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  • Question 1 - A 43-year-old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia,...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia, dry mouth, gritty sensation in her eyes and increased photosensitivity. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, which of the following tests should be performed?

      Your Answer: Labial gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis, especially in patients with negative anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies, labial gland biopsy is done. In performing a labial biopsy, the surgeon typically makes a shallow 1/2 inch wide incision on either side of the inner lip after numbing the area with a local anaesthetic. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test can be done for ocular symptoms of Sjogren syndrome but is of no diagnostic importance as it can be positive with many other diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Choose the correct statement regarding hyponatremia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding hyponatremia:

      Your Answer: In a dehydrated patient with urinary sodium < 20mmol/L it may be due to the diuretic stage of renal failure

      Correct Answer: Hyperlipidaemia may cause pseudohyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      The Hyperlipidaemia Effect: Pseudohyponatremia in Pancreatic Cancer; Patients who have disorders of cholestasis commonly present with volume depletion due to vomiting and poor oral intake, which, in turn, often leads to hypovolemic hyponatremia. It is less well known that disorders of cholestasis, including tumours of the hepatobiliary system, can be accompanied by hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnoea and low exercise...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnoea and low exercise tolerance. He's known to have a history of ischemic heart disease on medication. Which drug most probably caused his presenting complaint?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac Sodium

      Explanation:

      Diclofenac sodium is a non-selective reversible and competitive inhibitor of cyclooxygenase (COX), subsequently blocking the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandin precursors. This leads to an inhibition of the formation of prostaglandins that are involved in pain, inflammation and fever. Clinical trials of several COX-2 selective and non-selective NSAIDs of up to three years duration have shown an increased risk of serious cardiovascular (CV) thrombotic events, including myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke, which can be fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old male complained of the following: nausea, vertigo, vomiting for longer than...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male complained of the following: nausea, vertigo, vomiting for longer than 30 minutes, tinnitus, and hearing loss in his left ear. Which of the following treatment options is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cyclazine (1st line)

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine and prochlorperazine are both used for the treatment of Meniere’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old male has presented with a wrist drop of his right hand....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male has presented with a wrist drop of his right hand. After a medical examination, an area of sensory loss on the dorsum is revealed. Choose the nerve most likely to be affected from the list of options.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve supplies the following: brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, and the extensor muscles of the forearm (which is via the posterior interosseous nerve). The sensory branches supply the following: dorsum of the thumb, dorsum of the fingers up to the PIPJ (proximal interphalangeal joint), and the middle of the ring finger. The loss of muscle power depends on the extent of the nerve damage – the usual posture is a wrist drop, coupled with thumb adduction and hand pronation. Sensation in this male patient is impaired in this area. The thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle, and thus, damage causes winging of the scapula. A median nerve palsy causes the following: the inability to abduct and oppose the thumb; weakness in the forearm, pronation and finger flexion; and sensory loss of the thumb. A T1 nerve root lesion causes Klimke’s palsy – this is a loss of finger flexion, abduction and adduction, and reduced sensation in the medial upper limb. The ulnar nerve is usually compromised at the elbow which causes numbness in the 5th finger, the medial aspect of the ring finger, and the dorsum of the hand (over the 5th finger). A clawed hand can develop (the little and ring fingers curl in towards the palm) if the weakness of the small muscles of the hand is allowed to progress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - From the following drugs, which is an inhaled glucocorticoid that is used for...

    Incorrect

    • From the following drugs, which is an inhaled glucocorticoid that is used for maintenance therapy, but not important in mild asthmatic attacks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluticasone propionate

      Explanation:

      From the given answers Fluticasone propionate is the inhaled glucocorticoid. It is not important as a reliever medication but important in maintenance therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old pregnant female suddenly developed a rash on her torso. It started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant female suddenly developed a rash on her torso. It started as macules and then became vesicles. After 3 days she died. During her post-mortem, positive findings suggestive of pneumonitis were found. Which one of the following is the most common cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus (VZV)

      Explanation:

      Varicella zoster virus (VZV) presents in this way and the rash transforms from macules to vesicles. Pneumonitis is a common complication of VZV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone...

