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Question 1
Correct
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A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 38.5℃ and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. On examination, he’s found to be tachycardic. Abdominal examination reveals guarding. An ultrasound scan shows gall stones in the gall bladder, free fluid in the pelvis and an appendix with a diameter of 8 mm.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute Appendicitis
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is acute appendicitis.Acute appendicitis presents typically with central abdominal pain migrating to the right iliac fossa, anorexia, nausea and fever. The temperature usually does not go beyond 40C. Although appendicitis is a clinical diagnosis, an ultrasound scan showing an appendix width of greater than 6mm is diagnostic.Pyrexia, guarding, and pain are all in keeping with appendicitis.Other options:- Cholecystitis is very rare in children, and although gall stones are present, there is no jaundice or biliary tree dilatation suggested by the scan.- Impacted Gall Stone: There is no mention of common bile duct dilatation in the clinical scenario.- Sickle Cell Crisis: A sickle cell crisis should not cause guarding, or an ultrasound scan finding of a dilated appendix base.- Gastroenteritis: Gastroenteritis would not produce the ultrasound scan findings described above with a thickened appendix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum?
Your Answer: It is more benign than herpangina
Correct Answer: Herpes virus 1 and 2, Ebstein-Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Varicella Zoster virus are all species of Herpesviridae
Explanation:Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is the name given to a distinct cutaneous eruption caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1, HSV-2, coxsackievirus A16, or vaccinia virus that infects a pre-existing dermatosis. Most commonly, it is caused by a disseminated HSV infection in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD) and, for this reason, is often referred to as eczema herpeticum (EH).Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is now known to occur in children of any age and in adults, however, most patients (56%) are aged 15-24 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 4 month old child, presenting with lower UTI has been treated with Trimethoprim but there has been no improvement after 48 hours. What will be the next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Midstream urine culture
Correct Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram
Explanation:A micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) is one type of imaging test also called a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG). The MCUG can check whether the flow of urine from the child’s bladder is being blocked, or whether it goes up the wrong way. It can help diagnose certain conditions, including vesicoureteral reflux and posterior urethral valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?
Your Answer: Granulocyte without blast cells
Correct Answer: Blast cells
Explanation:Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age| a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts| pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Achondroplasia is NOT associated with which of the following cranial abnormalities?
Your Answer: Large cranial vault compared with small skull base
Correct Answer: Prominent maxilla
Explanation:Achondroplasia is one of the commonest forms of skeletal dysplasias that lead to dwarfism. Multiple skeletal deformities are associated with it but the common cranial abnormalities are macrocephaly, frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, narrowed foramen magnum, and the presence of communicating hydrocephalus. A prominent maxilla is not associated with achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following cranial nerve reflexes is most likely to be affected if there is a lesion in the vagus nerve?
Your Answer: Gag reflex
Explanation:Vagus nerve lesions will affect the gag reflex since the pharyngeal muscles are innervated by it.The vagal nerve (10th cranial nerve ) is a mixed nerve carrying motor efferents and sensory afferents. The nerve conducts five distinct qualities, which are carried along general visceral efferent fibres (parasympathetic innervation of pharyngeal, laryngeal, bronchial, and gastrointestinal mucosa), general visceral afferent fibres (sensory information from the thoracic and abdominal viscera, the aortic body, aortic arch), special visceral afferent fibres (carry the taste of the epiglottal region), general somatic afferent fibres (carry sensation from the external auditory meatus, outer tympanic membrane, back of the ear, part of meninges, pharynx), and along special visceral efferent fibres, which innervate skeletal muscles of the pharynx and larynx. Skeletal muscles innervated by the vagal nerve include the cricothyroid, levator veli palatini, salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossal, palatopharyngeus pharyngeal constrictor, and the laryngeal muscles (except cricothyroid). Innervation of these muscles is involved during speech or opening of the larynx during breathing. Efferent parasympathetic fibres control heart rate, peristalsis, and sweating. Stimulation of the efferent parasympathetic fibres lowers heart rate or blood pressure. 80–90% of the vagal fibres are afferent, only 10–20% are efferent fibresPhysical exam of the 10th cranial nerve includes eliciting the gag reflex (The gag reflex involves a brisk and brief elevation of the soft palate and bilateral contraction of pharyngeal muscles evoked by touching the posterior pharyngeal wall.), to look if the uvula is deviated from the side of the lesion, if there is failure of palate elevation upon phonation, and evaluation of speech impairment.In case of bilateral vagal nerve lesions, heart rate and breath rate may be increased. The somatic sensory function can be assessed by testing the sensibility of the external auditory meatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 7
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy presents with left-sided hemi-sensory loss and ipsilateral sensory inattention. The doctor suspects a space-occupying lesion.Where is this likely to be?
Your Answer: Right parietal lobe
Explanation:Damage to the left parietal lobe can result in what is called Gerstmann’s Syndrome. It includes right-left confusion, difficulty with writing (agraphia) and difficulty with mathematics (acalculia). It can also produce disorders of language (aphasia) and the inability to perceive objects normally (agnosia).Damage to the right parietal lobe can result in neglecting part of the body or space (contralateral neglect), which can impair many self-care skills such as dressing and washing. Right side damage can also cause difficulty in making things (constructional apraxia), denial of deficits (anosognosia) and drawing ability.Bi-lateral damage (large lesions to both sides) can cause Balint’s Syndrome, a visual attention and motor syndrome. This is characterized by the inability to voluntarily control the gaze (ocular apraxia), inability to integrate components of a visual scene (simultanagnosia), and the inability to accurately reach for an object with visual guidance (optic ataxia)Special deficits (primarily to memory and personality) can occur if there is damage to the area between the parietal and temporal lobes.Left parietal-temporal lesions can affect verbal memory and the ability to recall strings of digits. The right parietal-temporal lobe is concerned with non-verbal memory.Right parietal-temporal lesions can produce significant changes in personality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 8
Correct
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A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows and knees associated with swelling of his hands and feet. On examination, he is found to be febrile with a temperature of 39°C. He is also tachycardic with a pulse rate of 120bpm and hypotensive with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. Conjunctival congestion and cervical lymphadenopathy with a red tongue were also noted. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Kawasaki disease.Kawasaki disease:It is an acute systemic disorder of childhood that predominantly occurs in Japan (800 cases per million in children under the age of 5 years). The causative factor is not known, but mycoplasma and HIV infection may be associated in some cases. Clinical Features:The principal clinical features are fever persisting for more than five days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctival congestion, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, arthralgia, palmar erythema and strawberry tongue. Other options:- Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis is associated with skin, renal and gut involvement. Arthralgia, morning stiffness and flexor tenosynovitis are common. – Behçet syndrome is a vasculitis of unknown aetiology that characteristically targets venules. – Felty syndrome is the association of splenomegaly and neutropenia with rheumatoid arthritis. Lymphadenopathy is common, and there is a predisposition to recurrent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?
Your Answer: Persistent arterial duct
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding erythema nodosum?
