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  • Question 1 - The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?...

    Correct

    • The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following products of the vascular endothelium produce vasodilation except: ...

    Correct

    • The following products of the vascular endothelium produce vasodilation except:

      Your Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      Endothelin: This is incorrect in the context of vasodilation. Endothelin is actually a potent vasoconstrictor produced by the endothelium, leading to the narrowing of blood vessels and increased blood pressure.

      Nitrous oxide (Nitric oxide): This is correct for vasodilation. Nitric oxide is a powerful vasodilator produced by the endothelium, which helps relax and widen blood vessels.

      Prostacyclin: This is correct for vasodilation. Prostacyclin (PGI2) is a vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation, helping to maintain blood flow and reduce clot formation.

      Endothelial-derived hyperpolarizing factor (EDHF): This is correct for vasodilation. EDHF causes vasodilation by hyperpolarizing the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels.

      Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF): This is correct for vasodilation. VEGF primarily promotes the growth of new blood vessels but also has vasodilatory effects through nitric oxide production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements with regards to regulation of pulmonary blood flow...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements with regards to regulation of pulmonary blood flow is correct:

      Your Answer: Decreased blood flow to a region causes constriction of bronchi that area

      Explanation:

      Oxygen deficiency or hypoxia has a direct effect on pulmonary vessels and results in vasoconstriction. Increased carbon dioxide levels causes pH levels to fall and results in pulmonary vasoconstriction. Decreased blood flow to a pulmonary region causes bronchoconstriction in that area to allow for flow of blood to an area where ventilation is high. Exercise increases demand of oxygen and causes increased pulmonary artery pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should...

    Correct

    • In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should be made at:

      Your Answer: 200 J

      Explanation:

      Defibrillation is a common treatment for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and ventricular fibrillation. If the patient is in Ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation (VF) on the monitor, immediately apply the pads and shock the patient with 120-200 Joules on a biphasic defibrillator or 360 Joules on a monophasic defibrillator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old woman is having trouble in speaking following a stroke. Her limbs...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman is having trouble in speaking following a stroke. Her limbs are paralyzed, both left upper and lower limbs. Which anatomical site is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Internal capsule

      Explanation:

      – The given scenario is typical of lesion in internal capsule. – Memory impairment is caused by a hippocampal lesion, – Impairment of arousal, facial paresis, visual field defect, facial paresis, hemiataxia, and hemispacial neglect are just some of the conditions caused by thalamic lesion. – Brainstem stroke on the other hand causes breathing abnormality, altered consciousness, and blood pressure disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?...

    Correct

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?

      Your Answer: Vestibulocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The vestibulocerebellum develops at the same time as the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear. Its regulates balance between agonist and antagonist muscle contractions of the spine, hips, and shoulders during rapid movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed sleep. The physician has prescribed temazepam. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the effect gamma-aminobutyric acid

      Correct Answer: Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid

      Explanation:

      Temazepam is an orally available benzodiazepine used in the therapy of insomnia. The soporific activity of the benzodiazepines is mediated by their ability to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) mediated inhibition of synaptic transmission through binding to the GABA-A receptor.The recommended initial dose for insomnia is 7.5 mg before bedtime, increasing as needed to a maximum dose of 30 mg. The most common side effects of temazepam are dose-related and include daytime drowsiness, lethargy, ataxia, dysarthria, and dizziness.Tolerance develops to these side effects, but tolerance may also develop to the effects on insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?

      Your Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Explanation:

      Viridans Alpha-haemolytic streptococci, that are present in the mouth are the most frequently isolated microorganisms when the infection is acquired in a community setting. In contrast, Staphylococcus blood stream infections are frequently acquired in a health care setting where they can enter the blood stream through procedures that cause break in the integrity of skin like surgery, catheterisation or during access of long term indwelling catheters or secondary to intravenous injection of recreational drugs.Prosthetic valve endocarditis is commonly caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis as it is capable of growing as a biofilm on plastic surfaces

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The channel that coalesces the small pancreatic duct radicles before joining the common...

    Correct

    • The channel that coalesces the small pancreatic duct radicles before joining the common bile duct is known as the:

      Your Answer: Duct of Wirsung

      Explanation:

      The small ducts from the pancreas coalesce into a single duct known as the pancreatic duct or the duct of Wirsung. It usually joins the bile duct at the ampulla of Vater before entering the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house fire. He complained of feeling dizzy and having a worsening headache. On examination, he was dyspnoeic, drowsy and confused. There was no evidence of facial burns and no stridor. He was normotensive, tachycardic (pulse rate: 102 bpm), tachypnoeic (respiratory rate: 35/min) and had O2 saturation of 100% in room air. His venous blood gas results are given below: pH - 7.28pCO2 - 3.5 kPapO2 - 15.9 kPaNa+ - 139 mmol/LK+ - 4.5 mmol/LBicarbonate - 11 mmol/LChloride - 113 mmol/LLactate - 13.6 mmol/LKeeping in mind the likely diagnosis, which among the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate intervention in this patient is intravenous hydroxocobalamin.The clinical scenario provided is suggestive of acute cyanide toxicity secondary to burning plastics in the house fire. Cyanide ions inhibit mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase, preventing aerobic respiration. This manifests in normal oxygen saturations, a high pO2 and flushing (or ‘brick red’ skin) brought on by the excess oxygenation of venous blood. In the question above it is important to note that the blood gas sample given is venous rather than arterial. His blood gas also demonstrates an increased anion gap, consistent with his high lactate (generated by anaerobic respiration due to the inability to use available oxygen).The recommended treatment for moderate cyanide toxicity in the UK is one of three options: sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin or dicobalt edetate. Among the options given is hydroxocobalamin and this is, therefore, the correct answer. Hydroxocobalamin additionally has the best side-effect profile and speed of onset compared with other treatments for cyanide poisoning.Other options:- Intubation would be appropriate treatment in the context of airway burns but this patient has no evidence of these, although close monitoring would be advised. – High-flow oxygen is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning – a sensible differential, but this man’s very high lactate and high venous pO2 fit better with cyanide toxicity. Intravenous dexamethasone would be another treatment for airway oedema once an endotracheal tube had been placed. – Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is a treatment for high blood pressure that can cause cyanide poisoning, and would, therefore, be inappropriate.Note:Cyanide may be used in insecticides, photograph development and the production of certain metals. Toxicity results from reversible inhibition of cellular oxidizing enzymesClinical presentation:Classical features: brick-red skin, the smell of bitter almondsAcute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusionChronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitisManagement:Supportive measures: 100% oxygenDefinitive: hydroxocobalamin (intravenously), also a combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old male is admitted after drinking engine coolant in an apparent suicide...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male is admitted after drinking engine coolant in an apparent suicide attempt. Lab investigations reveal:
      • pH 7.1 (7.36-7.44)
      • pO2 15.3 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      • pCO2 3.2 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      • Standard bicarbonate 2.2 mmol/L (20-28)
      • Serum calcium 1.82 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
      After replacing calcium, which of the following is the most urgent treatment for this man?