    Incorrect

    • In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man presents with hypertension and decreased serum potassium levels. Which hormone...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with hypertension and decreased serum potassium levels. Which hormone should be tested in addition in order to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      High blood pressure and a low level of potassium in the blood indicates hyperaldosteronism. Therefore, aldosterone should be tested immediately to establish the diagnosis. Hyperaldosteronism, is a medical condition wherein too much aldosterone is produced by the adrenal glands, which can lead to lowered levels of potassium in the blood (hypokalaemia) and increased hydrogen ion excretion (alkalosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and trouble with his hands. It began with a tingling sensation in his soles, which later extended up to his ankles. He now feels unsteady when walking, and more recently, has noticed numbness and tingling in the fingers of both hands.
      On examination, he has absent ankle reflexes, a high steppage gait, and altered sensation to his mid-calves.
      What is the underlying pathological process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axonal degeneration

      Explanation:

      This case presents with sensorimotor neuropathy secondary to his DM. The progression of the neuropathy, known dying-back neuropathy, is a distal axonopathy or axonal degeneration as where the sensorimotor loss begins distally and travels proximally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle weakness. She's noticed that her muscle weakness becomes worse towards the end of the day. Clinical examination reveals fatigable ptosis and proximal limb weakness. Myasthenia gravis is suspected. Which receptor is implicated in the pathophysiology of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an organ-specific autoimmune disease caused by an antibody-mediated assault on the muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction. Binding of antibodies to the AChR leads to loss of functional AChRs and impairs the neuromuscular signal transmission, resulting in muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with central chest pain and associated flushing. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with central chest pain and associated flushing. He claims the pain is crushing in character. ECG reveals T wave inversion in II, III and AVF. Blood exams are as follows: Troponin T = 0.9 ng/ml. Which substance does troponin bind to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      Troponin T is a 37 ku protein that binds to tropomyosin, thereby attaching the troponin complex to the thin filament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is not linked with which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is not linked with which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular tachycardia in the absence of drug therapy

      Explanation:

      Ventricular tachycardia is not linked with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. The other options are linked to WPW syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A young man complains of dyspnoea and tiredness. His blood film shows spherocytes...

    Incorrect

    • A young man complains of dyspnoea and tiredness. His blood film shows spherocytes and 6% reticulocytes. What test would you perform next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coomb's Test

      Explanation:

      A Coomb’s test should be performed to test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Spherocytes and reticulocytes in the blood film are indications for haemolytic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old female hiker begins complaining of headache and nausea after reaching a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female hiker begins complaining of headache and nausea after reaching a height of 5010 metres. Despite having the headache and feeling nauseous, she continues to hike but becomes progressively worse. She is seen staggering, complains of feeling dizzy and has an ataxic gait.

      Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Descent + dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      High Altitude Cerebral Oedema (HACE) is a severe and potentially fatal manifestation of high altitude illness and is often characterized by ataxia, fatigue, and altered mental status. HACE is often thought of as an extreme form/end-stage of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS). Although HACE represents the least common form of altitude illness, it may progress rapidly to coma and death as a result of brain herniation within 24 hours, if not promptly diagnosed and treated.

      HACE generally occurs after 2 days above 4000m but can occur at lower elevations (2500m) and with faster onset. Some, but not all, individuals will suffer from symptoms of AMS such as headache, insomnia, anorexia, nausea prior to transitioning to HACE. Some may also have concomitant High Altitude Pulmonary Oedema (HAPE). HACE in isolation is rare, but the absence of concomitant HAPE or symptoms of AMS prior to deterioration does not rule-out the presence of HACE.

      Most cases develop as a progression of AMS and will include a history of recent ascent to altitude and prior complaints/findings of AMS including a headache, fatigue, nausea, insomnia, and/or light-headedness. Some may also have signs/symptoms of HAPE. Transition to HACE is heralded by signs of encephalopathy including ataxia (usually the earliest clinical finding) and altered mentation which may range from mild to severe. Other symptoms may include a more severe headache, difficulty speaking, lassitude, a decline in the level of consciousness, and/or focal neurological deficits or seizures.