Your Answer: The nodules nearly always ulcerate, often causing scarring
Correct Answer: It is associated with streptococcal infections
Explanation:Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Chronic or recurrent erythema nodosum is rare but may occur.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adults.The eruptive phase of erythema nodosum begins with flulike symptoms of fever and generalized aching. Arthralgia may occur and precedes the eruption or appears during the eruptive phase. Most lesions in infection-induced erythema nodosum heal within 7 weeks, but active disease may last up to 18 weeks. In contrast, 30% of idiopathic erythema nodosum cases may last more than 6 months. Febrile illness with dermatologic findings includes abrupt onset of illness with initial fever, followed by a painful rash within 1-2 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Explanation:In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A family of five members presents to the genetics clinic for further evaluation. The father, one boy and one girl present with a short stature, large heads, short digits, and trident hands. Genetic evaluation reveals they are all heterozygotes for a specific mutation. The rest of the family, the mother and the other daughter, do not carry this mutation. What is the pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
Explanation:In this case, the affected individuals are all heterozygotes. Therefore, the mutation is autosomal dominant. Also, the mother does not carry the mutation, further confirming the autosomal dominant nature of the disease, which is most probably achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 13
Correct
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An 8 year old girl presents with a chest injury, following a road traffic accident. You intubate and ventilate her. However, at some point you notice that the girl becomes tachycardic and her blood pressure drops. Her trachea is displaced to one side and neck veins appear quite distended. What should you do next?
Your Answer: Needle Decompression
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests tension pneumothorax which requires immediate needle decompression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?
Your Answer: Abdominal trauma
Explanation:Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?
Your Answer: Build a tower of nine cubes
Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors
Explanation:At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)White cell count 60 per ml (<5)Lymphocytes 90%Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis meningitis
Correct Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What serious side effect would you expect, after giving IV lorazepam to a 4-year-old boy suffering from febrile convulsions?
Your Answer: Amnesia
Correct Answer: Apnoea
Explanation:Lorazepam is known to cause respiratory depression and finally apnoea as a side effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A healthy 8 month old baby boy was brought in by his parents, who claimed that the baby had come into close contact with another child with measles two days ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: She should receive the MMR vaccine now together with measles immunoglobulin
Correct Answer: She should receive the MMR vaccination now
Explanation:People who are at risk for severe illness and complications from measles, such as infants younger than 12 months of age, pregnant women without evidence of measles immunity, and people with severely compromised immune systems, should receive immunoglobulin. Intramuscular immunoglobulin should be given to all infants younger than 12 months of age who have been exposed to measles. For infants aged 6 through 11 months, MMR vaccine can be given in place of IG, if administered within 72 hours of exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Correct
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A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains of anaesthesia of the web spaces between his first and second toes. Injury to which of the following nerves leads to this presentation?
Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve
Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve
Explanation:The deep peroneal nerve lies in the anterior muscular compartment of the lower leg and can be compromised by compartment syndrome affecting this area. It provides cutaneous sensation to the first web space. The superficial peroneal nerve provides more lateral cutaneous innervation.Origin: It originates from the common peroneal nerve, at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to peroneus longus. Root values of common peroneal nerve: L4, L5, S1, and S2.Course and relation: It pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Following which, it passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.Throughout the course it innervates:- Tibialis anterior- Extensor hallucis longus- Extensor digitorum longus- Peroneus tertius- Extensor digitorum brevisAt its termination, it innervates the skin in the web space between the first and second toes.Actions performed by the muscles supplied by the nerve:- Dorsiflexion of ankle joint- Extension of all toes- Inversion of the foot
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?
Your Answer: Numbers needed to harm
Correct Answer: Relative risk
Explanation:A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following cellular components is neuron-specific?
Your Answer: Nissl substance
Explanation:Nissl body is a neuron-specific cellular structure. It is composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum and fine granules. The rough endoplasmic reticulum contains free ribosomes, and are the hub of protein synthesis. When these substances are exposed to a cresyl violet solution, they show selective-staining by turning purple-blue. In pathologic processes, they may undergo chromatolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective cardiac surgery. There is no respiratory distress, but cyanosis is present with oxygen saturations at 80s. There is a midline sternotomy scar. On auscultation there is a 4/6 ejection systolic murmur on the upper left sternal edge and a sternal heave is felt on palpation. Which of the following is the child most likely suffering from and what is the likely treatment?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot with Blalock Taussig shunt
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery band
Explanation:The murmur and thrill indicate a right outflow tract murmur, coupled with the right ventricular heave suggests right ventricular hypertrophy. The VSD would not have been amenable to surgery due to the child’s size/weight and so instead would have been palliated with a PA band. As the child grows, this band progressively restricts pulmonary blood flow until the left to right shunt has reversed. Then it is time for the band to be removed and the VSD to be closed.Pulmonary atresia is a cyanotic condition, which may be palliated with an arterial duct stent. This answer is incorrect as the stent placement would not require a midline sternotomy and would give a continuous machinery type murmur. Pulmonary stenosis with PDA ligation is incorrect. The murmur, thrill, and heave all match a pulmonary stenosis but in the absence of an additional shunt lesion the child would not be cyanosed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic hair. What is the present stage of pubic hair development in this boy according to the Tanner system?
Your Answer: Stage 1
Correct Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:Based on the clinical presentation, the pubic hair development is in Tanner stage 2.The Tanner stages for pubic hair are as follows:Stage 1 – pre-adolescentStage 2 – sparse hair that is long, slightly pigmented and downyStage 3 – hair spread over the junction of the pubes, darker and coarserStage 4 – adult-type hair, but the area covered is smaller than it is in an adult.Stage 5 – adult in quantity and type
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer: Prevents implantation
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation| they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decreases the pulse frequency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will decrease the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decreases the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, then there is no increase in the oestradiol levels (the follicle makes oestradiol). The progestogen negative feedback and lack of oestrogen positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, there is the prevention of ovulation. Oestrogen has some effect with inhibiting follicular development because of its negative feedback on the anterior pituitary with slows FSH secretion| it’s just not as prominent as the progesterone’s effect. Another primary mechanism of action is progesterone’s ability to inhibit sperm from penetrating through the cervix and upper genital tract by making the cervical mucous unfriendly. Progesterone induced endometrial atrophy should deter implantation, but there is no proof that this occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary vesicoureteric reflux?
Your Answer: Girls aged 3–10 years
Correct Answer: New-born girls
Explanation:Vesicoureteric reflex (VUR) is described as the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter due to an incompetent uterovesical junction. In primary VUR the lower urinary tract functions normally, while secondary VUR is associated with a poorly functioning lower urinary tract. The incidence of VUR is highest in new-born girls. They can present with hydronephrosis, or urinary tract infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 30
Correct
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An 18-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of persistent palpitations. The ECG shows a regular rhythm with a rate of 200 beats/min and QRS duration of 80ms. The tachycardia spontaneously resolves and presents in sinus rhythm. The PR interval is 60 ms and QRS duration is 120 ms, there is a positive delta wave in V1. Regarding the boy's tachycardia, which of the following statements holds true?
Your Answer: Verapamil is contraindicated
Explanation:Although WPW syndrome is a type of supraventricular re-entrant tachycardia, CCBs are contraindicated in its management. This is because CCBs depress AVN conduction| the current then passes through the accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) instead, causing ventricular tachycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 31
Incorrect
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What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis?