      Your Answer: Fomepizole infusion

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and lab results are indicative of ethylene glycol poisoning, commonly found in engine coolant. Ethylene glycol is metabolized to toxic metabolites, including glycolic acid and oxalic acid, which can cause metabolic acidosis (evidenced by the low pH and low bicarbonate levels) and can bind calcium, leading to hypocalcemia.

      Fomepizole is an antidote that inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, the enzyme that converts ethylene glycol into its toxic metabolites. This prevents further formation of the harmful substances, allowing time for the ethylene glycol to be excreted unchanged in the urine.

      While haemodialysis is also an important treatment for severe ethylene glycol poisoning, especially in cases of significant acidosis or renal failure, the immediate administration of fomepizole is the most urgent intervention to prevent further toxicity. Haemodialysis can be considered if the patient does not respond adequately to fomepizole or if there are signs of severe toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Bone marrow barrier is important to: ...

    Incorrect

    • Bone marrow barrier is important to:

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: Allow mature red blood cells to pass into circulation

      Explanation:

      The blood vessels of the bone marrow constitute a barrier, inhibiting immature blood cells from leaving the marrow. Only mature blood cells contain the membrane proteins, such as aquaporin and glycophorin, that are required to attach to and pass the blood vessel endothelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into...

    Correct

    • Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into an amino acid sequence?

      Your Answer: Translation

      Explanation:

      Messenger RNA (mRNA) is decoded in a ribosome, outside the nucleus, to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide. This is known as translation and follows after the process transcription of DNA to RNA in the cell’s nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding blood supply to the heart; ...

    Correct

    • Regarding blood supply to the heart;

      Your Answer: Coronary arteries fill as the heart relaxes

      Explanation:

      The heart muscles acts like the skeletal muscle in the fact that it also compress the vessels during contraction. As the pressure in the ventricle is slightly greater than in the aorta the coronary vessels collapse during systole. Blood flows through them during the diastole phase of contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which...

    Correct

    • The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which one of the following prostaglandin receptors?

      Your Answer: Ep3

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin EP3 receptor is a receptor for prostaglandin E2. Fever occurs as a result of the action of prostaglandin E2 and requires EP3 receptors in the preoptic area. Therefore, if there is an absence of EP3 receptors, fever caused by prostaglandin E2 will not occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following cells secrete glucagon? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cells secrete glucagon?

      Your Answer: A cells

      Explanation:

      Glucagon counteracts hypoglycaemia and opposes insulin by promoting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis. It also decreases fatty acid synthesis in the liver and adipose tissue, and promotes lipolysis. It is secreted by the pancreatic islet α-cells. Its production is regulated by the insulin produced in β-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Interruption of the left optic tract will result in which visual field defect?...

    Incorrect

    • Interruption of the left optic tract will result in which visual field defect?

      Your Answer: Complete blindness of left eye

      Correct Answer: Right homonymous hemianopia

      Explanation:

      Right homonymous hemianopia is due to a lesion or pressure on the left optic tract. Total blindness of the left eye is due to a complete occlusion of the left optic nerve. Bipolar hemianopia is due to a midline chiasmal lesion. Left nasal hemianopia due to a lesion involving the left perichiasmal area. Right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia is due to involvement of the lower left optic radiations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination:

      Your Answer: 50% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected

      Correct Answer: 30% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected

      Explanation:

      The ability of humans to differentiate differences in intensity of taste is poor. A 30% change in the concentration of the substance being tasted is required before an intensity difference is perceived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron? ...

    Correct

    • Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?

      Your Answer: Tubular interstitial cells

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by: ...

    Correct

    • The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:

      Your Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1

      Explanation:

      Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In addition to its role in digestion and absorption of fats, bile: ...

    Correct

    • In addition to its role in digestion and absorption of fats, bile:

      Your Answer: Is the major excretory route for lipid-soluble waste products

      Explanation:

      The end product of haem metabolism is bilirubin and jaundice is caused by increased bilirubin levels in the blood. Gallstones are mainly caused by cholesterol and bile pigments. Bile is the main route of excretion for lipid soluble waste products whereas urine is the main route of excretion of water soluble waste products.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The predominant site in the lymph node where B lymphocytes are found is:...

    Incorrect

    • The predominant site in the lymph node where B lymphocytes are found is:

      Your Answer: Paracortex

      Correct Answer: Cortex

      Explanation:

      The cortex of the lymph node consists of the lymphoid nodules and sinusoids and posses a germinal centre from which B cells proliferate. The cortex of the lymph node predominately consists of B cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following diseases have antibodies available for treatment of the condition....

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases have antibodies available for treatment of the condition.

