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  • Question 1 - In pregnancy, the following lung function value remains unchanged: ...

    Incorrect

    • In pregnancy, the following lung function value remains unchanged:

      Your Answer: FRC

      Correct Answer: FEV1

      Explanation:

      The biochemical and mechanical effects of progesterone and the enlarging uterus are responsible for some changes in lung function during pregnancy.

      Progesterone increases the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to arterial carbon dioxide while also causing hyperaemia in the airway leading to nasal obstruction. As a result, minute ventilation and tidal volume increase by 50% to allow greater arterial oxygen saturation.

      The enlarging uterus displaces the diaphragm upwards, and also limits the movement of the thoracic cage, thereby decreasing the functional residual capacity (FRC) and the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) by 20%.

      Functional Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) and Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) remain unchanged in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements regarding management of obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding management of obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS) is true?

      Your Answer: Bulking agents should be given routinely

      Correct Answer: Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be given routinely following OASIS

      Explanation:

      After perineal repair, lactulose and a bulking agent should ideally be given for 5-10 days as well as broad spectrum antibiotics should be given that will cover all possible anaerobic bacteria. At 6-12 months a full evaluation should be done regarding the progress of healing. 60 to 80% of women are asymptomatic 12 months post delivery and external anal sphincter repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is not caused by HPV? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not caused by HPV?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Explanation:

      HPV infects the squamous cells that line the inner surfaces of these organs. For this reason, most HPV-related cancers are a type of cancer called squamous cell carcinoma. Some cervical cancers come from HPV infection of gland cells in the cervix and are called adenocarcinomas.

      HPV-related cancers include:

      Cervical cancer: Virtually all cervical cancers are caused by HPV. Routine screening can prevent most cervical cancers by allowing health care providers to find and remove precancerous cells before they develop into cancer. As a result, cervical cancer incidence rates in the United States are decreasing.

      Oropharyngeal cancers: Most of these cancers, which develop in the throat (usually the tonsils or the back of the tongue), are caused by HPV (70% of those in the United States). The number of new cases is increasing each year, and oropharyngeal cancers are now the most common HPV-related cancer in the United States.

      Anal cancer: Over 90% of anal cancers are caused by HPV. The number of new cases and deaths from anal cancer are increasing each year. Anal cancer is nearly twice as common in women as in men. Learn more about anal cancer statistics.

      Penile cancer: Most penile cancers (over 60%) are caused by HPV.
      Vaginal cancer: Most vaginal cancers (75%) are caused by HPV. Learn about symptoms of, and treatment for, vaginal cancer, a rare type of cancer.

      Vulvar cancer: Most vulvar cancers (70%) are caused by HPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      101.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after having four pregnancies before the age of 30. She has to wear a 'pad' inside her pants all of the time because of this condition. She isn't on any hormone replacement therapy at the moment. Which of the following signs indicates that the incontinence is most likely true stress incontinence?

      Your Answer: Only small quantities of urine ore lost each time she is incontinent.

      Explanation:

      Only little volumes of urine are lost when her intra-abdominal pressure is elevated during coughing, laughing, jumping, and straining, which is the only symptom associated with real stress incontinence.
      The other reactions are significantly more compatible with a detrusor instability diagnosis (also called urge incontinence).
      If she had incontinence throughout pregnancy, it would have been stress in nature, which is what her current incontinence is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      316
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Fetal blood is returned to the umbilical arteries & the placenta via the:...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal blood is returned to the umbilical arteries & the placenta via the:

      Your Answer: Ductus venosus

      Correct Answer: Hypogastric arteries

      Explanation:

      In the foetus, the hypogastric artery ascends along the side of the bladder, and runs upward on the back of the anterior wall of the abdomen to the umbilicus, converging toward its fellow of the opposite side. Having passed through the umbilical opening, the two arteries, now termed umbilical, enter the umbilical cord, where they are coiled around the umbilical vein, and ultimately ramify in the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      305.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Uterine rupture.

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.

      Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.

      An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying...

    Correct

    • A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?

      Your Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The joint between the two pubic bones is called the: ...

    Correct

    • The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:

      Your Answer: Pubis symphysis

      Explanation:

      The pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis is the midline cartilaginous joint (secondary cartilaginous) uniting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones. It is located anterior to the urinary bladder and superior to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy: ...

    Correct

    • The maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy:

      Your Answer: Increases up to 40%

      Explanation:

      Changes in the cardiovascular system in pregnancy are profound and begin early in pregnancy, such that by eight weeks’ gestation, the cardiac output has already increased by 20%. The primary event is probably peripheral vasodilatation. This is mediated by endothelium-dependent factors, including nitric oxide synthesis, upregulated by oestradiol and possibly vasodilatory prostaglandins (PGI2). Peripheral vasodilation leads to a 25–30% fall in systemic vascular resistance, and to compensate for this, cardiac output increases by around 40% during pregnancy. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with her second child. She is worried about infections in this pregnancy as her daughter was born with a 'blueberry muffin rash' and was soon found to have sensorineural deafness due to an infection. Which of the following infections is most likely?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Congenital infections can be the cause of various congenital abnormalities. Infection with the Rubella virus, part of the TORCH infections (toxoplasmosis, other organisms, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex), can lead to cardiac abnormalities, ophthalmic defects, sensorineural deafness and neurodevelopmental delays. At birth congenital rubella syndrome presents with a petechial rash characteristically dubbed a blueberry muffin rash, and hepatosplenomegaly with jaundice. Immunization of the mother against measles is an effective way of reducing the occurrence of congenital rubella syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      225.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 36 year old patient is seen in clinic for follow up of...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old patient is seen in clinic for follow up of a vaginal biopsy which confirms cancer. What is the most common type?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vaginal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering...