      The mainstay of treatment is the immediate descent of at least 1000m or until symptoms improve. If descent is not an option, one may use a portable hyperbaric chamber and/or supplemental oxygen to temporize illness, but this should never replace or delay evaluation/descent when possible. If available, dexamethasone 8mg for one dose, followed by 4mg every 6 hours should be given to adults via PO, IM, or IV routes.
      Acetazolamide has proven to be beneficial in only a single clinical study. The suggested dosing regimen for Acetazolamide is 250 mg PO, given twice daily. Though effective in alleviating or temporizing symptoms, none of the adjunct treatment modalities are definitive or a replacement for an immediate descent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 22 year-old university graduate presented with progressive unsteadiness during walking over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year-old university graduate presented with progressive unsteadiness during walking over the last year. She had been otherwise healthy apart from recent difficulty hearing her lecturer in classes. She took no prescription medication but had occasionally taken cocaine during her first year of college. She also admits to drinking up to 30 units of alcohol per week and smoked 10 cigarettes per day. Her parents were both well, but her father's sister had problems with walking before she died. Examination reveals normal tone and power throughout all four limbs. Reflexes were normal in the upper limbs but decreased at the knees and absent at the ankles. Coordination was normal in all four limbs but her gait was ataxic. Sensation in the upper limbs was normal but decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception was noted to the ankles bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal recessive disorder that usually begins before the end of the teens. It has an estimated prevalence in Europe of 1 in 50,000 and life expectancy is around 40-50 years. Neurological features include a progressive ataxia, cerebellar dysarthria, lower limb areflexia, decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception, and pyramidal weakness. Pes cavus and scoliosis are also both seen. Cardiomyopathy occurs in over 70% of cases. Less common features include optic atrophic, diabetes mellitus, and deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that has developed gradually over the last 4 days. His symptoms include fever and cough productive of greenish sputum. Past history is notable for COPD for which he was once admitted to the ICU, 2 years back. He now takes nebulizers (ipratropium bromide) at home. The patient previously suffered from myocardial infarction 7 years ago. He also has Diabetes Mellitus type II controlled by lifestyle modification.
      On examination, the following vitals are obtained.
      BP : 159/92 mmHg
      Pulse: 91/min (regular)
      Temp: Febrile
      On auscultation, there are scattered ronchi bilaterally and right sided basal crackles. Cardiovascular and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
      Lab findings are given below:
      pH 7.31
      pa(O2) 7.6 kPa
      pa(CO2) 6.3 kPa
      Bicarbonate 30 mmol/l
      Sodium 136 mmol/l
      Potassium 3.7 mmol/l
      Urea 7.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 111 μmol/l
      Haemoglobin 11.3 g/dl
      Platelets 233 x 109 /l
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 83 fl
      White blood cells (WBC) 15.2 x 109 /l.
      CXR shows an opacity obscuring the right heart border.

      Which of the following interventions should be started immediately while managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers

      Explanation:

      Acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are immediately treated with inhaled beta2 agonists and inhaled anticholinergics, followed by antibiotics (if indicated) and systemic corticosteroids. Methylxanthine therapy may be considered in patients who do not respond to other bronchodilators.
      High flow oxygen would worsen his symptoms. Usually titrated oxygen (88 to 92 %) is given in such patients to avoid the risk of hyperoxic hypercarbia in which increasing oxygen saturation in a chronic carbon dioxide retainer can inadvertently lead to respiratory acidosis and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 22-year-old female presents to the ER with a respiratory infection for which...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female presents to the ER with a respiratory infection for which the physician prescribes her azithromycin. She, however, is currently on combined oral contraceptive pills. Regarding her contraception, what should be advised to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No extra precaution

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is the only antibiotic that has been reported to reduce plasma oestrogen concentrations. When taking Rifampicin, oral contraceptives cannot be relied upon and a second method of contraception is mandatory. Amoxicillin, ampicillin, griseofulvin, metronidazole and tetracycline have been rarely associated with contraceptive failure. When these agents are used, the clinician should discuss the available data with the patient and suggest a second form of birth control. Other antibiotics are most likely safe to use concomitantly with oral contraceptives.
      The danger with COCP is enzyme inducers which can lower the levels of the hormone in he blood, azithromycin is not an enzyme inducer. No additional precautions are required to maintain contraceptive efficacy when using antibiotics that are not enzyme inducers with combined hormonal methods for durations of 3 weeks or less. The only proviso would be that if the antibiotics (and/or the illness) caused vomiting or diarrhoea, then the usual additional precautions relating to these conditions should be observed.