      Your Answer: Rabies

      Correct Answer: None of these

      Explanation:

      There is no specific treatment for hepatitis A. Recovery from symptoms following infection may be slow and may take several weeks or months. The hepatitis A vaccine is effective for prevention and appears to be effective for life.Acute hepatitis B infection does not usually require treatment and most adults clear the infection spontaneously. Early antiviral treatment may be required in fewer than 1% of people, whose infection takes a very aggressive course (fulminant hepatitis) or who are immunocompromised. Although none of the available drugs can clear the infection, they can stop the virus from replicating, thus minimizing liver damage.There is no specific treatment for measles. Most people with uncomplicated measles will recover with rest and supportive treatment. In developed countries, children are immunized against measles at 12 months, generally as part of a three-part MMR vaccine (measles, mumps, and rubella). The vaccination is generally not given before this age because such infants respond inadequately to the vaccine due to an immature immune system. Treatment after rabies exposure can prevent the disease if administered promptly, generally within 10 days of infection. The Centres for Disease Control and Prevention recommends people receive one dose of human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) and four doses of rabies vaccine over a 14-day period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Approximately what percentage of the world is infected with tuberculosis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Approximately what percentage of the world is infected with tuberculosis:

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      The WHO report states that about one-quarter of the world’s population is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis. This means approximately 25% of people globally have latent TB infection, which can potentially progress to active TB disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following stimulate the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following stimulate the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin 2

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin II also stimulates the secretion of the hormone aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone causes the renal tubules to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water into the blood, while at the same time causing the excretion of potassium (to maintain electrolyte balance).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline? ...

    Correct

    • What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline?

      Your Answer: Ornithine transcarbamoylase

      Explanation:

      Carbamoyl phosphate is converted to citrulline by ornithine transcarbamoylase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following forms one of the characteristic and functional cells making...

    Correct

    • Which of the following forms one of the characteristic and functional cells making up the anterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer: Corticotrope

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary, also known as adenohypophysis or pars anterior contains the following types of cells: – acidophil cells: somatotroph cells, which produce growth hormone; and lactotrophs, which produce prolactin- basophil cells: corticotropes, which produce adrenocorticotropic hormone; thyrotropes, which produce thyroid stimulating hormone; and – gonadotrophs, which produce luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:...

    Correct

    • The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:

      Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back,...

    Correct

    • An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?

      Your Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria? ...

    Correct

    • In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria?

      Your Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate

      Explanation:

      Before the urea cycle begins ammonia is converted to carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes: ...

    Correct

    • The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes:

      Your Answer: Breasts: stimulation of lobular and alveolar development

      Explanation:

      Progesterone is a sex hormone which affects mainly the reproductive system. In the breasts, it mediates the lobuloalveolar maturation to allow for milk production; this is done in conjunction with prolactin. It acts to maintain female reproductive and sex characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Di and tri peptides are absorbed via a different mechanism as amino acids,...

    Correct

    • Di and tri peptides are absorbed via a different mechanism as amino acids, this is due to the working of which transporter?

      Your Answer: PEPT 1

      Explanation:

      GLUT and SGLT are glucose transporters. Peptides which are longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cells of the small intestine via a transporter called PepT1 by co-transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones?

      Your Answer: They are released in response to hypervolemia

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic hormones are vasodilators released in response to hypervolemia.

      Natriuretic hormones (NH) include three groups of compounds: the natriuretic peptides NPs (ANP, BNP and CNP), the gastrointestinal peptides (guanylin and uroguanylin), and endogenous cardiac steroids. These substances induce the kidney to excrete sodium and therefore participate in the regulation of sodium and water homeostasis, blood volume, and blood pressure (BP). In addition to their peripheral functions, these hormones act as neurotransmitters or neuromodulators in the brain.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) plays a crucial role in blood pressure regulation by inducing natriuresis and diuresis in the kidney, inhibiting renin secretion, aldosterone production, and promoting vasorelaxation.  Two paracrine factors derived from endothelial cells play important roles in modulating ANP secretion. Endothelin, a potent vasoconstrictor, stimulates ANP secretion and augments stretch induced ANP secretion. The dramatic increase in ANP release produced by cardiac ischemia appears to be mediated in part by endothelin. Nitric oxide (NO), an important vasodilator, is also produced by endothelial cells and inhibits ANP secretion.

      Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) shares ANP’s receptor but is primarily associated with antifibrotic effects in ventricular remodeling, serving as a biomarker for heart failure and myocardial infarction.

      C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP) acts locally in an autocrine/paracrine manner, exerting potent cardiovascular effects, including vasorelaxation and vascular remodeling post-injury. NPs also demonstrate diverse effects beyond cardiovascular and renal systems, such as bronchodilation, anti-inflammatory actions, and metabolic effects on adipose tissue and long bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Where does one find the thyroid receptors? ...

    Correct

    • Where does one find the thyroid receptors?

      Your Answer: Cell nucleus

      Explanation:

      Unlike many of the steroid receptors, inactive receptors for T3 are located in the nucleus. T4 is first converted into T3 within the cytoplasm of the cell, T3 then enters the nucleus and binds to its receptor. The hormone-receptor complex can now bind to DNA and activate specific genes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome. The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?

      Your Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Cross-bridges between actin and myosin filaments contain: ...

    Correct

    • Cross-bridges between actin and myosin filaments contain:

      Your Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      At rest troponin I is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and causes a structural change in troponin I which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which enzyme is deficient in the inborn error of metabolism called galactosemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme is deficient in the inborn error of metabolism called galactosemia?

      Your Answer: Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

      Explanation:

      Galactosaemia is a rare genetic autosomal recessive metabolic disorder. Lactose is broken down by the enzyme lactase into glucose and galactose. In individuals with galactosemia, the enzymes needed for further metabolism of galactose (Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase) are severely diminished or missing entirely, leading to toxic levels of galactose 1-phosphate in various tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - The right border of the heart corresponds to which line on the surface...

    Correct

    • The right border of the heart corresponds to which line on the surface of the chest?

      Your Answer: Line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Select a factor which stimulates glucagon secretion. ...

    Correct

    • Select a factor which stimulates glucagon secretion.