Your Answer: 60-90%
Correct Answer: >90%
Explanation:90% of patients with meconium ileus have cystic fibrosis (CF). Indeed, in 10 – 15% of cases of CF, the patient presents with meconium ileus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 32
Correct
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Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?
Your Answer: L3
Explanation:The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true of scabies?
Your Answer: Topical salicylic acid is first line
Correct Answer: The mite lives in the stratum corneum
Explanation:Scabies is a dermatological condition caused by infestation of the Sarcoptes Scaibie. The tiny mite, often unseen by the naked human eye, is able to burrow into the stratum corneum where it lays its eggs, causing irritation and a rash related to the immune response against the mite and its eggs, saliva and faeces. On examination, the pathognomic small burrows are often seen on the skin along with small red papules and scratch marks| granulomatous nodules may also be seen especially in darker skin types. Other clinical subtypes such as bullous, and Norwegian (crusted) also exist. Common areas of infection include the hands, wrists, and the interdigital spaces. Infestation can also occur on the genital area, the buttocks, feet, ankles, flexor surfaces. First line treatment is with permethrin 5% dermal cream. It is important that all members of the household are also treated at the same time, and that contaminated bedding, clothes and furniture is adequately disinfected. Scabies is usually associated with overcrowded conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?
Your Answer: Prophylactic Antibiotics
Correct Answer: Treat when ill
Explanation:At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder?
Your Answer: Idiopathic precocious puberty with arachnoid cyst
Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma
Explanation:Among the given options, pituitary adenoma is an acquired anterior pituitary disorder which represent between 10 and 25% of all intracranial neoplasms.Other options:- Agenesis of the corpus callosum is characterised by the partial or complete absence of the corpus callosum. This condition is associated with pituitary hormone deficiencies.- Congenital disorders such as hydrocephalus or arachnoid cysts may be a cause of precocious puberty.- Pituitary hypoplasia and septo-optic dysplasia are congenital disorders of the pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 10 year old child presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Oropharyngeal examination confirms this finding and you also notice petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx. On systemic examination he is noted to have splenomegaly. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Diphtheria
Correct Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection
Explanation:Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infectionThe Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:fever,fatigue,swollen tonsils,headache, andsweats,sore throat,swollen lymph nodes in the neck, andsometimes an enlarged spleen.Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?
Your Answer: Epilepsy
Correct Answer: Sensorineural deafness
Explanation:Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with a day's history of urticarial rash.While addressing the parents' query on the cause of the rash, what would be the most appropriate statement?
Your Answer: Individual lesions tend to last for > 24 hours and then resolve
Correct Answer: The rash may be due to a viral infection
Explanation:The most common cause of acute urticaria is a viral infection. Individual lesions typically are short-lived and last less than 24 hours. Urticaria can be due to or can be made worse by cold temperatures. One of the other causes of urticaria is salicylic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea for the past 9 months. She goes to college and is performs well academically. Physical examination shows an underweight girl (weight 38 kg), height 1.78 m (5 ft 10 inches). Excessive small hair can be seen growing on the body. Labs are significant for an elevated cortisol level, normal T4 level, and anaemia associated with reduced WBCs and platelets. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Occult carcinoma
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder defined by restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight. Patients will have an intense fear of gaining weight and distorted body image with the inability to recognize the seriousness of their significantly low body weight. Athletes in sports such as ballet, long-distance running, and martial arts are pressured to maintain lean body weights to outperform the competition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head with a hammer. On arrival at the emergency department, he is pronounced dead. Post-mortem findings will show which of the following features?
Your Answer: Posterior fossa haematoma
Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery
Explanation:An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (a tough fibrous layer of tissue between the brain and skull) and the skull bone. These occur when arteries are torn as a result of a blow to the head, and injury in the temple area is a common cause. Although the pattern of a lucid interval followed by later neurological symptoms is characteristic, only a minority of patients display this pattern of symptoms. Reported death rates from epidural hematoma vary widely, ranging from 5% to over 40%. Middle meningeal artery is frequently involved in such incidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular pain. On examination, he is found to have testicular tenderness. On trans-illumination, a faint blue dot can be seen. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Idiopathic Scrotal Oedema
Correct Answer: Torsion of the hydatid cyst of the testis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be torsion of a hydatid cyst of the testis.Note:The differential diagnoses in acute testicular pain/swelling are listed in the possible answers. Testicular torsion typically affects adolescent males and presents with acute painful swelling and a horizontally lying testicle. Other options:- Epididymo-orchitis is diagnosed during surgery when a thickened erythematous epididymis is noted. Ectopic ureteric insertion into the vas must be excluded by ultrasound scan on an out-patient basis. The hydatid cyst or cyst of Morgagni represents the remnants of the Mullerian structure. In the pre-pubertal child, a surge in hormones can stimulate growth and chance of torsion. It is diagnosed by surgical exploration or by a blue dot sign. Idiopathic scrotal oedema tends to be within the scrotum itself, and the testis can be examined in the groin to exclude pain in the testis. All acute scrotal pain must be explored to exclude testicular torsion unless a surgical registrar is convinced of a torted hydatid cyst.- An 8-year-old is more likely to present with a torted hydatid cyst. The blue dot sign is diagnostic and can negate the need for surgical exploration. The age of the child also makes epididymo-orchitis less likely.- Idiopathic scrotal oedema presents with an erythematous and thickened scrotum. This can cross the midline and involve the whole scrotum.- Finally, an inguinal hernia would present with a mass in the groin extending to the scrotum that you cannot get above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: It is non-functional in adults
Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus
Explanation:The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma
Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which of the following are associated with port wine stains?
Your Answer: Stunted growth
Correct Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Port-wine stains are a type of vascular birthmark caused by the abnormal development of capillaries in the skin. These pinkish-purplish discolorations present at birth and are associated with medical conditions such as Sturge-Weber syndrome, a neurocutaneous disorder involving the leptomeninges. Port wine stains are therefore associated with epilepsy, glaucoma or intellectual disability common in Sturge-Weber syndrome. Additional complications of Port wine stains include a loss of function if near the eye or mouth due to hypertrophy, or glaucoma if near the eyelid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop. On examination, there is weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. A small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of the right foot is also present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve lesion
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion
Explanation:Injuries to the peroneal nerve can cause numbness, tingling, pain, weakness and foot drop. The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate and control the muscles in the legs that lift the ankle and toes upward (dorsi flexion).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with fever, cough, sore throat and bleeding gums. He has also noticed a rash on his legs. The coryzal symptoms started 3 weeks ago before which he was fit and well. He is currently not taking any medication and denies smoking, alcohol and using other illicit drugs. Examination reveals a pale child with bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages, erythematous throat and some petechiae on his legs. there are no sign of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. investigations are as follows: Hb8.9 g/dlMCV: 110 flWBC: 2 x 109/lNeutrophils: 0.3 x 109/lLymphocytes:1.5 x 109/lPLT: 13 x 109/lReticulocytes: 30 x 109/l (normal range 20-100 x 109/l)Coagulation screen: normal. Bone marrow: hypoplastic. A urine dipstick reveals trace of blood in the urine. What is the patient most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Acute leukaemia
Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia
Explanation:Aplastic anaemia causes a deficiency of all blood cell types: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It is more frequent in people in their teens and twenties, but is also common among the elderly. It can be caused by heredity, immune disease, or exposure to chemicals, drugs, or radiation. However, in about one-half of cases, the cause is unknown.The definitive diagnosis is by bone marrow biopsy| normal bone marrow has 30–70% blood stem cells, but in aplastic anaemia, these cells are mostly gone and replaced by fat.First-line treatment for aplastic anaemia consists of immunosuppressive drugs, typically either anti-lymphocyte globulin or anti-thymocyte globulin, combined with corticosteroids, chemotherapy and ciclosporin. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is also used, especially for patients under 30 years of age with a related matched marrow donor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A patient undergoes investigation for chronic upper urinary tract obstruction with intravenous urography (IVU).The patient should be informed about which severe complication of IVU?
