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Question 1
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A 24 year old lady is rushed to the emergency department complaining of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramping. Her 6 week pregnancy was confirmed by ultrasound scan last week. On speculum examination, the cervical os is open with blood noted around it.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Inevitable Miscarriage
Explanation:A miscarriage is defined as the spontaneous loss of a pregnancy before the age of viability at 24 weeks in the UK. An inevitable miscarriage occurs with the usual symptoms of a miscarriage such as menstrual-like cramping, vaginal bleeding and a dilated cervix. The gestational sac has ruptured but products of conception have not been passed. The products of conception will eventually pass.
A missed miscarriage is described as a loss of pregnancy without vaginal bleeding, loss of tissue, cervical changes or abdominal pain. During a scan, a fetal heartbeat is not observed, and the gestational sac may be small.
A threatened miscarriage is when the cervix dilates and uterine bleeding is seen; the pregnancy could still be viable.
A complete miscarriage occurs when all the products of conception are expelled from the uterus, bleeding has stopped, and the cervix has closed up after dilation. Recurrent miscarriages are described as spontaneous pregnancy loss of more than 2 to 3 consecutive times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 2
Correct
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A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented to the medical clinic to receive human papillomavirus vaccination.
Which of the following is considered the best step to do?Your Answer: Postpone vaccination until after delivery
Explanation:Genital HPV is a common virus that is passed from one person to another through direct skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Most HPV types cause no symptoms and go away on their own, but some types can cause cervical cancer in women and other less common cancers — like cancers of the anus, penis, vagina, and vulva and oropharynx. Other types of HPV can cause warts in the genital areas of men and women, called genital warts.
HPV vaccination is recommended for 11 and 12 year-old girls. It is also recommended for girls and women age 13 through 26 years of age who have not yet been vaccinated or completed the vaccine series; HPV vaccine can also be given to girls beginning at age 9 years. CDC recommends 11 to 12 year olds get two doses of HPV vaccine to protect against cancers caused by HPV.
The vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women. Studies show that the HPV vaccine does not cause problems for babies born to women who were vaccinated while pregnant, but more research is still needed. A pregnant woman should not get any doses of the HPV vaccine until her pregnancy is completed.
Getting the HPV vaccine when pregnant is not a reason to consider ending a pregnancy. If a woman realizes that she got one or more shots of an HPV vaccine while pregnant, she should wait until after her pregnancy to finish any remaining HPV vaccine doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 27-year-old pregnant elementary school teacher presented to the medical clinic because she found out that one of her students has been recently diagnosed with rubella, but the diagnosis was not confirmed by serologic tests. Upon interview, it was noted that her last rubella vaccination was when she was 12 years old.
Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step to perform?Your Answer: Check rubella serology
Explanation:Rubella infection during pregnancy may lead to miscarriage, intrauterine fetal demise, premature labour, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital rubella syndrome. The risk of developing complications is highest if the infection is contracted within the first 12 weeks of gestation.
In those cases in which a pregnant woman has been exposed to a suspected rubella case, a specimen of blood should be tested as soon as possible for the measurement of rubella-specific IgG antibodies. If it is positive, then the woman was likely to be immune and could be reassured. If it is negative, a determination rubella-specific IgG and rubella-specific IgM antibodies should be obtained in 3 weeks to exclude an asymptomatic primary rubella infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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If a hyalinised mass is formed from an involuted corpus leuteum, it is known as:
Your Answer: Corpus albicans
Explanation:Corpus albicans is the regressed form of the corpus leuteum. It is formed when the corpus leuteum is engulfed by macrophages and a scar or fibrous tissue is formed, called the corpus albicans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A patient is attending for medical abortion. She is 15 weeks gestation. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?
Your Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion
Explanation:If the patient has a negative Chlamydia screen then a stat dose of metronidazole monotherapy is appropriate. You do not know this patients Chlamydia status and therefore dual therapy with metronidazole + doxycycline or azithromycin is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Correct
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A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein
Explanation:This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.
→ Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
→ It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
→ Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Question 9
Incorrect
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At what stage of gestation does maternal immunoglobulin G transfer to the foetus start?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 weeks
Explanation:Transportation of the maternal IgG through the placenta starts around the 12 week of gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk composition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fat 4%, Protein 1%, Sugar 7%
Explanation:Breast milk contains around 4% fat, 7% sugar and 1% proteins. The rest is water and minerals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.
She has a history of extremely irregular menstrual cycles with the duration varying between four and ten weeks.
She had attended her routine review appointment one week prior to her current presentation.
At that time she had stated that her last period had occurred six weeks previously.
You had recommended the following tests for which the results are as shown below:
Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 3 IU/L (<13)
Serum luteinising hormone (LH): *850 IU/L (4-10 in follicular phase, 20-100 at mid-cycle)
Serum prolactin (PRL): 475 mU/L (50-500)
Which one of the following is the most probable reason for her amenorrhoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early pregnancy.
Explanation:All of the options provided could cause amenorrhoea and therefore need to be evaluated.
The luteinising hormone (LH) level reported here is exceedingly elevated. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is unlikely to have such a raised level, but it could be because of a LH-producing adenoma. Such tumours are, however, extremely rare.
Early pregnancy (correct answer) is the most likely cause of this woman’s elevated LH level. This would be due to the presence of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone that is produced during pregnancy.
LH and beta-HCG both have similar beta-subunits and cross-reactions are commonly noted in LH assays.
The serum prolactin (PRL) level is at the upper end of the normal range and this correlates to the levels observed in the early stages of pregnancy.
The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels remain low during early pregnancy.
If her amenorrhea had been caused by stress from her recent marriage, the LH level would have been normal or low.
If the cause was premature ovarian failure, the FSH level would have been significantly higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An 18 year old and has yet to begin her period. She stands at 4'10. She shows no signs of breast development. She has no pubic hair on pelvic examination. The patient has a cervix and uterus, according to digital inspection. The ovaries cannot be felt. Serum FSH and LH levels are drawn as part of the workup, and both are elevated. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's delayed puberty and sexual infantilism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonadal dysgenesis
Explanation:In girls, delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea may be subdivided according to associated changes in stature. If the affected girl is short, the likely causes are gonadal dysgenesis (Turner syndrome) or hypopituitarism (with both gonadotropin and growth hormone deficiency). Gonadal dysgenesis results from the absence of a sex chromosome or other abnormality of a sex chromosome. In affected girls the gonads are streaks of fibrous tissue and contain no follicles, and these girls may have a variety of congenital anomalies, including a webbed neck, a shieldlike chest, or a small jaw.
Kallmann syndrome presents with amenorrhea, infantile sexual development, low gonadotropins, normal female karyotype, and anosmia (the inability to perceive odours).
In Müllerian agenesis, the Müllerian ducts either fail to develop or regress early in fetal life. These patients have normal ovarian development and normal secondary sexual characteristics. They present with a blind vaginal pouch and no upper vagina, cervix, or uterus, and primary amenorrhea.
The McCune-Albright syndrome rather presents with precocious puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is admitted in the hospital for severe abdominal pain. She notes that also has been having vaginal bleeding of about one litre and uterine contractions are present. Her previous pregnancy was a vaginal, without any complications. Her current blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg with a pulse rate of 120 beats/min.
On physical examination, the uterus is palpable at the level of the xiphisternum and is firm. It is acutely tender to palpation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard on auscultation or with Doppler assessment. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and fully effaced. Immediate resuscitative measures are taken.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amniotomy
Explanation:This patient is presenting with a severe placental abruption causing fetal death and shock in the mother. The most appropriate initial management for the patient is to treat her shock with blood transfusions and exclude or treat any coagulation disorder resulting from the abruption. Delivery also needs to be expedited to remove the dead foetus. An amniotomy is usually all that is required to induce spontaneous labour as the uterus is usually very irritable. Spontaneous labour is likely to occur in this case, where the cervix is already 4 cm dilated and fully effaced.
Caesarean section is rarely needed to be done when the foetus is already dead.
Vaginal prostaglandin and an oxytocin (Syntocin®) infusion are not needed and unlikely to be required.
Ultrasound examination to confirm the diagnosis and fetal death is also unnecessary given the clinical and Doppler findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation.
Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.
Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.
Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
– Mullerian anomalies
– Placentation
– Uterine leiomyoma
– Prematurity
– Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
– Congenital anomalies
– Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
– Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has been present for the last few hours. Before the pain started she admits experiencing vaginal blood loss. She's a primigravida in her 30th week of gestation. Upon abdominal examination the uterus seems irritable. CTG is, however, reactive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antepartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Antepartum haemorrhage presents with bleeding, which may or may not be accompanied by pain. Uterine irritability would suggest abruptio, however contractions are present which may be confused with uterine irritability and in this case, there are no signs of pre-eclampsia present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia with incidence rates in the UK approximately 30 per 100,000 The majority of patients are postmenopausal women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Whilst reviewing a 34 year old patient with amenorrhoea in clinic they tell you they have gained over 10kg in weight in the past 8 weeks and have noticed worsening acne. Routine bloods taken that morning show a random glucose 11.1mmol/l, normal thyroid function tests and negative pregnancy test. BP is 168/96 mmHg. You suspect Cushing's. What would the most appropriate investigation be to conform the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone suppression test
Explanation:In Cushing’s syndrome there is excess cortisol. Causes are broadly divided into 2 types: ACTH dependent disease: excess ACTH from the pituitary (Cushing’s disease), ectopic ACTH-producing tumours or excess ACTH administration. Non-ACTH-dependent: adrenal adenomas, adrenal carcinomas, excess glucocorticoid administration. The recommended diagnostic tests for the presence of Cushing’s syndrome are 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test and late-night salivary cortisol. There are several other tests that may also be performed to find the cause. ACTH and cortisol measured together may show if this is ACTH dependent or not. MRI pituitary and CT abdo and pelvis may show if tumour is the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures does the broad ligament contain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterine artery
Explanation:The broad ligament is one of the secondary supporting structures of the uterus which attaches the lateral portion of the uterus to the pelvic sidewall. The broad ligament primarily serves a protective layer for important structures including the fallopian tubes, the ovaries, the ovarian arteries, and the uterine arteries, the round and ovarian ligaments, and the infundibulopelvic ligaments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PCOS
Explanation:The risk factors of endometrial cancer include obesity, diabetes, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of colorectal and ovarian carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has felt a little unwell with diarrhoea and flu like symptoms. She is 28 weeks pregnant. Upon questioning she discloses she ate a soft cheese and deli meats platter 5 days earlier. A blood culture confirms listeria infection. What is the appropriate treatment (she has no known drug allergies)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:The diagnosis of listeria depends on clinical suspicion and isolation of the organism from blood, vaginal swabs or the placenta. Meconium staining of the amniotic fluid in a preterm foetus may increase clinical suspicion for listeriosis. For women with listeriosis during pregnancy, intravenous antibiotic treatment (ampicillin 2 g given every 6 hours) is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually worsening itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. You order some bloods. Which of the following would you normally expect to increase in the 3rd trimester?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ALP
Explanation:ALP can rise to up to 3 times the normal non-pregnant value in the 3rd trimester. All of the other tests above typically decrease during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Regarding pelvic Gonorrhoea infection in women. What percentage of cases are asymptomatic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease that is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea. It infects the mucous membrane of the genital tract epithelium in the endocervical and the urethral mucosa. Around 50% of the women are asymptomatic. However it presents as increase vaginal discharge, dysuria, proctitis and pelvic tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of her abdomen skin at 30 weeks of pregnancy in her first pregnancy. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, her fundal height is 29 cm above the pubic symphysis, and her liquid volume is a little lower than expected. Laboratory investigations reveal:
Serum bilirubin (unconjugated): 5 mmol/L (0-10)
Serum bilirubin (conjugated): 12 mmol/L (0-5)
Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 450U/L (30--350)
Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45U/L (<55)
Serum bile acids: 100 mmol/L (1-26)
The most likely cause for her presentation is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obstetric cholestasis.
Explanation:The correct answer is Obstetric Cholestasis.
The characteristics (elevated bile acids, conjugated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels) are typical with obstetric cholestasis, which affects roughly 3-4 percent of pregnant women in Australia. Obstetric cholestasis is diagnosed when otherwise unexplained pruritus occurs in pregnancy and abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) and/or raised bile acids occur in the pregnant woman and both resolve after delivery. Pruritus that involves the palms and soles of the feet is particularly suggestive.