      Your Answer: Protein meal

      Explanation:

      Several studies have shown that glucagon levels are increased in individuals with a high protein diet. It is still debated, however, whether this type of diet affects insulin levels as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV...

    Correct

    • Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV nodes?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The RCA (right coronary artery) supplies the SA and the AV nodes along with the postero-basal wall of the left ventricle, posterior one third of the inferior vena cava, right ventricle and the posteromedial papillary muscle in the left ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she has been experiencing for the last 4 weeks. She does not remember getting injured previously. The pain worsens on movement especially when she is moving the arm quickly. At night, lying on the affected side is painful. Examination reveals no erythema or swelling. However, pain is felt on passive abduction between 60 to 120 degrees and she is unable to abduct the arm past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis

      Explanation:

      Supraspinatus tendinopathy is a common and disabling condition that becomes more prevalent after middle age and is a common cause of pain in the shoulder. A predisposing factor is resistive overuse. This patient has the classic painful arc that is a sign of shoulder impingement characteristic of supraspinatus tendonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by: ...

    Correct

    • The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by:

      Your Answer: A branch of the right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior aspect of the heart is supplied by the posterior interventricular artery which is a branch of the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?

      Your Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Dynein proteins transmit polypeptides/proteins in which direction? ...

    Correct

    • Dynein proteins transmit polypeptides/proteins in which direction?

      Your Answer: From axons terminals to cell body (retrograde)

      Explanation:

      The majority of axonal proteins are synthesised in the cell body and transported along the axons. Microtubules run along the length of the axon and provide tracks for transportation. Kinesin and Dynein are motor proteins that transport proteins and other organelles. Kinesin moves forward or anterograde transport from cell body to axon, whereas Dynein moves retrograde from axon to cell body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What is the most important source of heat production in the body? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most important source of heat production in the body?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle contraction

      Explanation:

      Thermogenesis is the process by which organisms produce heat. Through skeletal muscle contraction, or shivering, ATP is converted into kinetic energy, some of which converts into heat. These muscle contractions produce about 70% of total body heat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat...

    Correct

    • What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat in children?

      Your Answer: Brown adipose tissue

      Explanation:

      Brown adipose tissue, also known as BAT or brown fat, coforms the adipose tissue along with white adipose tissue (WAT) or white fat. While WAT is responsible for energy-storage, BAT is involved in thermogenesis and energy expenditure. It is more prevalent in children than in adults, and its activation during adolescence is associated to less weight gain and adiposity. BAT produces heat by non-shivering thermogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following acts on the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice that...

    Correct

    • Which of the following acts on the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice that is rich in enzymes?

      Your Answer: CCK

      Explanation:

      CCK (Cholecystokinin): CCK is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of fats and proteins in the small intestine. It stimulates the pancreas to secrete enzyme-rich pancreatic juice, which aids in the digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. It also stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile.

      Secretin: Secretin is released by the duodenum in response to acidic chyme entering from the stomach. It primarily stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice to neutralize the acid, but it does not primarily stimulate enzyme secretion.

      Gastrin: Gastrin is produced by G-cells in the stomach. It stimulates gastric acid secretion by the stomach, not pancreatic enzyme secretion.

      Chymotrypsin: Chymotrypsin is an enzyme produced by the pancreas. It does not act to stimulate the pancreas; rather, it is a component of the pancreatic juice that helps digest proteins.

      Elastase: Elastase is also an enzyme produced by the pancreas. Like chymotrypsin, it is involved in the digestion of proteins and does not stimulate the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by: ...

    Correct

    • Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:

      Your Answer: Chemokines

      Explanation:

      The major role of chemokines is to act as a chemoattractant to guide the migration of cells like neutrophils to the site of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer: 1.5

      Correct Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      112.6
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - What effect does osmotic diuresis have on net Na+ excretion? ...

    Correct

    • What effect does osmotic diuresis have on net Na+ excretion?

      Your Answer: Markedly increased Na+ excretion 

      Explanation:

      Osmotic diuresis is the increase of urination rate caused by the presence of certain substances in the small tubes of the kidneys. The excretion occurs when substances such as glucose enter the kidney tubules and cannot be reabsorbed (due to a pathological state or the normal nature of the substance). The substances cause an increase in the osmotic pressure within the tubule, causing retention of water within the lumen, and thus reduces the reabsorption of water, increasing urine output (i.e. diuresis). Sodium, chloride, potassium are markedly excreted in osmotic diuresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system?

      Your Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Microglia are the smallest of the neuroglial cells in the nervous system. They are scattered throughout the central nervous system and have phagocytic properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which of the following is a product of D cells ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a product of D cells

      Your Answer: Somatostatin

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is secreted by D cells, HCL and intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells. Trefoil peptides are secreted by mucus secreting goblet cells and gastrin releasing peptide (grp) by post-ganglionic fibers of the vagus nerve (which innervate the G cells of the stomach).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?...

    Correct

    • What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The portal vein supplies 75% of the blood to the liver and exceeds the arterial supply of the organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?

      Your Answer: Increased levels of prostaglandins

      Correct Answer: Reduced levels of prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Ductus arteriosus is kept open by the prostaglandin E2 which is a vasodilator. At birth the high levels of cyclooxygenase blocks the production of prostaglandins which results in the closure of the ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home....