Your Answer: Skin reaction
Correct Answer: Contrast hypersensitivity
Explanation:Allergy: A history of a prior allergic-like reaction to contrast media is associated with an up to a 5-fold increase in the likelihood of experiencing a subsequent reaction. Also, any patient with a predilection to allergic reactions may predispose them to a reaction after the administration of contrast media. Given the increased risk of severe life-threatening anaphylaxis related to the administration of contrast media in the setting of the history of atopy, the risk versus benefits should be discussed before following through with the procedure. A premedication regimen may be used to reduce the risk of anaphylaxis.Asthma: A history of asthma may be indicative of a higher likelihood of developing a contrast reaction. Cardiac status: Attention must be turned to patients with significant cardiac disease (congestive heart failure, aortic stenosis, severe cardiomyopathy, and/or pulmonary hypertension), as higher volumes and osmolality of contrast material may result in an increased risk for a contrast reaction.Renal insufficiency: Contrast nephrotoxicity is defined as the rapid deterioration of renal function after the administration of contrast media when no other aetiology can be determined from the clinical records. The major predisposing risk factors include pre-existing renal insufficiency (defined as serum creatinine level >1.5 mg/dL) and diabetes. Other risk factors include dehydration, cardiovascular disease, the use of diuretics, advanced age (>70 years old), hypertension, and hyperuricemia. Obtaining multiple contrast-enhanced studies within 24 hours is also thought to increase the risk for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity. Miscellaneous: Relative contraindications to the use of high osmolality iodinated contrast media (HOCM) in patients with pheochromocytoma, sickle cell disease, and multiple myeloma have been reported. Although the administration of low osmolality or iso-osmotic contrast media may be beneficial in patients with pheochromocytoma and sickle cell disease, little evidence suggests that these agents mitigate the risks associated with multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician with vomiting, joint pains, diarrhoea and crampy abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals a purpuric rash on her legs and over the belt area. She has microscopic haematuria, proteinuria and RBC casts on urine testing. Which of the underlying diagnoses is most likely in this case?
Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each feed. He was dehydrated on admission and IV fluids were started. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Projectile vomiting is the hallmark symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy, which has a male-to-female predominance of 4-5:1. Current management recommendations include ultrasonography for diagnosis, correction of electrolytes, and surgical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl develops central precocious puberty. Which of the following conditions is the most likely aetiology for her condition?
Your Answer: Hepatoblastoma
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. Central precocious puberty is mostly idiopathic, but other causes include congenital or prolonged, untreated hypothyroidism, congenital or acquired central nervous system pathologies, and several genetic syndromes like Silver-Russell syndrome. The other mentioned choices cause peripheral or false precocious puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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An 11-month old infant was brought by the parents with complaints of poor feeding, failure to thrive, and developmental delay. He was reluctant to play and was unable to sit independently at ten months. Examination revealed blond hair and pale skin with small hands and feet and a squint. He also has poor central muscle tone and unilaterally undescended testes. What is the probable diagnosis of this infant?
Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome
Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Explanation:The physical features and developmental delay are the key aspects in the given scenario. The child in question shows features of gross motor and social developmental delay and has physical features indicative of Prader-Willi syndrome (hypopigmentation, esotropia, disproportionately small hands and feet, loss of central muscle tone and undescended testes). Children with Prader-Willi syndrome can present with failure to thrive until ,12-18 months, at which point, hyperphagia and obesity become more prominent. Other options:- Although Klinefelter syndrome can present with delayed development, undescended/small testes and reduced muscle power, the presence of small hands/feet, hypopigmentation and failure to thrive are not characteristic features. – Marfan syndrome presents with different physical features (arachnodactyly, cardio-respiratory complications and skin changes, amongst others) than those associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. – DiGeorge can manifest with developmental delay, hypotonia and feeding difficulties. However, this clinical scenario does not report any of the typical facial features, hearing abnormalities or cardiac abnormalities that are typically caused by DiGeorge syndrome. – Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental abnormalities, poor muscle tone and power (poor head control and muscle function), feeding difficulties and poor growth during the post-natal period and infancy. However, characteristic facial (small, triangular face, blue sclerae) and skeletal abnormalities (limb asymmetry, finger abnormalities) are not present. Therefore, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient.Note:Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of genetic imprinting where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father: In Prader-Willi syndrome, it is the paternal gene that is deleted from the long arm of chromosome 15, while in Angelman syndrome the maternal gene is deleted. Prader-Willi syndrome can occur due to the microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 (70% of cases) maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 52
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy presents with complaints of ear pain. The pain started last night and prevented him from sleeping. He reports that sounds are muffled on the affected side. On examination, he has a fever. A bulging tympanic membrane with a visible fluid level is seen on otoscopy. You suspect a diagnosis of acute suppurative otitis media. Tensor tympani is a muscle that is found in the middle ear. What is the nerve supplying the tensor tympani?
