increased gastrointestinal motility and reduction in BP may occur with anticholinesterases.Toxins such as organophosphates and carbamates also are primarily anticholinergic and cause the following typical SLUDGE symptoms:- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Diaphoresis- Gastrointestinal upset- Emesis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The thalamic main input from the cortex is via which tracts?
Your Answer: Corticostriatal tracts
Correct Answer: Thalamocortical pathway
Explanation:The thalamus is connected to cerebral cortex via the thalamocortical radiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which statement about the 2nd heart sound is true?
Your Answer: It is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
Explanation:The second heart sound is produced due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. It is a high pitched dub sound.
Normally the aortic closure sound (A2) occurs prior to the pulmonic closure sound (P2), and the interval between the two (splitting) widens on inspiration and narrows on expiration. With quiet respiration, A2 will normally precede P2 by 0.02 to 0.08 second (mean, 0.03 to 0.04 sec) with inspiration. In younger subjects inspiratory splitting averages 0.04 to 0.05 second during quiet respiration. With expiration, A2 and P2 may be superimposed and are rarely split as much as 0.04 second. If the second sound is split by greater than 0.04 second on expiration, it is usually abnormal. Therefore, the presence of audible splitting during expiration (i.e., the ability to hear two distinct sounds during expiration) is of greater significance at the bedside in identifying underlying cardiac pathology than is the absolute inspiratory increase in the A2–P2 interval.
The respiratory variation of the second heart sound can be categorized as follows: (1) normal (physiologic) splitting; (2) persistent (audible expiratory) splitting, with normal respiratory variation; (3) persistent splitting without respiratory variation (fixed splitting); and (4) reversed (paradoxical) splitting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the most common cardiac defect seen in patients with Down’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:The rate of congenital heart disease in new-borns with Down syndrome is around 40%. Of those with heart disease, about 80% have an atrioventricular septal defect or ventricular septal defect with the former being more common. Mitral valve problems become common as people age, even in those without heart problems at birth.[3] Other problems that may occur include tetralogy of Fallot and patent ductus arteriosus.[38] People with Down syndrome have a lower risk of hardening of the arteries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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Currents caused by opening of which of the following channels contribute to the repolarization phase of the action potential of the ventricular muscle fibers?
Your Answer: Potassium channels
Explanation:Depolarization occurs due to opening of the voltage gated sodium channels. Repolarization occurs due to opening of the voltage gates potassium channels causing an out flux of potassium ions, decreasing the membrane potential towards resting potential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol in the adrenal gland?
Your Answer: 12βHSD type 1
Correct Answer: 11βHSD type 1
Explanation:11β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, also known as HSD-11β or 11β-HSD, is a group of enzymes which catalyse the interconversion of active cortisol and corticosterone with inert cortisone and 11-dehydrocorticosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual reflexes.
Your Answer: Superior colliculus
Explanation:The tectum is a part of the midbrain, specifically, the dorsal part of the midbrain. The tectum consists of the superior and inferior colliculi. The superior colliculus is involved in preliminary visual processing and control of eye movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans?
Your Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound
Explanation:Pulsus alternans is a physical finding with arterial pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis. A pathological third heart sound is usually associated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion. In-transit to hospital he had a generalized seizure which terminated spontaneously after around 30 seconds. On arrival to the emergency department, his GCS is 14/15 and he is noted to have a coarse tremor. Suspecting a diagnosis of lithium toxicity, intravenous access is obtained, a blood sample was drawn for investigations and a saline infusion is started. The blood investigations revealed:Lithium level: 4.2 mmol/lNa+: 136 mmol/lK+: 4.6 mmol/lUrea: 8.1 mmol/lCreatinine: 99 µmol/lBicarbonate: 18 mmol/lWhat is the most appropriate management for the patient?
Your Answer: Intravenous hypertonic saline
Correct Answer: Arrange haemodialysis
Explanation:The presentation of the patient is typical of chronic lithium toxicity (due to the presence of mainly neurological manifestations). Additional to the blood investigations mentioned, urine analysis, electrolyte levels, and renal function should also be performed. A low urine Anion gap and a low urine specific gravity are highly suggestive of lithium toxicity.ECG obtained in this patient is likely to show: nonspecific, diffuse ST segment depression with T wave inversion.Acute lithium toxicity presents with more GI manifestations while, the clinical features of chronic lithium toxicity are mainly neurological and can include:Coarse tremors (fine tremors are seen in therapeutic levels), hyperreflexia, acute confusion, seizures, and coma.The management of lithium toxicity is as follows:Immediate GI decontamination with gastric lavage (in case of acute intoxication)Saline Administrations: the goal of saline administration is to restore GFR, normalize urine output and enhance lithium clearance.Haemodialysis remains the mainstay treatment for lithium toxicity as lithium is readily dialyzed because of water solubility, low volume of distribution, and lack of protein binding.The Extracorporeal Treatments in Poisoning Workgroup (EXTRIP Workgroup) recommendations for dialysis (extracorporeal treatment) in lithium toxicity include:• Impaired kidney function and lithium levels > 4.0 mEq/L• Decreased consciousness, seizures, or life-threatening dysrhythmias, regardless of lithium levels• Levels are > 5.0 mEq/L, significant confusion is noted, or the expected time to reduce levels to < 1.0 mEq/L is more than 36 hoursAs post-dialysis rebound elevations in lithium levels have been documented, continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) has been advocated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of opioid poisoning?