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home. He was diagnosed with osteoporosis about five years ago. He presently complains of significant low back pain. A lumbar spine X-ray was suggestive of a fractured lumbar vertebra. A subsequent MRI scan of the lumbosacral spine revealed a new L3 burst fracture with no evidence of cord compression. A neurosurgical consult was sought and conservative management was planned accordingly in the form of pain control, physiotherapy, and mobilization (as allowed by the pain). He also has been diagnosed with chronic renal disease (stage IV) with a creatinine clearance of 21ml/min, he was started on a Buprenorphine patch. Which of the following opioids would be safest to use for his breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Oxycodone is a safer opioid to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure.Active metabolites of morphine accumulate in renal failure which means that long-term use is contraindicated in patients with moderate/severe renal failure. These toxic metabolites can accumulate causing toxicity and risk overdose. Oxycodone is mainly metabolised in the liver and thus safer to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure with dose reductions.Adverse effects:Constipation is the most common overall side effect. Others include: asthenia, dizziness, dry mouth, headache, nausea, pruritus, etc. Medications in renal failure:Drugs to be avoided in patients with renal failureAntibiotics: tetracycline, nitrofurantoinNSAIDsLithiumMetforminDrugs that require dose adjustment:Most antibiotics including penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, streptomycinDigoxin, atenololMethotrexateSulphonylureasFurosemideOpioidsRelatively safe drugs:Antibiotics: erythromycin, rifampicinDiazepamWarfarin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Regarding DNA cloning and sequencing, all of the following are true, except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding DNA cloning and sequencing, all of the following are true, except:

      Your Answer: Yeast artificial chromosomes ( yacs) are vectors

      Explanation:

      Yeast chromosomes cannot be used as a vector. All the rest are true. Vectors can be bacteria, viruses and plasmids. DNA ligase binds the DNA fragment to the host DNA after insertion. Fluorescence can be used to visualize them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through:

      Your Answer: Inhibiting tumour suppressor genes.

      Correct Answer: Point mutations in genomic DNA

      Explanation:

      80% of the pancreatic cancers are environmentally influenced by smoking which increases the risk by 50%. Mutation can occur in the KRAS, p16, SMAD4, and TP53 genes among other tumour suppression genes. Smoking can be implicated in transformation of all these genes. Apart from KRAS all the genes are inactivated in pancreatic cancer. As KRAS is the most commonly altered gene, mutation occurs as point mutation. As smoking is the most common aetiology in pancreatic cancer, and KRAS is the most important gene that is altered. Most commonly cigarette smoke causes point mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Causes of hair loss include:

      • Dissecting cellulitis
      • Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      • Folliculitis
      • Secondary syphilis
      • Demodex folliculorum
      • Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).

      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble?

      Your Answer: A, D, E, K

      Explanation:

      Vitamins are classified as either fat soluble (vitamins A, D, E and K) or water soluble (vitamins B and C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:- Psoriasis- Atopic eczema- Erythema multiforme- Seborrheic dermatitis- Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)- Mycosis fungoides- Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome- Porphyria cutanea tardaAlso, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:- Systemic lupus erythematosus- Sjögren’s syndrome- Sinear Usher syndrome- Rosacea- Dermatomyositis- Darier’s disease- Kindler-Weary syndromeAcute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:...

    Correct

    • The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomerase

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is the enzyme responsible for maintenance of the length of telomeres by addition of guanine-rich repetitive sequences. Telomerase activity is exhibited in gametes and stem and tumor cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb joint pain and lower backache for the past 2 weeks. He remembers getting a mild gastrointestinal infection while in Spain 6 weeks ago that settled spontaneously. There has been eye irritation that has now settled. Past surgical history includes an appendectomy 3 years back. Vital examination shows a temperature of 37.5 C. Lab results reveal a normal WBC and raised ESR. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: A rash is commonly seen in such patients

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor is likely to be negative

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. There usually is no rash and the diagnosis is unrelated to the presence of rheumatoid factor. This is a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Regarding the structure of the 3 pituitary glycoprotein hormones FSH, LH, and TSH,...

    Correct

    • Regarding the structure of the 3 pituitary glycoprotein hormones FSH, LH, and TSH, which of the following is true about the α- and β-subunits of each hormone?

      Your Answer: Maximal physiological activity occurs only on their combination

      Explanation:

      Glycoprotein hormones (GPHs) are the most complex molecules that function as hormones. They each consist of two different subunits, α and β, which are non-covalently associated. The combination of these subunits results in an increase in their activity and β structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - In a 60kg adult male with normal mean arterial pressure and oxygen consumption,...

    Correct

    • In a 60kg adult male with normal mean arterial pressure and oxygen consumption, what proportion of the cardiac output at rest goes to the brain?

      Your Answer: 10-15%

      Explanation:

      The rate of cerebral blood flow in the adult is typically 750 millilitres per minute, which is 10-15% of the cardiac output. On average around 13.9% of cardiac output is distributed to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which statement is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct?

      Your Answer: MtDNA principally encodes for proteins that are involved in oxidative phosphorylation for the production of ATP in the cell.

      Explanation:

      Mitochondria have no nucleus instead they contain their own free floating circular genome (MtDNA), which encodes 13 different subunits of proteins involved in oxidative phosphorylation. The remainder of the mitochondrial proteins are nuclear encoded, synthesized in the cytoplasm, and transported into the mitochondria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination:BP: 101/74 mmHgRR: 22 breaths/minPR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?

      Your Answer: Impaired hydroxylation of lysine and proline amino acids on collagen

      Correct Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Telomerase is active in the following cells except: ...

    Correct

    • Telomerase is active in the following cells except:

      Your Answer: Certain osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Some cells have the ability to reverse telomere shortening by expressing telomerase, an enzyme that extends the telomeres of chromosomes. Telomerase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, meaning an enzyme that can make DNA using RNA as a template.

      Telomerase is not usually active in most somatic cells (cells of the body), but it’s active in germ cells (the cells that make sperm and eggs) and some adult stem cells. These are cell types that need to undergo many divisions, or, in the case of germ cells, give rise to a new organism with its telomeric “clock” reset.
      Interestingly, many cancer cells have shortened telomeres, and telomerase is active in these cells. If telomerase could be inhibited by drugs as part of cancer therapy, their excess division (and thus, the growth of the cancerous tumor) could potentially be stopped.
       A subset of liver cells with high levels of telomerase renews the organ during normal cell turnover and after injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of: ...

    Correct

    • Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of:

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in between the cells. They allow for the formation of low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Cranial nerves VI, VII, VIII enter/exit the base of the brain at the:...

