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Question 1
Correct
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A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?
Your Answer: Glycosuria
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?
Your Answer: P wave
Correct Answer: T wave
Explanation:The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. Other options:- P wave:Depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria. The wave lasts 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms).The isoelectric period after the P wave represents the time in which the impulse is travelling within the AV node.- P-R interval:Time from the onset of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. The wave ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration.Represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization- QRS complex:It represents ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds.- ST-segment:The isoelectric period following the QRS. It represents the period in which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential- U wave: It is a small positive wave which may follow the T wave. It represents the last remnants of ventricular repolarization.- Q-T intervalIt represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential.The interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate.At high heart rates, ventricular action potentials shorten in duration, which decreases the Q-T interval. Therefore the Q-T interval is expressed as a corrected Q-T (QTc) by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval (interval between ventricular depolarizations). This allows an assessment of the Q-T interval that is independent of heart rate.The normal corrected Q-Tc interval is less than 0.44 seconds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 11 month old baby develops periumbilical abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea after having a sore throat and fever for a few days. He presents to the A&E department and an ultrasound is done which shows a 'target sign' on the right side of the abdomen. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Undertake a colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics
Explanation:Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics.Intussusception is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction (blockage). Although intussusception can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, it usually occurs at the junction of the small and large intestines. The obstruction can cause swelling and inflammation that can lead to intestinal injury. The patient with intussusception is usually an infant, often one who has had an upper respiratory infection, who presents with the following symptoms:Vomiting: Initially, vomiting is nonbilious and reflexive, but when the intestinal obstruction occurs, vomiting becomes biliousAbdominal pain: Pain in intussusception is colicky, severe, and intermittentPassage of blood and mucus: Parents report the passage of stools, by affected children, that look like currant jelly| this is a mixture of mucus, sloughed mucosa, and shed blood| diarrhoea can also be an early sign of intussusceptionLethargy: This can be the sole presenting symptom of intussusception, which makes the condition’s diagnosis challengingPalpable abdominal massDiagnosis:Ultrasonography: Hallmarks of ultrasonography include the target and pseudo kidney signs.For all children, start intravenous fluid resuscitation and nasogastric decompression as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old schoolboy presents for a regular medical check-up. He complains of a red patch of skin on his chest, that is surrounded by an area of skin scaling. This was followed by the development of oval macules over the rest of his trunk, arms and thighs three days later. he has just returned to school for the start of Spring term. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Darier’s disease
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis rosea is a common, acute exanthem of uncertain aetiology. Viral and bacterial causes have been sought, but convincing answers have not yet been found. Pityriasis rosea typically affects children and young adults. It is characterized by an initial herald patch, followed by the development of a diffuse papulosquamous rash. The herald patch often is misdiagnosed as eczema. Pityriasis rosea is difficult to identify until the appearance of characteristic smaller secondary lesions that follow Langer’s lines (cleavage lines). Several medications can cause a rash similar to pityriasis rosea, and several diseases, including secondary syphilis, are included in the differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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All of the following are disorders of the supra-renal glands except:
Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma
Correct Answer: Di-George syndrome
Explanation:Among the given options, Di-George syndrome is not associated with adrenal gland disorders.Di-George syndrome is characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletionOther options:- Addison’s disease is a result of adrenal hypofunction and may present with collapse secondary to a salt-losing crisis.- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia: CAH is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme (classically 21-hydroxylase deficiency) in the biosynthetic pathway in the adrenal cortex, leading to insufficient production of cortisol and aldosterone, and a build-up of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.- Cushing’s syndrome is a syndrome of cortisol excess. An adrenal tumour is a primary cause.- Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine releasing tumour of the adrenal gland/s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the ear has been itchy over the past few days but has become excruciatingly painful today. On examination, she appears uncomfortable at rest but otherwise well. Her observations are within normal limits. Otoscopy is difficult as the girl flinches in pain, the ear canal appears oedematous. The tympanic membrane is difficult to see with oedema and discharge present in the external canal. The oropharynx seems normal with no erythema or tonsillar exudate. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Oral antibiotics
Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the patient has features suggestive of acute otitis externa, which can be managed with topic antibiotics.Otitis externa:It can be classified as acute (< 3 weeks) or chronic (> 3 months). Frequent exposure to water, e.g. swimming, is a risk factor for the condition. Itching, pain, hearing loss and discharge are common complaints. Examination demonstrates oedema of the external auditory canal with discharge. Pain may be elicited on the movement of the tragus or pinna. First-line treatment is with topical drops/sprays for one week. Acidic preparations such as 2% acetic acid, antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations may be used (1% hydrocortisone and 0.3% gentamicin). Acetic acid can be used as the first-line treatment for mild cases without discharge or hearing impairment. On selecting an appropriate topical preparation remember that topical aminoglycosides are contraindicated if the tympanic membrane is perforated and that chloramphenicol ear drops cause contact dermatitis in approximately 10% of people. Clinoquinol, a combination of antibacterial and antifungal, may be preferred over aminoglycoside containing preparations due to the theoretical lower risk of ototoxicity and dermatitis. However, there is no clear evidence to support the use of one topical preparation over another.Other options:- Admit for IV antibiotics: First line management is with analgesia and topical antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations. Thus, IV antibiotics is not an appropriate action.- Oral antibiotics: Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin or erythromycin are considered only for severe infections such as the spread of cellulitis beyond the ear canal. – Reassurance is not sufficient to treat these patients. They require topic antibiotic therapy.- Referral to ENT: Should be considered only in case of treatment failure. ENT referral can also be considered if there is cellulitis extending past the margin of the external ear canal, extreme pain or extensive swelling and discharge likely to require suction or the insertion of an ear wick. Urgent ENT referral is reserved for suspected cases of malignant otitis externa (with the extension of the condition into the adjacent bone and spreading osteomyelitis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?
