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Question 1
Correct
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You are conducting individual dynamic psychotherapy with a 28-year-old female patient. During a session, she reveals that when she feels overwhelmed by her mother's constant criticism, she cleans her entire apartment from top to bottom. What defence mechanism is being employed in this situation?
Your Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:Sublimation is a type of psychodynamic defence mechanism that involves directing unacceptable emotions into more acceptable outlets. In this case, going for a run is a positive way for the patient to cope with the emotions brought about by thinking about their abuser. The other answer options are also types of psychodynamic defence mechanisms described by Sigmund and Anna Freud, but they are considered less healthy ways of coping.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dynamic Psychopathology
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Question 2
Correct
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What defense mechanism is being demonstrated when an athlete initially dislikes a hockey teammate and eventually begins to believe that the teammate hates them?
Your Answer: Projection
Explanation:This scenario illustrates the concept of projection, where the athlete is projecting their own feelings of hatred onto their team mate. However, it does not involve projective identification as there is no indication of how the team mate is internalizing of reacting to the projection.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Incorrect
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When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine?
Your Answer: 2-4 weeks
Correct Answer: 4-18 weeks
Explanation:Agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, is a rare side effect of clozapine occurring in approximately 1% of patients. The period of maximum risk for developing agranulocytosis is between 4-18 weeks after starting treatment. It is important for patients taking clozapine to have regular blood tests and be registered with the Clozaril Patient Monitoring Service to monitor for this side effect. It is worth noting that the risk of agranulocytosis is not related to the dose of clozapine. For more information on the treatment of schizophrenia, the book Contemporary Issues in the Treatment of Schizophrenia edited by Shriqui CL and Nasrallah HA may be of interest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the term for the hallucinations that occur when someone is about to fall asleep?
Your Answer: Hypnagogic hallucinations
Explanation:Hallucinations that occur when falling asleep are called hypnagogic and are typically short and basic, such as simple sounds of flashes of light. Non-complex hallucinations, like sudden noises of brief flashes, are referred to as elementary hallucinations and can happen at any time. Tactile hallucinations are also known as haptic hallucinations. On the other hand, hypnopompic hallucinations are experienced upon waking up. It’s important to note that pseudohallucinations are not related to sleep and do not have the same quality as real perceptions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is a frequently observed side effect of carbamazepine?
Your Answer: Hyperhidrosis
Correct Answer: Ataxia
Explanation:The use of carbamazepine often results in numerous side effects, with ataxia being a common occurrence.
Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects
Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.
However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.
Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.
In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the most effective way to distinguish between dementia and delirium?
Your Answer: Changes in the sleep wake cycle
Correct Answer: Fluctuating consciousness
Explanation:The primary distinction between delirium and dementia is the variability of consciousness levels.
Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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From which structure does the mesolimbic pathway project to the nucleus accumbens?
Your Answer: Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: Midbrain
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 8
Correct
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What is a typical EEG finding in individuals with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Your Answer: Slow background rhythm with paroxysmal sharp waves
Explanation:Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is characterized by a slow background rhythm accompanied by paroxysmal sharp waves on EEG, while the remaining options are typical EEG features of the aging process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 9
Correct
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A teenager with a borderline personality disorder begins to skip school and spend more time alone. They also start engaging in increased substance use. The school counselor notes that this occurs at a time when the academic work has become very challenging.
Which of the following defense mechanisms is suggested?Your Answer: Acting out
Explanation:Common examples of acting out include avoiding therapy sessions and using alcohol as a means of avoiding the challenging work of therapy.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the defining characteristic of delirium?
Your Answer: Impairment of consciousness
Explanation:Delirium is primarily characterized by a disturbance in consciousness, often accompanied by a widespread decline in cognitive abilities. Other common symptoms include changes in mood, perception, behavior, and motor function, such as tremors and nystagmus. This information is based on Kaplan and Sadock’s concise textbook of psychiatry, 10th edition, published in 2008.
Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 70-year-old individual presents with a fluent dysphasia and inability to understand instructions. What is the probable location of arterial blockage?