    Correct

    • You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering a female baby you notice the baby has partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. You suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which of the following genes is most likely to be mutated?

      Your Answer: CYP21A

      Explanation:

      CAH leads to virilization of the female foetus. It occurs to an enzyme deficiency (21-hydroxylase). This results in a reduced levels of corticosteroids from being circulated resulting in hyperplasia of the adrenal glands and increased progesterone production. The CYP21A gene has been implicated in causes this deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome ...

    Correct

    • Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome

      Your Answer: Chromosome 11

      Explanation:

      Fetal haemoglobin (HBF) is the main haemoglobin type in the foetus and persists after birth for around 6 months. Fetal haemoglobin is composed of two alpha and two gamma subunits The alpha globulin chain is coded for by genes on Chromosome 16. Alpha Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome16 defects The beta and delta globulin chains are coded for by genes on Chromosome 11. Beta and Delta Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome 11 Defects

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Normal physiological gut herniation occurs at how many weeks gestation? ...

    Correct

    • Normal physiological gut herniation occurs at how many weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      At about 8-12 weeks gestation, normal physiological herniation of the fetal bowel occurs. The midgut protrudes into the base of the umbilicus, and undergoes a 90-degree anticlockwise rotation. When the abdominal cavity enlarges enough to fit the developing midgut, the intestines undergo another 180-degree rotation before returning to the abdominal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45 year old women is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old women is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy due to irregular menstrual bleeding. Her BMI is 34 kg/m2. This shows atypical hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate 1st line management?

      Your Answer: Endometrial ablation

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia is at high risk of progression to cancer and hysterectomy is indicated There is high risk of progression to cancer with endometrial hyperplasia with atypia and hysterectomy is indicated. Although weight loss would be beneficial this shouldn’t delay surgical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      99.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented to the medical clinic to receive human papillomavirus vaccination.

      Which of the following is considered the best step to do?

      Your Answer: Postpone vaccination until after delivery

      Explanation:

      Genital HPV is a common virus that is passed from one person to another through direct skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Most HPV types cause no symptoms and go away on their own, but some types can cause cervical cancer in women and other less common cancers — like cancers of the anus, penis, vagina, and vulva and oropharynx. Other types of HPV can cause warts in the genital areas of men and women, called genital warts.

      HPV vaccination is recommended for 11 and 12 year-old girls. It is also recommended for girls and women age 13 through 26 years of age who have not yet been vaccinated or completed the vaccine series; HPV vaccine can also be given to girls beginning at age 9 years. CDC recommends 11 to 12 year olds get two doses of HPV vaccine to protect against cancers caused by HPV.

      The vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women. Studies show that the HPV vaccine does not cause problems for babies born to women who were vaccinated while pregnant, but more research is still needed. A pregnant woman should not get any doses of the HPV vaccine until her pregnancy is completed.

      Getting the HPV vaccine when pregnant is not a reason to consider ending a pregnancy. If a woman realizes that she got one or more shots of an HPV vaccine while pregnant, she should wait until after her pregnancy to finish any remaining HPV vaccine doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The external anal sphincter is innervated by which nerves? ...

    Correct

    • The external anal sphincter is innervated by which nerves?

      Your Answer: Inferior rectal

      Explanation:

      The external anal sphincter is innervated by the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve (S2-4) while the internal anal sphincter is innervated by autonomic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). According to NICE guidelines after what time period should induction be offered?

      Your Answer: 12 hours

      Correct Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Induction of labour is appropriate approximately 24 hours after rupture of the membranes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage requiring hysterectomy?

      Your Answer: Uterine atony

      Correct Answer: Placenta accreta

      Explanation:

      Placental abnormalities such as placenta previa and placenta accreta are the most common reasons for considering hysterectomy as an inevitable treatment option in postpartum hemorrhage.

      Placental villi normally invade only the superficial layers of endometrial deciduas basalis, but when the invasion is too deep into the uterine wall, the condition is termed as placenta accreta, increta or percreta depending on the depth of invasion.
      – When the villi invade the deeper layers of the endometrial deciduus basalis, but not the myometrium it is called as Placenta accreta. This is the most common type of decidual invasion and accounts for approximately 75% of the cases.
      – When the villi invade the myometrium, but do not reach the uterine serosa or the bladder is called Placenta increta. This type accounts for nearly 15% of cases.
      – In cases were the villi invades into the uterine serosa or the bladder is it called as Placenta percreta and this happens in 5% of cases.