    Correct

    • Cranial nerves VI, VII, VIII enter/exit the base of the brain at the:

      Your Answer: Ponto-medullary junction

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerves III, IV and V exit from the pons, VI, VII, VIII exit from the pontomedullary junction and cranial nerve IX, X, XI, XII exit from the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?

      Your Answer: Malar rash

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus typically presents with pulmonary involvement and no renal or neurological involvement. Hence glomerulonephritis would be highly unlikely in this case. Rash and arthralgias are classic presentations. Pleurisy can be present as pulmonary involvement may occur with DILE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - The functional unit of the liver is called? ...

    Correct

    • The functional unit of the liver is called?

      Your Answer: Acini

      Explanation:

      From a metabolic perspective, the functional unit is the hepatic acinus (terminal acinus), each of which is centred on the line connecting two portal triads and extends outwards to the two adjacent central veins. The periportal zone I is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood, making it least sensitive to ischemic injury while making it very susceptible to viral hepatitis. Conversely, the centrilobular zone III has the poorest oxygenation, and will be most affected during a time of ischemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: X-ray of the knee

      Correct Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid

      Explanation:

      Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - In the body what are fatty acids broken down to? ...

    Correct

    • In the body what are fatty acids broken down to?

      Your Answer: Acetyl Co A

      Explanation:

      Fatty acids are broken down into acetyl Co A. The acetyl-CoA produced by beta oxidation enters the citric acid cycle in the mitochondrion by combining with oxaloacetate to form citrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage...

    Correct

    • During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage known as:

      Your Answer: Epiphysial plate

      Explanation:

      The epiphysial plate, physis, or growth plate, is a hyaline cartilage plate located near the ends of long bones; it consists of growing tissue. It is found in children and teenagers; in adults, it is replaced by an epiphysial line or epiphysial closure. The epiphysial plate is divided into zones: zone of reserve, proliferation, maturation and hypertrophy, calcification, and ossification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - What is the average life span of red blood cells? ...

    Correct

    • What is the average life span of red blood cells?

      Your Answer: 4 months

      Explanation:

      Approximately 2.4 million new erythrocytes are produced per second in human adults. The cells develop in the bone marrow and circulate for about 100–120 days (4 months) in the body before their components are recycled by macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Which vitamin is found in NAD and NADP? ...

    Correct

    • Which vitamin is found in NAD and NADP?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B3

      Explanation:

      In organisms, NAD can be synthesized from simple building-blocks (de novo) from the amino acids tryptophan or aspartic acid. In an alternative fashion, more complex components of the coenzymes are taken up from food as the vitamin called niacin (vitamin B3)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Angina pectoris develops when blood through the coronary artery becomes: ...

    Correct

    • Angina pectoris develops when blood through the coronary artery becomes:

      Your Answer: Restricted, limiting blood blow

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris develops when stenosis ( >70%) of the artery occurs as a result of formation of an atherosclerotic plaque. This leads to a decrease in the O2 carried to the thickened heart muscle by the blood, leading to the characteristic chest pain associated with angina pectoris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Regarding the surface anatomy of the orifices of the heart, where is the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the surface anatomy of the orifices of the heart, where is the aortic valve located?

      Your Answer: Opposite the right 3rd intercostal space

      Correct Answer: Opposite the left 3rd intercostal space to the left of the sternum

      Explanation:

      The aortic valve is situated in the left 3rd intercostal space just beneath the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - The amount of a substance taken up by an organ (or whole body)...

    Correct

    • The amount of a substance taken up by an organ (or whole body) per unit time is = (the arterial level - the venous level) * the blood flow. This statement describes?

      Your Answer: The Fick principle

      Explanation:

      The essence of the Fick principle is that blood flow to an organ can be calculated using a marker substance if the following information is known:- Amount of marker substance taken up by the organ per unit time- Concentration of marker substance in arterial blood supplying the organ- Concentration of marker substance in venous blood leaving the organ

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (Methyl THF) is converted to THF with the help of which of...

    Incorrect

    • 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (Methyl THF) is converted to THF with the help of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase

      Correct Answer: B 12

      Explanation:

      MTR, also known as methionine synthase, is a methyltransferase enzyme, which uses the Vitamin B12 to transfer a methyl group from 5-methyltetrahydrofolate to homocysteine, thereby generating tetrahydrofolate (THF) and methionine. This functionality is lost in vitamin B12 deficiency, resulting in an increased homocysteine level and the trapping of folate as 5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate, from which THF (the active form of folate) cannot be recovered. THF plays an important role in DNA synthesis so reduced availability of THF results in ineffective production of cells with rapid turnover, in particular red blood cells, and also intestinal wall cells which are responsible for absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current. ...

    Correct

    • The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current.

      Your Answer: K+

      Explanation:

      The hyperpolarization phase is a continuation of the repolarization phase but the membrane potential dips below the resting membrane potential. This results due to the fact that the K+ channels take a longer time to close than the Na+ channels. Hence efflux of the K+ will result in hyperpolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron? ...

    Correct

    • Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?

      Your Answer: Tubular interstitial cells

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in: ...

    Correct

    • The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in:

      Your Answer: Mitochondria and cytoplasm

      Explanation:

      The urea cycle (also known as the ornithine cycle) is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea ((NH2)2CO) from ammonia (NH3). The urea cycle consists of four enzymatic reactions: one mitochondrial and three cytosolic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Transport of Ca2+ into the reticulum to initiate cardiac muscle relaxation in via:...

    Correct

    • Transport of Ca2+ into the reticulum to initiate cardiac muscle relaxation in via:

      Your Answer: Serca (sarcoplasmic or endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase)

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban, which increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the SR, that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Depolarization of the T tubule membrane activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum via which receptors?...

    Correct

    • Depolarization of the T tubule membrane activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum via which receptors?

      Your Answer: Dihydropyridine receptors

      Explanation:

      Action potentials are transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ form the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors.