Your Answer: Mandibular nerve
Explanation:The nerve supply to the tensor tympani is the mandibular nerve.The mandibular nerve is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that carries motor fibres.Tensor tympani is a muscle that lies in a bony canal just superior to the pharyngotympanic tube. It originates from the cartilaginous portion of the pharyngotympanic tube, the bony canal in which it sits, and the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. It inserts into the upper part of the handle of the malleus. When contracted, it pulls the handle of the malleus medially. This action increases the tension across the tympanic membrane, reducing the magnitude of vibrations transmitted into the middle ear. This dampens loud noises or noises produced by chewing. Tensor tympani is innervated through the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve.Other options:- The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. This nerve has two components, a vestibular division that carries balance information, and a cochlear division that carries hearing information.- The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve. It has a wide range of functions. It carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, as well as sensation from the pharyngeal wall and tonsils, the middle ear, external auditory canal and auricle. It carries parasympathetic fibres that supply the parotid gland. It also supplies the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus and supplies the secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland.- The maxillary nerve carries only sensory fibres.- The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve. It supplies the muscles of facial expression, as well as stylohyoid, the posterior belly of digastric, and stapedius (the only other muscle associated with the middle ear). It carries taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and sensation from part of the external acoustic meatus, parts of the auricle and the retro-auricular area. It provides secretomotor fibres which supply to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland (via chorda tympani nerve), nasal glands and lacrimal glands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents with moderate acne and pustules affecting the face, back and chest.What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Topical tretinoin
Correct Answer: An oral tetracycline for three months
Explanation:When topical agents are insufficient or not tolerated, or in cases of moderate to severe acne, especially when the chest, back and shoulders are involved, systemic antibiotics are often considered the next line of treatmentSystemic antibiotics should not be used to treat mild acne because of the risk of increasing resistance. The additional use of nonantibiotic topical agents in combination with oral antibiotics should be considered. Topical retinoids with oral antibiotics may give a faster response and be more effective than either drug used alone.Treatment with tetracyclines and erythromycin reduces P. acnes within the follicles, thereby inhibiting the production of bacterial-induced inflammatory cytokines. These agents also have inherent anti-inflammatory effects, such as suppressing leukocyte chemotaxis and bacterial lipase activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her food intake has drastically reduced but she is drinking normally. She also complains that she feels tired all the time.On examination, the presence of aphthous ulcers and generalized abdominal tenderness was noted. Considering the clinical presentation, what could be the most probable underlying disorder causing the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Crohn’s disease.Crohn’s disease:An inflammatory bowel disease which can affect any part of the bowel from the mouth to the anus. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia and weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations include arthritis, uveitis, fatigue, anaemia and rashes including pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.Other options:- Anorexia nervosa is an important diagnosis to consider. There are no indicators in the description that she has a fear of gaining weight or a strong desire to be thin.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is incorrect because there is no polydipsia or polyuria. A patient in DKA is more likely to present with vomiting and not diarrhoea.- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is not a correct answer because it does not explain all of the symptoms described, only the mouth ulcers.- Ulcerative colitis (UC) is also incorrect. UC is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the colon. The main symptom is bloody stools, which is not mentioned as a feature in history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Rectal prolapse
Correct Answer: IgA deficiency
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with the following conditions:- Dermatitis herpetiformis- Autoimmune disorders (e.g. thyroid disease, pernicious anaemia, diabetes)- IgA deficiency- Small-bowel malignancy, particularly lymphoma, if the gluten-free diet is not followed.Serology testing: The IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the most sensitive and specific, compared with the anti-endomysial antibody. However, false negatives will occur in children who are IgA-deficient, and IgA levels should be taken at the same time. Other options:Distal obstruction syndrome, meconium ileus, pancreatitis and rectal prolapse are all gastrointestinal manifestations of cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. There is a history of pubertal delay. On examination, he has pallor and looks short for his age. Tissue biopsy of the small intestines reveals damaged villi. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Giardiasis
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 57
Correct
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Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation type II?
Your Answer: Myelomeningocele
Explanation:Arnold-Chiari malformation type II is one of the congenital hindbrain abnormalities that leads to a disruption of the relationship between different hindbrain structures. It is characterized by congenital hydrocephalus, herniation of cerebellar tonsils into the pinal canal with an enlarged 4th ventricle, spina bifida associated with myelomeningocele, and various levels of denervation atrophy of the muscles of the lower limb. The association of type II Arnold-Chiari with myelomeningocele carries importance from an etiological perspective, forming the basis of CSF escape theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 58
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidelines, which of the following should be avoided in breastfeeding women?
Your Answer: Nortriptyline
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines:Do not offer lithium to women who are planning a pregnancy or pregnant, unless antipsychotic medication has not been effective.If antipsychotic medication has not been effective and lithium is offered to a woman who is planning a pregnancy or pregnant, ensure:the woman knows that there is a risk of fetal heart malformations when lithium is taken in the first trimester, but the size of the risk is uncertain. Lithium levels may be high in breast milk with a risk of toxicity for the baby.If a woman taking lithium becomes pregnant, consider stopping the drug gradually over 4 weeks if she is well. Explain to her that:stopping the medication may not remove the risk of fetal heart malformations and there is a risk of relapse, particularly in the postnatal period, if she has bipolar disorder.If a woman taking lithium becomes pregnant and is not well or is at high risk of relapse, consider:switching gradually to an antipsychotic or stopping lithium and restarting it in the second trimester (if the woman is not planning to breastfeed and her symptoms have responded better to lithium than to other drugs in the past) or continuing with lithium if she is at high risk of relapse and an antipsychotic is unlikely to be effective. If a woman continues taking lithium during pregnancy:- check plasma lithium levels every 4 weeks, then weekly from the 36th week. Adjust the dose to keep plasma lithium levels in the woman’s therapeutic range- ensure the woman maintains an adequate fluid balance- ensure the woman gives birth in the hospital- ensure monitoring by the obstetric team when labour starts, including checking plasma lithium levels and fluid balance because of the risk of dehydration and lithium toxicity- stop lithium during labour and check plasma lithium levels 12 hours after her last dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 59
Incorrect
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At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor development?
Your Answer: Can roll over
Correct Answer: Finger play with the hands open and brought together
Explanation:By the age of three months a child should become more fascinated with their hands and fingers| they can bring their hand to their mouth, open and close their hand, and shake and grab at dangling objects and toys. Their ability to roll over will come by the time the child is 6 months, at which time they will also be able to sit with support. Soon, at 8-9 months, attempts will be made to crawl and as they approach 12 months they will be able to pull on objects to stand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male arrives at the clinic, 7 days after having unprotected intercourse with his girlfriend, and complains of dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. He is otherwise feeling well. Microscopic examination of the urethral swab shows gram negative diplococci. Which of the following drugs should be used in this patient?
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Effective treatment can cure gonorrhoea and help prevent long-term complications. CDC recommends a single dose of 250mg of intramuscular ceftriaxone AND 1g of oral azithromycin. It is important to take all of the medication prescribed to cure gonorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 61
Correct
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A short 17-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has pulmonary stenosis.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Noonan's syndrome
Explanation:Noonan syndrome is a condition that affects many areas of the body. It is characterized by mildly unusual facial features, short stature, heart defects, bleeding problems, skeletal malformations, and many other signs and symptoms.People with Noonan syndrome have distinctive facial features such as a deep groove in the area between the nose and mouth (philtrum), widely spaced eyes that are usually pale blue or blue-green in colour, and low-set ears that are rotated backwards. Affected individuals may have a high-arched palate, poor teeth alignment, and micrognathia. Many children with Noonan syndrome have a short neck, and both children and adults may have excess neck skin (also called webbing) and a low hairline at the back of the neck.Between 50 and 70 % of individuals with Noonan syndrome have short stature. At birth, they are usually a normal length and weight, but growth slows over time. Individuals with Noonan syndrome often have either a pectus excavatum or pectus carinatum. Some affected people may also have scoliosis.Most people with Noonan syndrome have some form of critical congenital heart disease. The most common heart defect in these individuals is pulmonary valve stenosis. Some have hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.A variety of bleeding disorders have been associated with Noonan syndrome. Some affected individuals have excessive bruising, nosebleeds, or prolonged bleeding following injury or surgery. Rarely, women with Noonan syndrome who have a bleeding disorder have excessive bleeding during menstruation (menorrhagia) or childbirth.Adolescent males with Noonan syndrome typically experience delayed puberty. They go through puberty starting at age 13 or 14 and have a reduced pubertal growth spurt that results in shortened stature. Most males with Noonan syndrome have undescended testes (cryptorchidism), which may contribute to infertility (inability to father a child) later in life. Females with Noonan syndrome can experience delayed puberty but most have normal puberty and fertility.Most children diagnosed with Noonan syndrome have normal intelligence, but a few have special educational needs, and some have an intellectual disability. Some affected individuals have vision or hearing problems. It has been estimated that children with Noonan syndrome have an eightfold increased risk of developing leukaemia or other cancers over age-matched peers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A woman gave birth to an infant at 39 weeks' gestation. The infant has a pulse of 110 bpm, grimaces upon nasal stimulation and has good muscle tone. Moreover, the colour of the infant is pink except for the extremities, which are blueish. What is the infants APGAR score?