Liver function tests and bile acid levels measurements are used to validate this diagnosis.
All of the other diagnoses are theoretically possible, but unlikely.
On liver function tests, hepatitis A and acute fatty liver of pregnancy (which is frequently associated with severe vomiting in late pregnancy) usually show substantially worse hepatocellular damage.
Pre-eclampsia is connected with hypertension and proteinuria (along with changes in renal function and, in certain cases, thrombocytopenia), while cholelithiasis is associated with obstructive jaundice and pale stools due to a stone in the CBD. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is meant by a barr body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the condensed non-functioning X chromosome
Explanation:Barr body is an inactive and non functioning X chromosome found in female somatic cells and is presents with a rim around the nucleus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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During normal pregnancy, the renal glomerular filtrate rate (GFR) can increase as much as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Pregnancy involves remarkable orchestration of physiologic changes. The kidneys are central players in the evolving hormonal milieu of pregnancy, responding and contributing to the changes in the environment for the pregnant woman and foetus. The functional impact of pregnancy on kidney physiology is widespread, involving practically all aspects of kidney function. The glomerular filtration rate increases 50% with subsequent decrease in serum creatinine, urea, and uric acid values.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A patient attends clinic with a vaginal prolapse. On examination the vaginal prolapse is visible 1.5cm above the plane of the hymen. According to the POPQ classification what grade is this prolapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 1
Explanation:This is a grade 1 prolapse
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which is a false statement about endometriosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The usual delay in diagnosis is 8 to 10 months with onset in adolescence
Explanation:Endometriosis is found in about one-third of women undergoing laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. Published studies show a diagnostic delay of 8.5 years from onset of symptoms to the eventual diagnosis of endometriosis!
This means that women can suffer for 8.5 years before a diagnosis of endometriosis is made, and appropriate interventions are carried out.
All other options are true statements about endometriosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month ago. There were no cervical abnormalities visualised at the time of the smear. She has no symptoms of unusual vaginal bleeding and her previous smear results have always been negative. She received the following report: 'Your recent smear was negative with no evidence of nuclear abnormalities.' When will she be routinely recalled for her next smear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Women aged 25-49 years living in England are routinely recalled for screening every three years. Women receive their first invitation for cervical screening at 25 years of age. They are not invited earlier as changes in the young cervix can be normal and result in unnecessary treatment. Provided the smears remain negative and there are no symptoms to suggest cervical cancer, the routine recall is three years for women aged 25-49 years. Women aged 50-64 years old are routinely recalled for a smear every five years. After the age of 65 years, women are only screened if they have not had a smear since the age of 50 years (including those who have never had a smear) or those who have had recent abnormal smears. This is because due to the natural history and progression of cervical cancer, it is highly unlikely that women over 65 years old will go on to develop the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is at 39+5 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 to 41+6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 and 36+6 weeks. Only 1% of women who go into PROM have risk of having serious neonatal infections.
Management of PROM:
60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
Induction is appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and more than 24 hours post rupture when labour hasn’t started.
If < 34 weeks, induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman was admitted to a hospital's maternity unit for labour. Her pregnancy has been unremarkable so far and she had regular antenatal visits. Meconium liquor passage was noted during the labour. Cardiotocography was done and revealed a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 149bpm. There were no noted decelerations or accelerations. The beat-to-beat variability is established at 15 bpm. Upon vaginal examination, there were no reported abnormalities.
Which of the following is considered to be the next most appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The CTG is normal and close monitoring until delivery is all required for now
Explanation:Meconium is the earliest stool of a newborn. Occasionally, newborns pass meconium during labour or delivery, resulting in a meconium-stained amniotic fluid (MSAF).
No particular cardio-tocograph pattern can be considered to have a poor prognostic value in the presence of thick MSAF and the decision to deliver and the mode of delivery should be based on the overall assessment and the stage and progress of labour. While management should be individualized, a higher Caesarean section rate in thick MSAF can be justified to ensure a better outcome for the neonate even in the presence of a normal CTG trace.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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