Your Answer: Increasing pain
Correct Answer: Absent distal pulses
Explanation:The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was irritable with evidence of weight loss. His stools were pale, bulky and malodorous. What is the most appropriate test that can be done to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Jejunal Biopsy
Explanation:Pale, bulky, malodorous stools are evidence of fat malabsorption syndrome. The diagnostic test is jejunal biopsy to rule out other differential diagnoses such as celiac disease, giardiasis or Crohn’s disease etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke criteria?
Your Answer: 1 minor criteria and positive blood cultures
Correct Answer: 1 major criteria and 3 minor criteria
Explanation:Infective endocarditis (IE) is caused by a bacterial, or fungal infection which damages the heart’s endothelium and can thus lead to changes in heart function, valve incompetencies, possible cardiac failure, as well other associated skin and organ changes. Organisms common in IE include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridians. The HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, and Kingella species) are common in neonates. The Duke criteria uses 2 major, or 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria to diagnose infective endocarditis. Major criteria include:- a positive blood culture and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include: – evidence of predisposition (a heart condition of injection drug use)- a fever- vascular phenomena such as Janeway lesions- immunologic phenomena such as Osler’s nodes and Roth’s spots| and- microbiological or serological evidence of active infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?
Your Answer: Eat with fork and spoon
Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors
Explanation:At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?
Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Trendelenburg gait is an abnormal gait resulting from a defective hip abductor mechanism. The primary musculature involved is the gluteal musculature, including the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles. The weakness of these muscles causes drooping of the pelvis to the contralateral side while walking.Any pathology of the fulcrum, load, effort or the lever which binds all three will lead to a positive Trendelenburg gait.Failure of the fulcrum presents in the following conditions:Osteonecrosis of hipLegg-Calve-Perthes diseaseDevelopmental dysplasia of the hipChronically dislocated hips secondary to traumaChronically dislocated hips secondary to infections like tuberculosis of the hipFailure of the lever is a feature in the following conditions:Greater trochanteric avulsionNon-union of the neck of the femurCoxa VaraFailure of effort presents in the following conditions:PoliomyelitisL5 radiculopathySuperior gluteal nerve damageGluteus medius and minimus tendinitisGluteus medius and minimus abscessPost total hip arthroplastyThe gait of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis patients can be explained as a crouch-like gait with hyperflexion in hip and knee joints and less plantar flexion in the ankle
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Persistent pulmonary hypertension is NOT a recognized complication of which of the following?
Your Answer: Maternal indomethacin use
Correct Answer: Duct dependent congenital heart disease
Explanation:Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born is secondary to the failure of normal circulatory transition at birth, leading to an abnormally high pulmonary vascular resistance. This elevated resistance causes right-to-left shunting of blood and hypoxemia. It can be caused by parenchymal lung diseases (meconium aspiration syndrome, pneumonia or ARDS), lung hypoplasia (like occurring in oligohydramnios or diaphragmatic hernia), or it can be idiopathic. Other possible causes include maternal indomethacin use, group B streptococcal septicaemia, and high-pressure ventilation. Duct dependent congenital heart disease does not lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In one of the following situations a child should be investigated further if they aren't:
Your Answer: Walking unaided at 12 months of age
Correct Answer: Saying single words with meaning by 18 months
Explanation:If a child is not saying single words with meaning by 18 months it suggests that he or she is not following normal developmental milestones and further investigation is needed. Children are usually expected to be dry by day at the age of 3 years and dry by night at the age of 4 years, however 10% of 5 year old children and 5% of 10 year old children still wet the bed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of green vomiting. Upon clinical examination, doctors notice an acutely swollen mass located in the groin, extending to the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis and what’s the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Incarcerated femoral hernia, emergency surgery
Correct Answer: Incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia, analgesia, sedation and attempt to reduce
Explanation:An incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, and intestinal obstruction. It is characterized by the appearance of a tender mass in the inguinal area. Manual reduction in children requires analgesia and sedation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Mycobacterium TB
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas
Explanation:History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Correct
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A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?
Your Answer: Peritracheal fascia
Correct Answer: Cupola
Explanation:Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?Your Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She has no other symptoms. Which is the most suitable next step of management?