Your Answer: Inferior division of middle cerebral artery (dominant hemisphere)
Explanation:Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a blockage in the inferior division of the middle cerebral artery, which provides blood to the temporal cortex (specifically, the posterior superior temporal gyrus of ‘Wernicke’s area’). This type of aphasia is characterized by fluent speech, but with significant comprehension difficulties. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is considered a non-fluent expressive aphasia, resulting from damage to Brodmann’s area in the frontal lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 12
Correct
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What is a true statement about varenicline?
Your Answer: It is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation
Explanation:Champix is a medication that contains varenicline, which acts as a partial agonist at nicotinic receptors.
Varenicline for Smoking Cessation: Safety and Efficacy
Varenicline is a medication used to aid smoking cessation by reducing cravings and pleasurable effects of tobacco products. It has a high affinity for the alpha 4 beta 2 nicotinic receptor and is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. Varenicline is safe to use in cases of liver dysfunction as it undergoes very little hepatic metabolism. It has been found to be nearly 80% more effective than bupropion and more effective than 24-hour nicotine replacement therapy in two large randomized controlled trials. The initial course of treatment could last 12 weeks, with an additional 12 weeks offered to those who have successfully quit smoking. However, varenicline has been observed to exacerbate underlying psychiatric illness, including depression, and is associated with changes in behavior of thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, aggressive behavior, suicidal ideation, and behavior. Patients with a psychiatric history should be closely monitored while taking varenicline. One randomized controlled trial has challenged this concern. The FDA has issued a safety announcement that varenicline may be associated with a small, increased risk of certain cardiovascular adverse events in patients with cardiovascular disease. The very common side effects of varenicline include nasopharyngitis, abnormal dreams, insomnia, headache, and nausea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are employed at a psychiatric inpatient unit where several patients are taking clozapine. Among the following patients, who would you suspect to have the lowest plasma clozapine levels if they were all taking the same dose?
Your Answer: A 50-year-old Asian female smoker
Correct Answer: A 25-year-old Caucasian male smoker
Explanation:Younger patients, males, and smokers typically exhibit lower plasma levels of clozapine, while the Asian population tends to have higher levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about different parenting styles?
Your Answer: Children reared by an authoritarian parental style tend to experience problems with authority
Correct Answer: Authoritative parents tend to listen to their children's' questions and demonstrate a high level of support
Explanation:Parenting Styles
In the 1960s, psychologist Diana Baumrind conducted a study on over 100 preschool-age children and identified four important dimensions of parenting: disciplinary strategies, warmth and nurturance, communication styles, and expectations of maturity and control. Based on these dimensions, she suggested that most parents fall into one of three parenting styles, with a fourth category added later by Maccoby and Martin.
Authoritarian parenting is characterized by strict rules and punishment for noncompliance, with little explanation given for the rules. These parents prioritize status and obedience over nurturing their children. This style tends to result in obedient and proficient children, but they may rank lower in happiness, social competence, and self-esteem.
Authoritative parents are similar to authoritarian parents, but they tend to be more responsive to their children. They set strict rules but provide explanations for them and nurture their children when they fail to meet expectations. The focus is on setting standards while also being supportive. This style tends to result in happy, capable, and successful children.
Permissive parents rarely discipline their children and avoid confrontation, allowing their children to self-regulate. They prefer to take on the role of a friend rather than a disciplinarian. This style often results in children who rank low in happiness and self-regulation, experience problems with authority, and perform poorly in school.
Uninvolved parenting is characterized by little involvement and few demands. This style ranks lowest across all life domains, with children lacking self-control, having low self-esteem, and being less competent than their peers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 15
Correct
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What is the most prominent characteristic linked to transient global amnesia?
Your Answer: Memory deficits are global
Explanation:Other organic amnesic syndromes, such as Korsakoff’s syndrome (whether caused by alcohol of not), may exhibit confabulation, but in transient global amnesia, there is only a temporary loss of recent memory and impaired new learning, without any other cognitive abnormalities. Patients remain alert and responsive, and their personal identity is not affected. The prevailing theory is that this amnesia is caused by a temporary dysfunction in the limbic-hippocampus circuits that are essential for memory formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
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Question 16
Correct
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What should be avoided for a patient who has a high level of concern about gaining weight?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Non-compliance is often caused by weight gain.