Your Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Opioid poisoning is classically associated with pinpoint pupils, reduced respiratory rate, bradycardia, drowsiness and coma. Hypothermia is a feature of barbiturate poisoning, while sweating and lacrimation are seen in cases of opiate withdrawal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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In blistering dermatological disorders e.g.. Pemphigus, which junctions are attacked by autoantibodies?
Your Answer: Desmosomes
Explanation:Pemphigus is an autoimmune disease caused by antibodies directed against both desmoglein 1 and desmoglein 3 present in desmosomes. Loss of desmosomes results in loss of cohesion between keratinocytes in the epidermis, and a disruption of the barrier function served by intact skin. The process is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?
Your Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol
Explanation:Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreezeFeatures of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertensionStage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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B1 adrenergic stimulation produces:
Your Answer: Increase in calcium cytosolic concentration
Explanation:Norepinephrine secreted by the sympathetic endings binds to B1 receptors, and the resulting increase in intracellular cAMP facilitates the opening of L channels, increasing Ica and the rapidity of the depolarization phase of the impulse and activates PKA which leads to phosphorylation of the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, causing them to spend more time in the open state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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All valves are closed in which phase of the cardiac cycle?
Your Answer: Isovolumetric relaxation
Explanation:The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.The first stage, diastole, is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. The second stage, atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle.The third stage, isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. The fourth stage, ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. During the fifth stage, isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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What is the function of the acute phase protein, C-reactive protein?
Your Answer: Opsonises bacteria
Explanation:There are various immune reactions that become activated once the barrier between the body and environment has been compromised. There are certain opsonins that bind to the bacteria and facilitate phagocytosis. One of them is the acute phase protein: C protein. others include antibodies and complement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old women presents following an overdose. Which one of the following would suggest anticholinergic syndrome?
Your Answer: Bradycardia is common
Correct Answer: Mydriasis occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic syndrome results from the inhibition of muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. Clinical manifestations can be remembered by the mnemonic, red as a beet, dry as a bone, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, hot as a hare, and full as a flask. The mnemonic refers to the symptoms of flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis (dilated pupil) with loss of accommodation, altered mental status, fever, and urinary retention, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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The structure of haemoglobin A in adults includes
Your Answer: Haem, globin polypeptide chains α and β
Explanation:Haemoglobin A (HbA), also known as adult haemoglobin or α2β2, is the most common human haemoglobin tetramer, comprising over 97% of the total red blood cell haemoglobin. It consists of two alpha chains and two beta chains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Regarding restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) and Gene Knockout Mouse Models. All are true except:
Your Answer: Sequence changes involved in RFLP can be analysed more quickly by PCR.
Correct Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation
Explanation:In RFLP, polymorphism occurs in 98% of the non coding genome, resulting in no phenotypical change in the organism. A gene is not turned on by a mutation, rather the mutation at the restriction site will alter the DNA and the DNA will now form fragments of different lengths. PCR is a better technique than RFLP.
A knockout, as related to genomics, refers to the use of genetic engineering to inactivate or remove one or more specific genes from an organism. Scientists create knockout organisms to study the impact of removing a gene from an organism, which often allows them to then learn something about that gene’s function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?
Your Answer: Linear areas of low density
Explanation:Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is troponin?
Your Answer: A myosin light chain
Correct Answer: A component of thin filaments
Explanation:Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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The spinothalamic tracts are particularly concerned with:
Your Answer: Pain and temperature sensations
Explanation:The spinothalamic tracts are part of the anterolateral system in the spinal cord and are responsible for transmitting sensory information related to pain, temperature, and crude touch from the peripheral nervous system to the thalamus in the brain. This sensory information is then relayed to the cerebral cortex for processing. The spinothalamic tracts are divided into two main pathways:
- Lateral spinothalamic tract: Transmits pain and temperature sensations.
- Anterior spinothalamic tract: Transmits crude touch and pressure sensations.
Control of posture: The reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts are primarily involved in the control of posture and balance. These tracts originate in the brainstem and help maintain posture by influencing the motor neurons that control axial and proximal muscles.
Voluntary skilled movements: The corticospinal tracts (also known as the pyramidal tracts) are responsible for voluntary skilled movements. These tracts originate in the motor cortex and descend through the brainstem and spinal cord to synapse on motor neurons that control fine motor movements, especially of the distal limbs.
Muscular tone: Muscular tone is primarily regulated by several tracts, including the reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts. Additionally, the rubrospinal tract (originating from the red nucleus in the midbrain) also contributes to motor control and muscle tone, particularly of the upper limbs.
Visual input: The optic tracts and pathways (including the optic nerve, optic chiasm, optic tract, lateral geniculate nucleus, and optic radiations) are responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe. This pathway processes visual input, including aspects such as color, motion, and depth perception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which structure forms the major part of the sternocostal surface of the heart?
Your Answer: Right atrium
Correct Answer: Right ventricle
Explanation:The anterior (sternocostal) surface is formed mainly by the right ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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