Your Answer: 6
Correct Answer: 7
Explanation:Apgar is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. The 1-minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process. The 5-minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby is doing outside the mother’s womb. More specifically, five components are assessed and these are the appearance (A), the pulse (P), the grimace (G), the activity (A) and the respiration (R). A normal APGAR score is considered to be 10 points, 2 points given for each normal component. In this case, 1 point is given for the appearance due to the bluish extremities, 2 points are given for the pulse which is higher than 100 bpm, 1 point is given for the grimacing, 2 points are given for the activity due to the good muscle tone and 1 point is given for the respiration due to gasping. Total score is 7 points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue has most likely suffered damage to which nerve?
Your Answer: Vagus nerve
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus muscle, which is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). It runs superficial to the hyoglossus muscle. Lesions of the hypoglossal nerve cause deviation of the tongue to the ipsilateral (i.e., damaged) side.Taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is achieved through innervation from the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by innervation from the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). The lingual nerve is located deep and medial to the hyoglossus muscle and is associated with the submandibular ganglion.On the other hand, taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue is accomplished through innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which also provides general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.Taste perception also is performed by both the epiglottis and the epiglottic region of the tongue, which receives taste and general sensation from innervation by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X). Damage to the vagus nerve (CN X) causes contralateral deviation (i.e., away from the injured side) of the uvula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 64
Correct
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The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due to an occlusion in the anterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer: Brocas area
Explanation:Broca’s area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery and thus will be spared when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded.Note:The two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries form an anastomosis known as the Circle of Willis on the inferior surface of the brain. Each half of the circle is formed by:1. Anterior communicating artery2. Anterior cerebral artery3. Internal carotid artery4. Posterior communicating artery5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon and midbrain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A child presents for an endocrinological work-up. The doctors perform blood tests, an X-ray, a pelvic U/S and a brain MRI. Which of the following reasons would result in an advanced bone age?
Your Answer: Constitutional delay of growth
Correct Answer: Androgen excess
Explanation:Androgen excess is one of the most common causes of advanced bone age. It usually occurs in precocious puberty or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: X-linked hypophosphataemic rickets
Correct Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency department with colicky pain. The boy has experienced such episodes of pain in the past, which radiates from his loin to the groin. After clinical examination and investigations, a 7mm stone has been found in his ureter. What is the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Open surgery
Correct Answer: Conservative treatment
Explanation:Renal stones < 5mm generally pass spontaneously with adequate fluid intake. Stones 5mm-10mm with pain not resolving, require medical expulsive therapy with Nifedipine or Tamsulosin. For stones larger than 10mm, ESWL or Ureteroscopy is indicated. For stones as big as 2cm, percutaneous nephrolithotomy should be applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 68
Incorrect
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In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's daughter inheriting the condition?
Your Answer: 50%
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed a mass in right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this girl?
Your Answer: Increased water intake
Correct Answer: Laxatives
Explanation:Laxatives have been shown to be beneficial in the treatment of chronic childhood constipation. Studies have shown that polyethylene glycol, mineral oil, magnesium hydroxide, and lactulose are effective and can be used for a prolonged periods without risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features?
Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Cardiomegaly
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism results from insufficient levels of thyroid hormone in the body since birth, which is either due to dysgenesis of the thyroid gland or dyshormonogenesis. The important features of this disease include coarse facial features (macroglossia, large fontanelles, depressed nasal bridge, hypertelorism, etc.), failure to thrive, cardiomegaly, hypotonia, umbilical hernia, and low core body temperature among many others. Frontal bossing is the usual feature of rickets and acromegaly. Mitral regurgitation is not usually associated with congenital hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?
Your Answer: Fixed splitting of S2
Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 72
Correct
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A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?
Your Answer: Dysphonia
Explanation:Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old female presented with complaints of haematuria and fatigue. She had a history of bloody diarrhoea starting 7 days previously. On investigation, her serum urea and creatinine were raised and proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most suitable diagnosis for her?
Your Answer: Acute renal failure (ARF)
Correct Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:HUS syndrome occurs mostly in children after some days of bloody diarrhoea. Damaged red blood cells also damage the kidney filtering unit and lead to sudden renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of projectile, non-bilious vomiting which takes place after feeding. The baby seems to have a normal appetite but hasn’t gained weight. You suspect pyloric stenosis. What initial test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Correct Answer: Capillary blood gas
Explanation:One of the features of pyloric stenosis is hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. In emergency settings, capillary blood gas is the easiest and fastest way to establish a sustainable suspicion of pyloric stenosis. However, all tests are useful for the diagnosis of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old infant is brought to the hospital with a 3-day history of frequent watery stools and vomiting. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and is refusing to drink in the emergency department.What would be the most appropriate course of action for this child?
Your Answer: For intravenous rehydration (maintenance) + oral fluids as tolerated
Correct Answer: Admit for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube
Explanation:The most appropriate step in this patient would be to admit the patient for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube.Enteral rehydration:Oral rehydration is the most preferred way of rehydrating children. If a child is not tolerating small-frequent-feeds, then nasogastric rehydration is an underused next best step. The fluid can be run through a continuous pump so that it is better tolerated. Note:Intravenous fluids are effective but can have profound effects on the serum electrolyte balance if not monitored closely. Most children will tolerate fluids in an emergency department, but failure to take fluids orally is not an indication for intravenous therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 76
Incorrect
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Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic hormone) primarily acts?
Your Answer: Distal convoluted Tubule
Correct Answer: Collecting ducts
Explanation:ADH primarily acts on the collecting ducts.Other options:- The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the site of renin production.- The proximal tubule conducts isosmotic reabsorption of about 60% of sodium chloride and volume. Most of the glucose, amino acids, potassium and phosphate are absorbed here.- The loop of Henle is the site of 25% of sodium reabsorption. Active Chloride transport provides the basis for the counter current multiplier aiding urinary concentration.- The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water and acts via active sodium chloride absorption to dilute urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile foreskin has been treated with 1% hydrocortisone for 3 months. He presents with a white and thickened foreskin. What would you do next to manage his condition?