      Inducers: RASAG
      – Rifampicin
      – Anticonvulsants, particularly phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbitone and primidone
      – Spironolactone, St Johns wort
      – Alcohol, long term
      – Griseofulvin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 85-year-old elderly male presents with complaint of worsening breathlessness over the last...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old elderly male presents with complaint of worsening breathlessness over the last 2 years. He has a longstanding history of COPD and currently takes salbutamol, ipratropium, salmeterol, beclomethasone and theophylline. FEV1 comes out to be less than 30%. What will be the most suitable next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assessment for long term O2 therapy

      Explanation:

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the cornerstone mode of treatment in patients with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) associated with resting hypoxaemia. When appropriately prescribed and correctly used, LTOT has clearly been shown to improve survival in hypoxemic COPD patients. Requirements to proceed to LTOT is the patient should be stable and on appropriate optimum therapy (as in given case) and having stopped smoking tobacco. The patient should be shown to have a PaO2 of less than 7.3 kPa and/or a PaCO2 of greater than 6 kPa on two occasions at least 3 weeks apart. FEV1 should be less than 1.5 litres, and there should be a less than 15% improvement in FEV1 after bronchodilators. Patients with a PaO2 between 7.3 and 8 kPa who have polycythaemia, right heart failure or pulmonary hypertension may benefit from LTOT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old male patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, was admitted with confusion....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, was admitted with confusion. On examination he was drowsy and had tremors. Which of the following is the best investigation, which is important for the further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood sugar

      Explanation:

      The presentation is highly suggestive of a hypoglycaemic episode, which is more common amongst older patient with diabetes mellitus. The chance of hypoglycaemia is higher with insulin users. Blood sugar measurement is crucial in the management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old woman, with a long history of inflammatory bowel disease presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman, with a long history of inflammatory bowel disease presents to his GP with abnormal liver function tests. She has a raised alkaline phosphatase level but no symptoms of liver disease.

      Which of the following options is the best set of investigations to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRCP and liver biopsy

      Explanation:

      In a patient with abnormal LFTs and UC, think primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). MRCP and liver biopsy is the best answer. MRCP will show classically beads on a string – intra and extrahepatic stricturing and dilation. Remember this finding!! Liver biopsy is required for official diagnosis (need tissue!).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.

      Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night.

      Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen

      Explanation:

      As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows:


      HBsAg Positive
      HBeAg Positive

      What is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 22-year-old female presents with a history of a whitish discharge from her...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female presents with a history of a whitish discharge from her vagina. She previously underwent a dental procedure and completed a 7 day antibiotic course prior to it. Which of the following microorganisms has most likely lead to this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Candida

      Explanation:

      Candida albicans is the most common cause of candidiasis and appears almost universally in low numbers on healthy skin, in the oropharyngeal cavity, and in the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts. In immunocompetent individuals, C. albicans usually causes minor localized infections, including thrush (affecting the oral cavity), vaginal yeast infections (if there is an underlying pH imbalance), and infections of the intertriginous areas of skin (e.g., the axillae or gluteal folds). More widespread and systemic infections may occur in immunocompromised individuals (e.g., neonates, diabetics, and HIV patients), with the oesophagus most commonly affected (candida esophagitis). Localized cutaneous candidiasis infections may be treated with topical antifungal agents (e.g., clotrimazole). More widespread and systemic infections require systemic therapy with fluconazole or caspofungin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A drunken man has fallen asleep in a position with his arm hanging...