      Dihydropyridine receptors (DHPRs), are voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, and ryanodine receptors (RyRs), which are intracellular Ca2+ release channels, are expressed in diverse cell types, including skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      Ryanodine receptors (RyRs) are located in the sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum membrane and are responsible for the release of Ca2+ from intracellular stores during excitation-contraction coupling in both cardiac and skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - The haemostatic plug formation in response to injured blood vessel wall is stimulated...

    Correct

    • The haemostatic plug formation in response to injured blood vessel wall is stimulated by exposure of which substance to platelets?

      Your Answer: Collagen

      Explanation:

      When the endothelium is damaged, the normally isolated, underlying collagen is exposed to circulating platelets, which bind directly to collagen with collagen-specific glycoprotein Ia/IIa surface receptors. This adhesion is strengthened further by von Willebrand factor (vWF), which is released from the endothelium and from platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria...

    Correct

    • Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria delivers the toxin extracellular in a 2 stage process to the host?

      Your Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Gram negative bacteria contain two membranes and there are about six specialized secretion systems. The secreted proteins play a key role in pathogenesis. Type II secretion systems (T2SS) are conserved in most Gram-negative bacteria, where they transport proteins from the periplasm into the extracellular environment. Because the T2SS channel is only found in the outer membrane, proteins secreted through this apparatus must first be delivered to the periplasm via the Sec or Tat secretion pathways and then to the extracellular environment making it a two-stage process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase. ...

    Incorrect

    • The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.

      Your Answer: Red blood cells

      Correct Answer: Germ cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage?

      Your Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are a type of white blood cell, or leukocyte. They are the largest type of leukocyte and can differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA...

    Correct

    • In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA sequence and the stem cells is known as:

      Your Answer: Insertion

      Explanation:

      Chimerisation is also known as the formation of recombinant DNA. When a foreign DNA sequence is inserted into a plasmid or other DNA sequence, this process is known as insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Wernicke’s area: ...

    Correct

    • Wernicke’s area:

      Your Answer: Is concerned with comprehension of auditory and visual information

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s area is located in the categorical hemisphere or left hemisphere in about 95% of right handed individuals and 60% of left handed individuals. It is involved in the comprehension or understanding of written and spoken language. In contrast Broca’s area is involved in production of language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her right elbow that is accompanied by numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits. The symptoms are aggravated when the elbow is bent for a prolonged period. Which of the following explains the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that involves pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve (also known as the “funny bone” nerve), which can cause numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th digit, pain in the forearm, and/or weakness in the hand. Epicondylitis of the elbow is a condition associated with repetitive forearm and elbow activities. Both lateral epicondylitis (commonly known as tennis elbow) and medial epicondylitis (commonly known as golfer’s elbow) are characterized by elbow pain during or following elbow flexion and extension. Radial tunnel syndrome is a set of symptoms that include fatigue or a dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with use. Although less common, symptoms can also occur at the back of the hand or wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a patient with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I?

      Your Answer: Insulinoma

      Explanation:

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1 syndrome) or Wermer’s syndrome is part of a group of disorders, the multiple endocrine neoplasias, that affect the endocrine system through development of neoplastic lesions in the ‘three P’s’:Parathyroid (>90%): hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasiaPituitary (15-42%)Pancreas (60-70%, e.g. insulinoma, gastrinoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which statement is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Translation begins when the triplet (UGA) encoding for methionine is encountered.

      Explanation:

      Translation being when the codon for methionine is encountered which is AUG not UGA. This process is known as initiation. All the other options are correct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Compact/cortical bone makes up ...

    Incorrect

    • Compact/cortical bone makes up

      Your Answer: Inner layer of most bones and accounts for 80% of bone in the body

      Correct Answer: The outer layer of most bones and accounts for 80% of bone in the body

      Explanation:

      Cortical, lamellar, or compact bone, is more dense than spongy bone and it forms the rigid, outer layer of bones, also called cortex. It consists of packed osteons, with a central osteonic canal surrounded by concentric rings. Spaces called lacunae are filled with osteocytes, and channels called canaliculi go from the lacunae to the osteonic canal. The strength of cortical bone allows it to support the body and protect organs. It also stores different elements, such as calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?

      Your Answer: Replenishes glutathione

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.Paracetamol overdose:The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Water hammer pulse is found in: ...

    Correct

    • Water hammer pulse is found in:

      Your Answer: Aortic insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Watson’s water hammer pulse is the medical sign which describes a pulse that is bounding and forceful, rapidly increasing and subsequently collapsing, as if it were the sound of a water hammer that was causing the pulse. A water hammer was a Victorian toy in which a tube was half filled with fluid, the remainder being a vacuum. The child would invert and reinvert the tube; each time the impact of the fluid at each end would sound like a hammer blow. This is associated with increased stroke volume of the left ventricle and decrease in the peripheral resistance leading to the widened pulse pressure of aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - Which two ducts form the ampulla of Vater? ...

    Correct

    • Which two ducts form the ampulla of Vater?

      Your Answer: The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct of Wirsung

      Explanation:

      The ampulla of Vater, also known as the hepatopancreatic ampulla or the hepatopancreatic duct, is formed by the union of the pancreatic duct and the common bile duct. The ampulla is specifically located at the major duodenal papilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - The major factor in controlling coronary artery blood flow is considered to be?...

    Correct

    • The major factor in controlling coronary artery blood flow is considered to be?

      Your Answer: Metabolites of oxygen consumption

      Explanation:

      There is a strong relationship between myocardial blood flow and oxygen consumption. This indicates that products of metabolism may cause vasodilation of the coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Afferent fibers from the baroreceptors of the great arteries form branches of which...

    Correct

    • Afferent fibers from the baroreceptors of the great arteries form branches of which cranial nerves?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves

      Explanation:

      The receptors of the carotid sinus are innervated by the carotid sinus nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve. The aortic arch receptors located in the arch of the aorta are innervated by the aortic depressor nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Currents caused by opening of which of the following channels contribute to the...

    Correct

    • Currents caused by opening of which of the following channels contribute to the repolarization phase of the action potential of the ventricular muscle fibers?

