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  • Question 1 - Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves?

      Your Answer: Circular muscle of iris

      Explanation:

      Circular muscle of iris is exclusively supplied by the parasympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - With regards to the deiodinases, where would you find D1? ...

    Correct

    • With regards to the deiodinases, where would you find D1?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The liver produces an important amount of T3 by outer ring deiodination thanks to its elevated concentration of type I deiodinase. It can also be found in the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In Argyll Robertson pupils… ...

    Incorrect

    • In Argyll Robertson pupils…

      Your Answer: It may occur in CNS syphilis

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson pupils are bilaterally small pupils that accommodate or reduce in size near an object but do not react to light. They do not constrict when exposed to bright light. They are a highly specific sign of neurosyphilis but may be seen in diabetic neuropathy as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An elderly man presents with fever of 38°C and a very severe headache....

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with fever of 38°C and a very severe headache. His BP is 85/50 mm Hg. He has neck stiffness and photophobia. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: CT head and Lumbar puncture

      Correct Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      In elderly patients, symptoms suggestive of meningitis could be due to an intracranial mass lesion (such as abscess, tumour or an intracerebral haematoma). Therefore elderly patients are increased risk of cerebral herniation from an LP. A CT head should be done before an LP to exclude a mass lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)Nausea and vomiting: 50%Vertigo: 50%Confusion: 30%Subjective weakness: 20%Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathCherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.Management• 100% oxygen• Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia?

      Your Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:

      • When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) there is increased risk of psychosis.
      • Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      • Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen) enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      • Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.
      • Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      77.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The initial rapid depolarization in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells is...

    Correct

    • The initial rapid depolarization in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells is due to:

      Your Answer: Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels

      Explanation:

      The initial depolarization of the action potential in a cardiac muscle cell is due to the sodium current generated by opening of the voltage gated sodium channels leading to an influx of sodium ions into the cell and raising the membrane potential towards threshold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Myeloperoxidase

      Correct Answer: Superoxide dismutase

      Explanation:

      As superoxide is toxic, nearly all organisms living in the presence of oxygen contain isoforms of the superoxide-scavenging enzyme superoxide dismutase, or SOD. SOD is an extremely efficient enzyme; it catalyses the neutralization of superoxide nearly as quickly as the two can diffuse together spontaneously in solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?

      Your Answer: Osteolytic areas with bone destruction

      Correct Answer: Linear areas of low density

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision.Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Correct Answer: Cimetidine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      66.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Are glial cells

      Correct Answer: Contain catecholamines

      Explanation:

      The carotid body detects changes in the composition of arterial blood flowing through it, mainly the partial pressure of oxygen, but also of carbon dioxide. Furthermore, it is also sensitive to changes in pH and temperature.The carotid body is made up of two types of cells, called glomus cells: Glomus type I/chief cells release a variety of neurotransmitters, including acetylcholine, ATP, and dopamine that trigger EPSPs in synapsed neurons leading to the respiratory centre.Glomus type II/sustentacular cells resemble glia, express the glial marker S100 and act as supporting cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The process whereby bacterial products interact with plasma factors and cells to produce...

    Incorrect

    • The process whereby bacterial products interact with plasma factors and cells to produce agents that attract neutrophils to an infected area is called:

      Your Answer: Opsonisation

      Correct Answer: Chemotaxis

      Explanation:

      During an inflammatory process many cytokines are produced that act as chemokines to attract neutrophils to the site of inflammation. These include bacterial products, IL-8, C5a and LTB4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent infection. Bone marrow aspiration revealed a calcium level of 3.9 mmol/l and alkaline phosphatase level of 160u/l. What type of cell would be found in abundance in the marrow spear?

      Your Answer: Myeloid cells

      Correct Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma or plasma cell myeloma, is a cancer of plasma cells, responsible for producing antibodies. It often, presents early with no symptoms followed by bone pain and pathological fractures (metastases), raised calcium levels, bleeding, frequent infections, and anaemia. It usually occurs around the age of 61 and is more common in men than women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which caspase is part of both the intrinsic and extrinsic apoptotic pathways? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which caspase is part of both the intrinsic and extrinsic apoptotic pathways?

      Your Answer: Caspase-2

      Correct Answer: Caspase-3

      Explanation:

      Once initiator caspases are activated in both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway, they produce a chain reaction, activating several other executioner caspases (Caspase 3, Caspase 6 and Caspase 7).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following makes up most of the adrenal cortex? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following makes up most of the adrenal cortex?

      Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa

      Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata

      Explanation:

      The zona fasciculata represents the widest area of the adrenal cortex, situated in the middle of the cortex. It produces glucocorticoids including; 11-deoxycorticosterone, corticosterone, and cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The portal vein supplies 75% of the blood to the liver and exceeds the arterial supply of the organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:...