      Prior uterine surgery is the main risk factor for placenta accreta and the best management is elective cesarean hysterectomy.
      postpartum hemorrhage can also be caused by conditions like genital lacerations, uterine atony, retained products of conception and uterine inversion. In most of these above mentioned cases, hysterectomy is not required and remains as the last resort in extremely desperate situations.

      NOTE– Though uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, it is often manageable medically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation? ...

    Correct

    • Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is responsible for the let down mechanism that occurs during breast feeding in which the myothelial cells contract and push the milk into the ductules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except:

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of tumours defined by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

      GTD is divided into hydatidiform moles (contain villi) and other trophoblastic neoplasms (lack villi). The non-molar or malignant forms of GTD are called gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).
      Hydatidiform mole (HM) is associated with abnormal gametogenesis and/or fertilization. Risk factors include extremes of age, ethnicity, and a prior history of an HM which suggests a genetic basis for its aetiology.

      GTD is best managed by an interprofessional team that includes nurses and pharmacists. Patients with molar pregnancies must be monitored for associated complications including hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia, and ovarian theca lutein cysts. Molar pregnancy induced hyperthyroidism should resolve with the evacuation of the uterus, but patients may require beta-adrenergic blocking agents before anaesthesia to reverse effects of thyroid storm. Pre-eclampsia also resolves quickly after the evacuation of the uterus. Theca lutein cysts will regress spontaneously with falling beta-HCG levels. However, patients must be counselled on signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion and ruptured ovarian cysts.

      A single uterine evacuation has no significant effect on future fertility, and pregnancy outcomes in subsequent pregnancies are comparable to that of the general population, despite a slight increased risk of developing molar pregnancy again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Spinnbarkheit is a term which means: ...

    Incorrect

    • Spinnbarkheit is a term which means:

      Your Answer: Thinning of the cervical mucous

      Correct Answer: Threading of the cervical mucous

      Explanation:

      Spinnability (or Spinnbarkeit), which measures the capacity of fluids to be drawn into threads, represents an indirect measurement of the adhesive and elastic properties of mucus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values for OGTT (Oral glucose...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values for OGTT (Oral glucose tolerance test) is diagnostic of gestational diabetes according to the WHO criteria?

      Your Answer: FPG 7.1mmol/L; 2 hour 11.1mmol/L

      Correct Answer: FPG 6.1mmol/L; 2 hour 7.8mmol/L

      Explanation:

      There are several criteria that aid in the diagnosis of gestational diabetes in pregnancy including NICE, WHO and modified WHO:
      GDM Diagnostic Criteria:
      NICE: Immediate FBG >5.6, 2 hour glucose >7.8
      WHO: Immediate FBG >6.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8
      Modified WHO: Immediate FBG >7.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8

      Random glucose and OGTT 2 hour readings of >11.1 are diagnostic of diabetes in non-pregnant states but are not part of the gestational diabetes criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      78.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL).

      Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia.

      Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Repeat the Pap smear in 3 to 6 months

      Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix

      Explanation:

      When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.

      In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      193
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Under which one of the following conditions is the pelvic inlet felt to...

    Incorrect

    • Under which one of the following conditions is the pelvic inlet felt to be contracted?

      Your Answer: The transverse diameter is only 10 cm

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Contracted pelvis occurs when one or more of its diameters is reduced so that it interferes with the normal mechanism of labour. A transverse diameter below 11 cm will result in difficult delivery of the foetus and C-section will be the better option in that case

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A low APGAR score at one minute: ...

    Correct

    • A low APGAR score at one minute:

      Your Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation

      Explanation:

      The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What kind of biochemical changes occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?...

    Correct

    • What kind of biochemical changes occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Endometrial gland proliferation

      Explanation:

      During follicular phase, there is an increase in gonadotrophin hormones and a proliferation of the endometrium occurs. The duration of the cycle depends upon the overall length of the menstrual cycle. The progesterone levels are increased in the luteal phase and not in follicular phase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: No change TSH Increased Total T3 and T4

      Correct Answer: Decreased TSH Increased Total T3 and T4

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) has thyrotrophic activity owing to subunit homology with thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and maternal TSH production is suppressed during the first trimester of pregnancy, when hCG levels are highest. The TSH response to thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) is reduced during the first trimester but returns to normal after this. Thyroid binding globulin increases in the first 2 weeks of pregnancy and reaches a plateau by 20 weeks. This leads to increased production of total T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Presence of which one of the following features at term makes spontaneous delivery...

    Incorrect

    • Presence of which one of the following features at term makes spontaneous delivery incompatible?

      Your Answer: Occiput anterior

      Correct Answer: Mentum posterior

      Explanation:

      When face presentation is diagnosed, around 60% of cases are in the mentum anterior position, 25% are mentum posterior and 15% are mentum transverse; most malpositions rotate spontaneously into mentum anterior. A vaginal birth at term is possible only if the foetus is in the mentum anterior position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy

      Explanation:

      A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (2/5) 40%
Clinical Management (3/7) 43%
Gynaecology (3/4) 75%
Obstetrics (4/5) 80%
Anatomy (2/4) 50%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Passmed