Antidepressants and Weight Gain
Studies suggest that certain types of antidepressants, such as tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), may be more likely to cause weight gain than newer antidepressants like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). However, mirtazapine, a newer antidepressant, may have a similar risk for weight gain as TCAs. Among SSRIs, paroxetine may have a higher risk for weight gain during long-term treatment compared to other SSRIs. On the other hand, bupropion and nefazodone may have a lower risk for weight gain than SSRIs in the long term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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What case prompted the creation of the Fraser Guidelines?
Your Answer: Gillick
Explanation:Gillick Competency and Fraser Guidelines
Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines refer to a legal case which looked specifically at whether doctors should be able to give contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent. But since then, they have been more widely used to help assess whether a child has the maturity to make their own decisions and to understand the implications of those decisions.
In 1982, Mrs Victoria Gillick took her local health authority (West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority) and the Department of Health and Social Security to court in an attempt to stop doctors from giving contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent.
The case went to the High Court where Mr Justice Woolf dismissed Mrs Gillick’s claims. The Court of Appeal reversed this decision, but in 1985 it went to the House of Lords and the Law Lords (Lord Scarman, Lord Fraser and Lord Bridge) ruled in favour of the original judgement delivered by Mr Justice Woolf.
The Fraser Guidelines were laid down by Lord Fraser in the House of Lords’ case and state that it is lawful for doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent providing that they are satisfied that:
– The young person will understand the professional’s advice
– The young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents
– The young person is likely to begin, of to continue having, sexual intercourse with of without contraceptive treatment
– Unless the young person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical of mental health, of both, are likely to suffer
– The young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice of treatment with of without parental consent. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the number of centromeres present in a cell containing 20 chromatids?
Your Answer: 20
Correct Answer: 10
Explanation:Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division
Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.
During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.
In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.
Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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How can the inheritance pattern be described as horizontal?
Your Answer: X-linked dominant
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:On a genogram, autosomal recessive conditions are represented by a horizontal inheritance pattern.
Modes of Inheritance
Genetic disorders can be passed down from one generation to the next in various ways. There are four main modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked (sex-linked), and multifactorial.
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when one faulty gene causes a problem despite the presence of a normal one. This type of inheritance shows vertical transmission, meaning it is based on the appearance of the family pedigree. If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance of each child expressing the condition. Autosomal dominant conditions often show pleiotropy, where a single gene influences several characteristics.
Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
In autosomal recessive conditions, a person requires two faulty copies of a gene to manifest a disease. A person with one healthy and one faulty gene will generally not manifest a disease and is labelled a carrier. Autosomal recessive conditions demonstrate horizontal transmission.
X-linked (Sex-linked) Inheritance
In X-linked conditions, the problem gene lies on the X chromosome. This means that all males are affected. Like autosomal conditions, they can be dominant of recessive. Affected males are unable to pass the condition on to their sons. In X-linked recessive conditions, the inheritance pattern is characterised by transmission from affected males to male grandchildren via affected carrier daughters.
Multifactorial Inheritance
Multifactorial conditions result from the interaction between genes from both parents and the environment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 20
Correct
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What type of memory failure is typically associated with the inability to remember where one has placed their car keys?
Your Answer: Absent-mindedness
Explanation:The reason behind absent-mindedness is typically due to insufficient activation of the left inferior prefrontal and parahippocampal regions during the initial encoding process, resulting in shallow processing.
Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure
Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.
However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.
Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.
Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 21
Correct
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What is a true statement about delirium?
Your Answer: Hypoactive delirium is often missed as it is difficult to recognise
Explanation:Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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Which category of movement disorders do tics fall under?
Your Answer: Hyperkinesia
Explanation:Hyperkinesia is a defining feature of tics.
Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Little Sarah is slow in her language development. She loves playing with dolls. Her father started by rewarding her with a doll when she made a da sound. Once she could say da on her own, her father moved on to doll, then doll please and eventually to the complete sentence Can I play with my doll please?