Your Answer: Dorsal slit under general anaesthesia
Correct Answer: Circumcision with urethral calibration
Explanation:The boy suffers from balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO) which is surgically treated with circumcision and urethral calibration. In fact, the condition is the only true medical indication for circumcision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 78
Correct
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A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics in the last six years for lower respiratory tract infections. He also has a history of eczema for which he is currently on a topical steroid cream. His full blood count (FBC) report shows:Hb: 13.9 g/dLPlts: 65 x 10^9/LWCC: 12.3 x 10^9/LWhich of the following genes should you expect an abnormality in?
Your Answer: WASP
Explanation:The combination of frequent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopaenia are characteristic of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, which is due to an abnormality in the WASP gene. It is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes primary immunodeficiency owing to a combined B- and T-cell dysfunction.The other listed options are:1. PKD1: polycystic kidney disease2. CFTR: cystic fibrosis3. HFE1: haemochromatosis4. RET: multiple endocrine neoplasia, Hirschsprung’s disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute OM
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Baby Jasmine is 3 months old. At this age she should be exhibiting which of the following hearing and speech milestones?
Your Answer: No longer being startled by sudden noises
Correct Answer: Crying when uncomfortable and annoyed
Explanation:By the age of 3 months Jasmine should startle to loud noises, recognise her parents voices and turn to them when they are speaking, and should quiet down or smile at the sound of a familiar voice when crying. She should also cry when she is uncomfortable or irritated. By the time Jasmine is 9 months old she would begin to understand and respond to the word ‘no’ as well as other easy commands. She would be able vocalise and babble with repetitive sounds, and imitate adults’ playful sounds. She would be much less likely startled by loud noises.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 81
Incorrect
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Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?
Your Answer: Marfanoid habitus
Correct Answer: Carcinoid tumours
Explanation:Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a higher propensity to develop various endocrine and nonendocrine tumours. The primary endocrine tumours that are a part of this disorder include carcinoid tumours and tumours of parathyroid, enteropancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin. Carcinoid tumours encountered in MEN type 1 are mostly of the foregut region. Non-endocrine tumours found in MEN type 1 include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas. The pathogenesis of MEN type 1 is the inactivating mutation of the tumour suppressor gene MEN 1, which encodes the protein menin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a minor fall. He was initially unable to bear weight on his legs but after ibuprofen he can walk and run with a minor limp. X-ray of the leg shows no abnormality. However, ten days later a repeat x-ray is done due to persistent limp and it reveals a spiral fracture. How do you explain this?
Your Answer: Non accidental injury
Correct Answer: Delayed periosteal reaction
Explanation:A periosteal reaction can result from a large number of causes, including injury and chronic irritation due to a medical condition such as hypertrophic osteopathy, bone healing in response to fracture, chronic stress injuries, subperiosteal hematomas, osteomyelitis, and cancer of the bone. This history is consistent with a toddler’s fracture. Here a minor, usually twisting, injury results in a spiral fracture of the tibia. An initial X-ray may appear normal as the periosteum holds the bone together preventing displacement. Ten days later a repeat X-ray will show callous formation and confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 83
Correct
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A 15-month-old child is due for his measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccines. He is feverish due to an acute otitis media and the mother gives a family history of egg allergy. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer: Defer immunization for two weeks
Explanation:Vaccines should not be given to a feverish child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 84
Correct
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A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an episode of infective diarrhoea.Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. HUS is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in children. It predominantly occurs in infants and children after prodromal diarrhoea. In summer epidemics, the disease may be related to infectious causes.Bacterial infections may include the following:S dysenteriaeE ColiSalmonella typhiCampylobacter jejuniYersinia pseudotuberculosisNeisseria meningitidisS pneumoniaLegionella pneumophilaMycoplasma speciesRickettsial infections may include Rocky Mountain spotted fever and microtatobiotesViral infections may include the following:Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)CoxsackievirusEchovirusInfluenza virusEpstein-Barr virusHerpes simplex virusFungal infections can include Aspergillus fumigatus.Vaccinations may include the following:Influenza triple-antigen vaccineTyphoid-paratyphoid A and B (TAB) vaccinePolio vaccinePregnancy-associated HUS occasionally develops as a complication of preeclampsia. Patients may progress to full-blown haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome. Postpartum HUS usually occurs within 3 months of delivery. The prognosis is poor, with a 50-60% mortality rate, and residual renal dysfunction and hypertension occur in most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 85
Correct
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A 6-year-old male was brought to the OPD with complaints of weight loss and fatigue for the last few months. On examination he was pale and had hepatosplenomegaly. A full blood count was ordered and it revealed immature white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:The age of the patient and the presence of immature white blood cells are suggestive of leukaemia. Hodgkin’s disease is unlikely in this age group and it usually presents with lymphadenopathy. In HIV, immature white blood cells are not present in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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The following best describes non parametric tests:
Your Answer: Use most information from the data
Correct Answer: Are less powerful than parametric tests
Explanation:Compared to parametric tests, non parametric tests are seen to be less powerful as they often contend with fewer assumptions, and may use less information from the data. Sample sizes can be smaller. The samples do not have to follow a normal distribution as in parametric tests, and data may be ordinal, ranked or contain outliers that cannot be removed. Therefore nonparametric tests are well suited for these instances and do not need to be used as a last resort. They are not any more complex than parametric tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache and has developed diffuse raised oedematous papules. These lesions are typical of erythema multiforme. Which one of the following is true?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection is rarely a cause in children
Correct Answer: The lesions will heal without scarring
Explanation:Erythema multiforme lesions typically heal without scarring. Other options:- In erythema multiforme, lesions are typically symmetrical and acral, i.e. on the hands, feet and limbs. – HSV is a common cause of erythema multiforme in children, accounting for at least 50% of cases| the lesions typically have damaged skin in the centre and are dusky and bullous (in contrast to urticaria, where the centre of the lesion is normal).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 5 week old baby presents with failure to thrive, falling from the 50th to the 9th percentile on the growth chart for weight. History reveals the baby vomits after each meal. Gestation and delivery were normal without any perinatal or postnatal complications. The baby was healthy at the new-born examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infantile colic
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Pyloric stenosis affects infants, typically in the second to fourth weeks of life and is caused most commonly by hypertrophy and thickening of the pylorus. It usually presents with projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. The infant usually has a normal appetite. Features include: ‘projectile’ vomiting, typically 30 minutes after a feed, constipation and dehydration may also be present and a palpable mass may be present in the upper abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?
Your Answer: Feco-Oral
Correct Answer: Airborne
Explanation:Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire whether to have an interval appendicectomy to prevent the chances of having appendicitis again. What percentage of patients with conservatively managed appendix mass are likely to develop recurrent appendicitis?
Your Answer: 20-40%
Correct Answer: 0-20%
Explanation:The chance of having appendicitis again after appendix mass is around 17% in children. While the traditional teachings by Hamilton Bailey recommend following the conservative Ochsner-Sherren regimen followed by an interval appendicectomy six weeks after the discharge of the patient, there remains a looming controversy whether to perform an interval appendicectomy or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 91
Incorrect
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In women undergoing breast augmentation, what is the percentage reduction with respect to successful breastfeeding?
