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  • Question 1 - A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of...

    Correct

    • A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the posterior triangle of the neck.
      Which of the following muscles is LEAST likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Sternohyoid

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:
      Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid muscles
      Organs: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid gland
      Arteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteries
      Veins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veins
      Nerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerve

      The posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.
      Contents:
      Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodes
      Nerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), insulin should initially be given: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), insulin should initially be given:

      Your Answer: At a concentration of 1 unit/mL at a fixed rate of 1 units/kg/hour

      Correct Answer: At a concentration of 1 unit/mL at a fixed rate of 0.1 units/kg/hour

      Explanation:

      An intravenous insulin infusion should be started at a concentration of 1 unit/mL, at a fixed rate of 0.1 units/kg/hour. Established subcutaneous long-acting insulin therapy should be continued concomitantly. Blood ketone and blood glucose concentrations should be checked hourly and the insulin infusion rate adjusted accordingly. Blood ketone concentration should fall by at least 0.5 mmol/litre/hour and blood glucose concentration should fall by at least 3 mmol/litre/hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old female, who recently returned from a trip to Bangladesh, presents to...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female, who recently returned from a trip to Bangladesh, presents to the infectious diseases clinic with complaints of productive cough with blood-stained sputum, night sweats, and weight loss for the past one month. Based on the history and examination findings, you suspect pulmonary tuberculosis.

      Which ONE of the following investigations is most appropriate to make a diagnosis of active tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: Sputum for acid-fast bacilli smear

      Explanation:

      Multiple investigations may be done to establish a diagnosis of active tuberculosis. In this case, sputum for acid-fast bacilli would be the best option as it can be done immediately, give fast results, and promptly initiate treatment. Three-morning sputum samples are collected and tested for acid-fast bacilli using gram staining.

      Blood culture would yield results in tuberculous bacteraemia and would be less sensitive than sputum testing.

      A chest X-ray would not differentiate active tuberculosis from an old infection in which the Ghon complex has formed, and the body’s immune reaction contains the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria.

      Mantoux test shows the presence of antibodies to tuberculosis and may be positive if the patient has had a previous infection or been vaccinated against tuberculosis.

      A CT chest would also be unable to differentiate between an active infection and the findings of old tuberculosis infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding Clostridium species, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Clostridium species, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: They are facultative anaerobes.

      Explanation:

      Clostridium spp. are obligatory anaerobic spore-forming Gram-positive bacilli. Toxin production is the main pathogenicity mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      208.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman was involved in a road traffic accident and had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman was involved in a road traffic accident and had a class I haemorrhage.

      Which physiological parameter is consistent with a diagnosis of class I haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Pulse rate of 115 bpm

      Correct Answer: Increased pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      There are 4 classes of haemorrhage. Classification is based on clinical signs and physiological parameters.

      In CLASS I:Blood loss (ml) is < or = 750
      Blood loss(% blood volume) < or = 15%
      Pulse rate (bpm) is <100
      Respiratory rate is 14-20
      Urine output (ml/hr) is >30
      Pulse pressure is normal or increased
      Systolic BP is normal
      CNS/mental status patient is slightly anxious

      In CLASS II:
      Blood loss (ml) is 750 – 1500
      Blood loss(% blood volume) is 15 – 30%
      Pulse rate (bpm) is 100 – 120
      Respiratory rate is 20-30
      Urine output (ml/hr) is 20-30
      Pulse pressure is decreased
      Systolic BP is normal
      CNS/mental status patient is mildly anxious

      In CLASS III:
      Blood loss (ml) is 1500 – 2000
      Blood loss(% blood volume) is 30- 40%
      Pulse rate (bpm) is 120 – 140
      Respiratory rate is 30-40
      Urine output (ml/hr) is 5-15
      Pulse pressure is decreased
      Systolic BP is decreased
      CNS/mental status patient is anxious, confused

      In CLASS IV:
      Blood loss (ml) is >2000
      Blood loss(% blood volume) is >40%
      Pulse rate (bpm) is >140
      Respiratory rate is >40
      Urine output (ml/hr) is negligible
      Pulse pressure is decreased
      Systolic BP is decreased
      CNS/mental status patient is confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a fence causing it to bleed. Upon applying pressure for a few minutes, the bleeding stops. Which one of the following physiological components of the blood is responsible for the primary haemostasis reaction, such as in this case?

      Your Answer: Platelet plug formation

      Explanation:

      Haemostasis is your body’s defence against an injury that causes bleeding. It stops bleeding in three main steps:

      1) Primary haemostasis – formation of a weak platelet plug
      – The primary reaction of the body is to cause local vasoconstriction at the site of injury and decrease blood flow to the affected area
      – the release of cytokines and inflammatory markers lead to adhesion of platelets and aggregation at the site of injury forming a platelet plug
      – the injured vessel wall has exposed subendothelial collagen that releases von Willebrand factor

      Any damage to the vessel wall causes the release of the Von Willebrand factor, which is necessary for platelet adhesion. Tissue Thromboplastin is also released, which activates the coagulation pathway, a component of secondary haemostasis. The coagulation cascade ultimately results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

      2) Secondary haemostasis
      3) Fibrinolysis

      Fibrin (factor Ia) is a long, thin protein with branches produced at the end of the coagulation cascade when fibrinogen (factor I) is converted to fibrin, which stabilizes the blood clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      87
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which nerve supplies the muscle flexor hallucis longus? ...

    Correct

    • Which nerve supplies the muscle flexor hallucis longus?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexor hallucis longus is innervated by the tibial nerve, composed of spinal roots L4, L5, S1, S2, and S3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is an ECG change typically associated with hyperkalaemia: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an ECG change typically associated with hyperkalaemia:

      Your Answer: Wide QRS complex

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes a rapid reduction in resting membrane potential leading to increased cardiac depolarisation and muscle excitability. This in turn results in ECG changes which can rapidly progress to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Very distinctive ECG changes that progressively change as the K+level increases:
      K+>5.5 mmol/l – peaked T waves (usually earliest sign of hyperkalaemia), repolarisation abnormalities
      K+>6.5 mmol/l – P waves widen and flatten, PR segment lengthens, P waves eventually disappear
      K+>7.0 mmol/l – Prolonged QRS interval and bizarre QRS morphology, conduction blocks (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks), sinus bradycardia or slow AF, development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)
      K+>9.0 mmol/l – Cardiac arrest due to asystole, VF or PEA with a bizarre, wide complex rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A diagnosis of a brain tumour has been established.

      Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Upper optic radiation

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopia is not a disease; it is a clinical finding that points towards a lesion of the optic radiations coursing through the temporal lobe.
      Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is caused by damage to the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway: the inferior optic radiation (temporal Meyer loop), or the inferior part of the occipital visual cortex below the calcarine fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You note that the prostate of a 60-year-old patient is enlarged during the...

    Correct

    • You note that the prostate of a 60-year-old patient is enlarged during the examination. You suspect BPH. Anatomically, the prostate has four main lobes. Which of the lobes is affected by benign prostatic hypertrophy?

      Your Answer: Median lobe

      Explanation:

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), also known as benign prostatic hypertrophy, is characterized by an enlarged prostate gland.

      The prostate is divided into four major lobes. The median lobe is the most commonly affected by benign prostatic enlargement, resulting in urethral obstruction and urine symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (3/4) 75%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Passmed