This type of reinforcement is called:Your Answer: Shaping
Correct Answer: Chaining
Explanation:Chaining involves teaching and connecting the components of a complex task in order to teach the task as a whole. Cueing helps the learner focus on important stimuli. Extinction occurs when a conditioned response gradually disappears due to repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated presentation and is important in treating OCD. Shaping involves reinforcing successively closer approximations to the desired behavior to build up complex behavior, and has clinical applications in managing behavioral disturbances, learning disabilities, and substance misuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 24
Correct
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A teenager who needs to start an antipsychotic tells you that they are very concerned about the risk of weight gain. You anticipate that they may discontinue the medication if they experience weight gain. What would be the most suitable initial approach to address this concern?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which study design is always considered observational?
Your Answer: Cohort study
Explanation:Case-studies and case-series can have an experimental nature due to the potential involvement of interventions of treatments.
Types of Primary Research Studies and Their Advantages and Disadvantages
Primary research studies can be categorized into six types based on the research question they aim to address. The best type of study for each question type is listed in the table below. There are two main types of study design: experimental and observational. Experimental studies involve an intervention, while observational studies do not. The advantages and disadvantages of each study type are summarized in the table below.
Type of Question Best Type of Study
Therapy Randomized controlled trial (RCT), cohort, case control, case series
Diagnosis Cohort studies with comparison to gold standard test
Prognosis Cohort studies, case control, case series
Etiology/Harm RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
Prevention RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
Cost Economic analysisStudy Type Advantages Disadvantages
Randomized Controlled Trial – Unbiased distribution of confounders – Blinding more likely – Randomization facilitates statistical analysis – Expensive – Time-consuming – Volunteer bias – Ethically problematic at times
Cohort Study – Ethically safe – Subjects can be matched – Can establish timing and directionality of events – Eligibility criteria and outcome assessments can be standardized – Administratively easier and cheaper than RCT – Controls may be difficult to identify – Exposure may be linked to a hidden confounder – Blinding is difficult – Randomization not present – For rare disease, large sample sizes of long follow-up necessary
Case-Control Study – Quick and cheap – Only feasible method for very rare disorders of those with long lag between exposure and outcome – Fewer subjects needed than cross-sectional studies – Reliance on recall of records to determine exposure status – Confounders – Selection of control groups is difficult – Potential bias: recall, selection
Cross-Sectional Survey – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Establishes association at most, not causality – Recall bias susceptibility – Confounders may be unequally distributed – Neyman bias – Group sizes may be unequal
Ecological Study – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Ecological fallacy (when relationships which exist for groups are assumed to also be true for individuals)In conclusion, the choice of study type depends on the research question being addressed. Each study type has its own advantages and disadvantages, and researchers should carefully consider these when designing their studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 26
Correct
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What value of NNT indicates the most positive result for an intervention?
Your Answer: NNT = 1
Explanation:An NNT of 1 indicates that every patient who receives the treatment experiences a positive outcome, while no patient in the control group experiences the same outcome. This represents an ideal outcome.
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 27
Correct
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What is the percentage of individuals who experience delirium tremens during alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer: 5%
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What condition of situation would make the use of lithium inappropriate of unsafe?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Brugada syndrome
Explanation:Brugada syndrome typically appears in males during adulthood, usually around age 40, and sudden death may be the initial symptom. This genetic disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This information is sourced from the National Organization for Rare Disorders (NORD).
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding the innervation of the cerebral blood vessels, postganglionic sympathetic neurons have their cell bodies in the:
Your Answer: Inferior cervical ganglia
Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglia
Explanation:The superior cervical ganglion (SCG) is a part of autonomic system which plays a major role in maintaining homeostasis of the body. This ganglion innervates structures in the head and neck and is the largest and the most superiorly located ganglion. The SCG provides sympathetic innervation to structures within the head, including the pineal gland, the blood vessels in the cranial muscles and the brain, the choroid plexus, the eyes, the lacrimal glands, the carotid body, the salivary glands, and the thyroid gland. The postganglionic axons of the SCG innervate the internal carotid artery and form the internal carotid plexus. The internal carotid plexus carries the postganglionic axons of the SCG to the eye, lacrimal gland, mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, and pharynx, and numerous blood-vessels in the head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification?
Your Answer: Intermetamorphosis
Correct Answer: Cotard's syndrome
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that they are deceased of do not exist.
Delusional Misidentification Syndrome
Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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