Your Answer: 20%
Correct Answer: 0.25
Explanation:Breastfeeding may be significantly impaired (up to 25%) by breast augmentation. Equally, breast engorgement, which occurs due to vascular congestion, reduces nipple protrusion and subsequent ability to breastfeed successfully. In the latter, regular feeding or expressing is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 92
Correct
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This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 + (1.5 × height), R = 0.75Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Taller individuals have higher lung functions
Explanation:The equation, lung function = 3.2 + (1.7 x height) is linear, but this does not necessarily mean that the relationship itself is linear. The equation is able to predict that taller individuals are more likely to have greater lung functions. No information is given on whether the coefficients and the R value are statistically significant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 93
Correct
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A normally developed 4-year-old would be expected to do which one of the following?
Your Answer: Copy a cross
Explanation:4-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalEnjoys doing new things Plays “Mom” and “Dad” Is more and more creative with make-believe play Would rather play with other children than by himself Cooperates with other children Often can’t tell what’s real and what’s make-believe Talks about what she likes and what she is interested in Language/CommunicationKnows some basic rules of grammar, such as correctly using “he” and “she” Sings a song or says a poem from memory such as the “Itsy Bitsy Spider” or the “Wheels on the Bus” Tells stories Can say first and last nameCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Names some colours and some numbers Understands the idea of counting Starts to understand time Remembers parts of a story Understands the idea of “same” and “different” Draws a person with 2 to 4 body parts Uses scissors Starts to copy some capital letters Plays board or card games Tells you what he thinks is going to happen next in a book Movement/Physical DevelopmentHops and stands on one foot up to 2 seconds Catches a bounced ball most of the time Pours, cuts with supervision, and mashes own food
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following injection complications are more prevalent?
Your Answer: Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: Lipohypertrophy
Explanation:Lypohypertrophy is the most common skin-related complication of insulin injection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Which of the following is responsible for the closure of the ductus arteriosus at birth?
Your Answer: Increased left atrial pressure
Correct Answer: Reduced level of prostaglandins
Explanation:The ductus arteriosus is normally patent during fetal life| it is an important structure in fetal development as it contributes to the flow of blood to the rest of the fetal organs and structure. From the 6th week of fetal life onwards, the ductus is responsible for most of the right ventricular outflow, and it contributes to 60% of the total cardiac output throughout fetal life. Only about 5-10% of its outflow passes through the lungs.This patency is promoted by continual production of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) by the ductus.In the foetus, the oxygen tension is relatively low, because the pulmonary system is non-functional. Coupled with high levels of circulating prostaglandins, this acts to keep the ductus open. The high levels of prostaglandins result from the little amount of pulmonary circulation and the high levels of production in the placenta.At birth, the placenta is removed, eliminating a major source of prostaglandin production, and the lungs expand, activating the organ in which most prostaglandins are metabolized. In addition, with the onset of normal respiration, oxygen tension in the blood markedly increases. Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases with this activity.Normally, functional closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs by about 15 hours of life in healthy infants born at term. This occurs by abrupt contraction of the muscular wall of the ductus arteriosus, which is associated with increases in the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) coincident with the first breath. A preferential shift of blood flow occurs| the blood moves away from the ductus and directly from the right ventricle into the lungs. Until functional closure is complete and PVR is lower than SVR, some residual left-to-right flow occurs from the aorta through the ductus and into the pulmonary arteriesA balance of factors that cause relaxation and contraction determine the vascular tone of the ductus. Major factors causing relaxation are the high prostaglandin levels, hypoxemia, and nitric oxide production in the ductus. Factors resulting in contraction include decreased prostaglandin levels, increased PO2, increased endothelin-1, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, bradykinin, and decreased PGE receptors. Increased prostaglandin sensitivity, in conjunction with pulmonary immaturity leading to hypoxia, contributes to the increased frequency of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in premature neonates.Although functional closure usually occurs in the first few hours of life, true anatomic closure, in which the ductus loses the ability to reopen, may take several weeks. The second stage of closure related to the fibrous proliferation of the intima is complete in 2-3 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon examination the clinician discovered that the fracture affected the insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle. Which of the following bones was most likely affected?
Your Answer: Proximal phalanx
Correct Answer: Base of the fifth metatarsal
Explanation:The peroneus brevis muscle originates from the lower two-thirds of the lateral body of the fibula and has inserts at the base of the fifth metatarsal. Fractures to this bone are common and can be due to infection, trauma, overuse and repetitive use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 97
Correct
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A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee pain that has been occurring over the past 2 days. The pain is associated with mild fever that started on the 2nd day. The patient is able to walk but with a limp. Examination reveals painful and restricted motion of the right knee. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Explanation:Septic (infectious) arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint space. Contamination occurs either via the bloodstream, iatrogenically, or by local extension (e.g., penetrating trauma). Patients with damaged (e.g., patients with rheumatoid arthritis) or prosthetic joints have an increased risk. Patients usually present with an acutely swollen, painful joint, limited range of motion, and a fever. Suspected infectious arthritis requires prompt arthrocentesis for diagnosis. In addition to the immediate broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy, surgical drainage and debridement may be necessary to prevent cartilage destruction and sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human breast milk?
Your Answer: IgG
Correct Answer: Basophil
Explanation:Human breast milk composition is best suited to meet all the growth and development requirements of a baby. It contains numerous biochemicals ranging from macronutrients, micronutrients, minerals, immunoglobulins, inflammatory markers, and growth factors. The major bioactive factors found in human breast milk are: immunoglobulins (IgA, IgG, and IgM), cells (macrophages and stem cells), growth factors (epidermal growth factor, tumour necrosis factor-alpha, transforming growth factor-beta, and vascular endothelial growth factor), cytokines, chemokines, hormones, metabolic hormones, glycans, and mucins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy fell and hit his head. The parents say that after the fall he cried immediately and then vomited four times. They brought him to the emergency department one hour after the event. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 15 and he has a 6 cm haematoma on the right side of his head. Neurological examination is normal and he has full memory of what happened. What would you do next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observe for 4 hours from the time of injury
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that when a child’s single risk factor is 2 vomits, the child should be observed for 4 hours from the time of the injury, instead of having a CT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 100
Incorrect
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During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer a cube from her left to her right hand. She gains much excitement when placed in a forward or downward parachute position. In contrast to her last visit, she no longer has a rooting, grasp, or startle reflex. Her symmetrical Moro reflex has also disappeared. The infant continuously presents items to her mouth and sucks her fingers. She has a positive Babinski sign but a negative asymmetrical tonic neck reflex.What is the developmental age of the child in question?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8 months
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the developmental age of the child is 8 months.The primitive reflexes are indicators of functional integrity and maturity. The majority of reflexes do not persist beyond 6 months of age. There are 13 reflexes of importance, including:- Moro reflex- Startle reflex- Rooting reflex- Sucking reflex- Grasp reflex- Voluntary palmar grasp reflex- Voluntary reach reflex- Stepping reflex- Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)- Parachute reflex- Plantar reflex- Tendon reflex- ClonusIt is interesting to note that gastrocolic reflex is not a primitive reflex.Ninety-five per cent of reflexes will have disappeared by the ages shown below:- 6 weeks: Stepping- 3-4 months: Palmar grasp and Moro- 6 months: Sucking, rooting, and asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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