Your Answer: Phototherapy
Correct Answer: Continue breastfeeding
Explanation:Breast feeding should be continued for babies with breast milk jaundice as this is a benign condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4 year old boy who is has been experiencing intermittent temperature spikes of 38.7C throughout the night. He underwent a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix four days ago, and has opened his bowels with diarrhoea. His chest is clear on examination.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his condition?
Your Answer: Wound infection
Correct Answer: Intra-abdominal collection
Explanation:Perforated appendices are common in children as it is more difficult to surgically assess an unwell child due to poor localisation of abdominal pain, and their inability to express discomfort. They are therefore prone to a greater risk of post operative complications including would infections, intra abdominal fluid collections, and chest infections. In the above scenario the spiking temperature points to an abscess, which characteristically presents with a swinging temperature. The fever is unlikely due to bacterial resistance as blood tests performed post surgery would have indicated any resistance, and a UTI is also unlikely since the child is already on antibiotics. As his chest is clinically clear, a severe chest infection may be ruled out, leaving intra-abdominal collection as the most likely explanation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.
Your Answer: I.M 0.5 ml tetanus toxoid should be repeated after one month
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child is admitted with generalised oedema, albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidaemia. The renal biopsy is normal. What would you expect to see on electron microscopy?
Your Answer: Splitting of the capillary basement membrane
Correct Answer: Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
Explanation:The child has nephrotic syndrome which is most commonly caused by minimal change nephropathy in this age group. The condition presents with fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells under the microscope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever and pigmented spots around his mouth, palms and soles. He had a reduction of an intussusception at 12 years of age. Which of the following lesions are most likely to be observed on a colonoscopy examination?
Your Answer: Colorectal cancer
Correct Answer: Hamartomas
Explanation:Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by intestinal hamartomatous polyps in association with a distinct pattern of skin and mucosal macular melanin deposition (freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles). Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an estimated 15-fold increased risk of developing intestinal cancer compared to the general population.Management: conservative unless complications develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. There is a history of pubertal delay. On examination, he has pallor and looks short for his age. Tissue biopsy of the small intestines reveals damaged villi. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's daughter inheriting the condition?
Your Answer: This depends on the prevalence of the condition
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial septal defect and duplex kidneys and has had a successful repair of her cleft lip and palate. A cranial ultrasound scan revealed multiple choroid plexus cysts. On examination, you find a small child with micrognathia, low-set ears, and a prominent forehead and occiput. She has hypoplastic nails with an overlapping index and middle finger. Her rocker-bottom feet show no evidence of lymphoedema. Cardiovascular examination reveals a short sternum with a 2/6 pan-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge radiating to the apex. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Pierre Robin sequence
Correct Answer: Edward syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Edward syndrome.Edward syndrome results from trisomy 18. It is the second most common syndrome after Down syndrome. 60% of cases die within 48 hours, and 90% within the first year due to apnoeas. Cardiovascular abnormalities include atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect and a persistent ductus arteriosus. There is no association with exophthalmos, but it may occur. Right choroid plexus cysts are found on coronal imaging, and 40–70% at post mortem are shown to have multiple large bilateral choroid plexus cysts (>10 mm). These may not become pathological but usually trigger an anomaly scan. Around 1% of cases may present with only a cyst, but 4% may present with other abnormalities.Other options:- Children with the velocardiofacial syndrome have a classic facial appearance with hypertelorism, a tubular nose, a cleft lip/palate abnormality and cardiac anomalies. – Children with Patau syndrome usually present with midline defects and are less likely to have rocker-bottom feet. – Children with Treacher Collins syndrome present with abnormalities of the branchial arches and pharyngeal pouches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?
Your Answer: Bottle feeding
Correct Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice
Explanation:Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:- gestational age under 38 weeks- a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy- mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively- visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past presented with a recent history of wetting himself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:As this boy has experienced significant dry spells in the past, it is unlikely that a structural abnormality is causing the enuresis. The only therapies that have been shown to be effective in randomized trials are alarm therapy and treatment with desmopressin acetate or imipramine. Bladder training exercises are not recommended. Desmopressin acetate is the preferred medication for treating children with enuresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at riding camp. A CT scan demonstrates a grade IV splenic injury. The child has a pulse of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70. What is the best management of this child?
Your Answer: Transfer the interventional radiology for embolization of splenic artery
Correct Answer: Admit to the ward for a week of bed-rest
Explanation:The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. In Paediatrics, Blunt splenic injuries with hemodynamic stability and absence of other internal injuries requiring surgery should undergo an initial attempt of Non-operative Management (NOM) irrespective of injury grade.In hemodynamically stable children with isolated splenic injury, splenectomy should be avoided.NOM is contraindicated in the presence of peritonitis, bowel evisceration, impalement or other indications to laparotomy.The vast majority of paediatric patients do not require angiography/angioembolization (AG/AE) for CT blush or moderate to severe injuries.AG/AE may be considered in patients undergone to NOM, hemodynamically stable with sings of persistent haemorrhage not amenable of NOM, regardless with the presence of CT blush once excluded extra-splenic source of bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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