    Incorrect

    • Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: I and V

      Explanation:

      Nociceptors are receptors of pain sensation. There are 2 primary afferent/sensory pain fibers which transmit impulses from the receptor to the CNS, specifically to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The two fibers are A δ and C fibers. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord is the relay centre for sensory information converging from the periphery. Grey matter of the dorsal horn is subdivided in to laminae based on cytoarchitecture. C fibers terminate in lamina II the substantia gelatinosa. A δ fibers terminate primarily in lamina I but some project more deeply to terminate in lamina V.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding the anatomy of the intestine, the muscularis propria contains all of which...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the anatomy of the intestine, the muscularis propria contains all of which of the following constituents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circular muscle, myenteric plexus, longitudinal muscle

      Explanation:

      The muscularis mucosa/propria consists of the inner circular muscles and the outer longitudinal muscles. Between these muscles is the myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Generalized vasoconstrictors include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Generalized vasoconstrictors include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norepinephrine, endothelin, angiotensin ii

      Explanation:

      Vasopressin, angiotensin II, adrenaline and endothelin are generalized vasoconstrictors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allows attachment of troponin components to tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin, and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to reduce femoral neck fractures in elderly nursing home patients. The study included 800 patients randomly selected with an average age of 82 years of age. The data was collected over a two year period and the patients were randomly put in the standard care group or the hip protector group. From the 400 patients assigned to the hip protector group, 10 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. From the 400 patients assigned to the standard care group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. What is the correct value regarding the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. In this example, the ARR is 8 per cent (20 per cent – 12 per cent = 8 per cent). This means that, if 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes. Another way of expressing this is the number needed to treat (NNT). If 8 children out of 100 benefit from treatment, the NNT for one child to benefit is about 13 (100 ÷ 8 = 12.5). CER = 20 / 400 = 1 / 20 = 0.05, EER = 10 / 400 = 0.025, ARR =CER – EER = 0.025

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is least recognised as a potential complication of acromegaly?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least recognised as a potential complication of acromegaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mental retardation

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly is a condition that results from excess growth hormone (GH) after the growth plates have closed. It is typically due to the pituitary gland producing too much growth hormone. In more than 95% of people the excess production is due to a benign tumour, known as a pituitary adenoma. The condition is not inherited.Complications:Severe headacheArthritis and carpal tunnel syndromeEnlarged heartLiver fibrosis and bile duct hyperplasiaHypertensionDiabetes mellitus (excess of GH leads to insulin resistance)Heart failureKidney failureColorectal cancerCompression of the optic chiasm leading to loss of vision in the outer visual fields (typically bitemporal hemianopia.)Increased palmar sweating and sebum production over the face (seborrhoea) are clinical indicators of active GH-producing pituitary tumours.hypertensiondiabetes (>10%)cardiomyopathycolorectal cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year old female? (in comparison to a normal 24 yr. old female)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased FSH, LH; decreased oestrogen, progesterone

      Explanation:

      During menopause, a woman’s number of ovarian follicles becomes depleted; as a result, oestrogen and progesterone levels drop, and LH and FSH levels increase. One of the criteria to diagnose menopause is the absence of menstrual period for a year, along with a serum FSH level increased to 30 mIU/ml or higher. LH also rises with the onset of menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - If O2 makes up 21% of air, then at one atmosphere (760mmHg) it...

    Incorrect

    • If O2 makes up 21% of air, then at one atmosphere (760mmHg) it would be expected that the PO2 of inspired air should be 0,21 x 760 = 160mmHg. In the alveoli the actual measure is 149mmHg because…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Water is equilibrated with air

      Explanation:

      There are several factors that determine the value of alveolar partial oxygen pressure including: the pressure of outside air, the partial pressure of inspired oxygen and carbon dioxide, the rates of total body oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production, the rates of alveolar ventilation and perfusion. The alveolar partial pressure is lower than the atmospheric oxygen partial pressure. One reason is, as the air enters the lungs, it is humidified by the upper airway and thus the partial pressure of water vapour reduces the oxygen partial pressure as water is equilibrated with air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: More than half of the population is infected.

      Explanation:

      HSV-1 is often acquired orally during childhood. It may also be sexually transmitted, including contact with saliva, such as kissing and mouth-to-genital contact (oral sex). HSV-2 is primarily a sexually transmitted infection, but rates of HSV-1 genital infections are increasing. HSVs may persist in a quiescent but persistent form known as latent infection, notably in neural ganglia. HSV-1 tends to reside in the trigeminal ganglia, while HSV-2 tends to reside in the sacral ganglia, but these are tendencies only, not fixed behaviour. The virus can be reactivated by illnesses such as colds and influenza, eczema, emotional and physical stress, gastric upset, fatigue or injury, by menstruation and possibly exposure to bright sunlight. Genital Herpes may be reactivated by friction. Shingles is due to a reactivation of varicella zoster virus (VZV).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oligodendrocytes

      Explanation:

      CNS myelin is produced by special cells called oligodendrocytes. PNS myelin is produced by Schwann cells. The two types of myelin are chemically different, but they both perform the same function — to promote efficient transmission of a nerve impulse along the axon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV...

    Incorrect

    • Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The RCA (right coronary artery) supplies the SA and the AV nodes along with the postero-basal wall of the left ventricle, posterior one third of the inferior vena cava, right ventricle and the posteromedial papillary muscle in the left ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The hepatic portal vein is a large vessel formed by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The hepatic portal vein is a large vessel formed by which of the following veins?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      The portal vein is usually formed by the confluence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins and also receives blood from the inferior mesenteric, gastric, and cystic veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - With regards to the Na+/K+ ATPase, which one of the following is correct?...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the Na+/K+ ATPase, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 Na+ released into the extracellular fluid

      Explanation:

      Na+/K+ pump or sodium–potassium pump is an enzyme found in the plasma membrane. This pumping is active (i.e. it uses energy from ATP) and is important for cell physiology. Its simple function is to pump 3 sodium ions out for every 2 potassium ions taken in and since they both have equal ionic charges, this creates a electrochemical gradient between a cell and its exterior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Isovolumetric ventricular contraction lasts for? ...

    Incorrect

    • Isovolumetric ventricular contraction lasts for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0,05 s

      Explanation:

      Isovolumetric contraction lasts for about 0.05 seconds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (5/16) 31%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Geriatrics (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (0/2) 0%
Connective Tissue (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Passmed