      Your Answer: Potassium channels

      Explanation:

      Depolarization occurs due to opening of the voltage gated sodium channels. Repolarization occurs due to opening of the voltage gates potassium channels causing an out flux of potassium ions, decreasing the membrane potential towards resting potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver?

      Your Answer: Factor viii

      Explanation:

      Factor VIII is produced in liver sinusoidal cells and endothelial cells outside of the liver throughout the body. This protein circulates in the bloodstream in an inactive form, bound to another molecule called von Willebrand factor, until an injury that damages blood vessels occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left forearm. She has revealed that she was regular heroin user and has stopped for the past few days. Clinical signs are pointing towards opioid withdrawal. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Ask her how much heroin she uses per day and arrange for her to receive methadone syrup equivalent to this divided into four doses per day

      Correct Answer: Give her 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait 60 min to determine its effect

      Explanation:

      The next step in managing this patient is to give 10 mg and continue administering in 10 mg increments each hour until symptoms are under control.Methadone alleviates opioid withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings. Methadone is useful for detoxification from longer-acting opioids such as morphine or methadone itself.Methadone should be used with caution if the patient has:Respiratory deficiencyAcute alcohol dependenceHead injuryTreatment with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)Ulcerating colitis or Crohn’s diseaseSevere hepatic impairmentThe dose must be reviewed on a daily basis and adjusted based upon how well the symptoms are controlled and the presence of side effects. The greater the dose of opioids used by the patient, the greater the dose of methadone required to control withdrawal symptoms. To avoid the risk of overdose in the first days of treatment The recommended dosing of methadone is 30mg in two doses of 15mg morning and evening.It is important to note that a methadone dose equivalent to what the patient reports they are taking should never be given. It is rare to need more than 40 mg per 24 hours: beware of overdosing which can lead to respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer: CN 2

      Explanation:

      Oculomotor nerve (N3), trochlear nerve (N4), ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve (N5) pass along its lateral border. The abducent nerve (N6) passes through it along with the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - The main reason for the prolonged effect of the withdrawal reflex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The main reason for the prolonged effect of the withdrawal reflex is:

      Your Answer: Slow efferent conduction

      Correct Answer: Multiple connections between afferent and efferent neurons

      Explanation:

      The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that protects the body from harmful stimuli. Spinal reflexes are mostly monosynaptic and are mediated by a simple reflex arc. Withdrawal reflex is mediated by a polysynaptic reflex resulting in stimulation of many motor neurons in order to establish a quick and prolonged response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval ...

    Correct

    • Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval

      Your Answer: QT

      Explanation:

      The QT interval represents ventricular depolarization as well as ventricular repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except:

      Your Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Yellow nail syndrome is a very rare medical syndrome that includes pleural effusions, lymphedema (due to under development of the lymphatic vessels) and yellow dystrophic nails. Approximately 40% will also have bronchiectasis. It is also associated with chronic sinusitis and persistent coughing and it usually affects adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell...

    Correct

    • Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell bodies in which nuclei?

      Your Answer: Arcuate

      Explanation:

      Arcuate nucleus dopaminergic neurons consist of a single group of neurons that project to the median eminence where they release dopamine into the hypophyseal portal circulation to inhibit pituitary prolactin secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - The majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate in the: ...

    Correct

    • The majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate in the:

      Your Answer: Medulla

      Explanation:

      The corticospinal tract is a descending motor path way that begins in the cerebral cortex and decussates in the pyramids of the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which of the following takes place during fasting ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following takes place during fasting

      Your Answer: Migrating motor complex

      Explanation:

      Migrating motor complexes (MMC) are waves of electrical activity that sweep through the intestines in a regular cycle during fasting. These motor complexes trigger peristaltic waves, which facilitate transportation of indigestible substances such as bone, fiber, and foreign bodies from the stomach, through the small intestine, past the ileocecal sphincter, and into the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      84.7
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Normally the portal venous pressure is about: ...

    Correct

    • Normally the portal venous pressure is about:

      Your Answer: 5mmhg

      Explanation:

      Under normal physiological conditions, the pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver, typically ranges around 5-10 mmHg. Pressures significantly higher than this range can indicate portal hypertension, which can be associated with liver diseases such as cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - Which factors increase the end-diastolic volume? ...

    Correct

    • Which factors increase the end-diastolic volume?

      Your Answer: Constriction of veins

      Explanation:

      End diastolic volume is also known as preload. It is the amount of blood the heart contracts against. Constriction of veins will decrease venous pooling and increase venous return, hence increasing the end diastolic volume. Standing will increase venous pooling hence decreasing venous return and end diastolic volume. Raised intrapericardial pressure will also decrease venous return and hence end diastolic volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - What is the most common cardiac defect seen in patients with Down’s syndrome?...

    Correct

    • What is the most common cardiac defect seen in patients with Down’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The rate of congenital heart disease in new-borns with Down syndrome is around 40%. Of those with heart disease, about 80% have an atrioventricular septal defect or ventricular septal defect with the former being more common. Mitral valve problems become common as people age, even in those without heart problems at birth.[3] Other problems that may occur include tetralogy of Fallot and patent ductus arteriosus.[38] People with Down syndrome have a lower risk of hardening of the arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with:

      Your Answer: Columnar epithelial cells

      Correct Answer: Mesothelial cells

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid mater is one of the three meninges that covers the brain and spinal cord. It is interposed between the two other meninges, the more superficial and much thicker dura mater and the deeper pia mater, from which it is separated by the subarachnoid space. The arachnoid mater consists of a subdural mesothelial layer and a compact central layer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      75.8
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Myocardium requires more oxygen to expel blood in: ...

    Correct

    • Myocardium requires more oxygen to expel blood in:

      Your Answer: A stenotic aortic valve

      Explanation:

      In aortic valve stenosis, increased ventricular pressure Is needed to expel the blood into the aorta. Increased pressure means increased contractility hence increase O2 consumption by the heart muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19.1
      Seconds

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