    Incorrect

    • A drunken man has fallen asleep in a position with his arm hanging down. After waking up he complained of wrist drop and sensory loss at the web of the thumb. Which of the following structures is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      This presentation is known as ‘Saturday night palsy’. When someone falls asleep with a arm hanging over the arm rest of a chair, the radial nerve compresses and causes wrist drop and loss of sensation at the web of the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 36-year-old lady presented with increased bowel motions, palpitations, heat intolerance and loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old lady presented with increased bowel motions, palpitations, heat intolerance and loss of weight. She is also tachycardiac. The investigation of choice in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function test

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroidism is characterised by heat intolerance, loss of weight, increased sweating, increased bowel frequency and tachycardia. On GPE, there might be proptosis of eyes and tremors in the hands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 64-year-old woman presents with malaise, ankle swelling and shortness of breath. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman presents with malaise, ankle swelling and shortness of breath. Her blood pressure is 215/140 mmHg, she has +2 peripheral oedema and the skin over her fingers appears very tight. Fundoscopy discloses bilateral papilledema.
       
      Plasma creatinine concentration is 370 μmol/l, potassium is 4.9 mmol/l, haemoglobin is 8.9 g/dl and her platelet count is 90 x 109 /ml.
       
      What is the pathological hallmark of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mucoid intimal thickening of vascular endothelium

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of scleroderma renal crisis, where we would expect thrombotic microangiopathy process with vascular endothelium involvement manifesting as mucoid intimal thickening or onion skin effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old woman who is being treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma with ABVD chemotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is being treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma with ABVD chemotherapy is reviewed on the haematology ward.

      Six days ago, she was admitted with a fever of 38.9°C and was immediately started on piperacillin + tazobactam (Tazocin). Her blood picture on arrival was as follows:

      Haemoglobin: 10.1 g/dL
      Platelets: 311 x 10^9/L
      White cell count: 0.8 x 10^9/L
      Neutrophils: 0.35 x 10^9/L
      Lymphocytes: 0.35 x 10^9/L

      After 48 hours, she remained febrile and tachycardic. Tazocin was stopped and meropenem in combination with vancomycin was prescribed.

      She still remains unwell today with a temperature of 38.4°C, heart rate of 96 bpm, and blood pressure of 102/66 mmHg. Respiratory examination is consistently unremarkable and blood and urine cultures have failed to show any cause for the fever.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amphotericin B

      Explanation:

      This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for neutropenic sepsis, which is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy – usually chemotherapy occurring 7-14 days after. It is defined as a neutrophil count of <0.5 x 10^9/L in a patient undergoing anticancer treatment and who has either a temperature higher than 38°C or has other features consistent with clinically significant sepsis. Management approach is the same as mentioned in this case. However, if the patient still remains unwell, then an antifungal such as amphotericin B is started after risk-stratifying the patient and carrying out investigations (e.g. HRCT and Aspergillus PCR) to determine the likelihood of systemic fungal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin 10mg was found to have persistently high cholesterol levels. Previous attempts to increase the dose of simvastatin have resulted in myalgia. Given this history, which one of the following lipid-regulating drugs should definitely be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bezafibrate

      Explanation:

      Both fibrates and nicotinic acid have been associated with myositis, especially when combined with a statin. However, the Committee on Safety of Medicines has produced guidance which specifically warns about the concomitant prescription of fibrates with statins concerning muscle toxicity.

      Bezafibrate: It is a fibric acid derivative (fibrate) that has been used as a class of agents known to decrease triglyceride levels while substantially increasing HDL-C levels.
      Pharmacological effects:
      – Increases VLDL catabolism by increasing lipoprotein and hepatic triglyceride lipase.
      – Decreases triglyceride synthesis by inhibiting acetyl-CoA reductase.
      – Decreases cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.

      Side effects:
      – Hypersensitivity
      – Primary biliary cirrhosis
      – Pre-existing gallbladder disease
      – Concurrent use with HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) can produce myopathy
      – Hepatic/renal impairment in a patient warrants dose adjustment as this drug is primarily excreted via the renal mechanism.

      Contraindications: Concurrent use of MAO inhibitors, hypersensitivity, pre-existing cholestasis, and pregnancy.

      Use: It can be used to treat Barth syndrome (characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia (presenting with recurrent infections), skeletal myopathy and short stature)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal System (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular System (0/1) 0%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/1) 100%
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