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Question 1
Incorrect
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Who is responsible for creating the term 'antidepressant'?
Your Answer: Kline
Correct Answer: Lurie
Explanation:A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is an uncommon side-effect of valproate?
Your Answer: Microcytic anaemia
Explanation:Macrocytic anaemia is the type that is commonly associated with valproate.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What drug acts as an alpha 2 antagonist?
Your Answer: Reboxetine
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:The pharmacodynamics of Mirtazapine are complex and have received conflicting feedback. However, according to the manufacturer’s leaflet and preclinical studies, Mirtazapine is a potent antagonist of 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors, with no significant affinity for the 5-HT1A and 5-HT1B receptors. It is also a potent antagonist of histamine (H1) receptors, which may explain its sedative effects, and a moderate peripheral a1 adrenergic antagonist, which may cause occasional orthostatic hypotension. Additionally, it is a moderate antagonist at muscarinic receptors, which may explain the low incidence of anticholinergic side effects. Although not stated by the manufacturer, there is considerable evidence that Mirtazapine is also an alpha 2 antagonist, which was likely discovered after the preclinical studies.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What category of adverse drug reaction does insomnia and anxiety resulting from benzodiazepine withdrawal fall under?
Your Answer: Type A
Correct Answer: Type E
Explanation:The MHRA categorizes adverse drug reactions into five types. Type A reactions occur when a drug’s normal pharmacological actions are exaggerated at the usual therapeutic dose, and are typically dose-dependent. Type B reactions are unexpected responses that do not align with the drug’s known pharmacological actions. Type C reactions persist for an extended period of time, while Type D reactions become apparent after some time has passed since the medication was used. Finally, Type E reactions are linked to the discontinuation of a medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which antibiotic may have anti-inflammatory and neuroprotective effects and could be used in combination with clozapine to treat schizophrenia that is resistant to other treatments?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Minocycline
Explanation:There is evidence to suggest that minocycline has anti-inflammatory and neuroprotective properties. Additionally, both an open study and a randomized controlled trial indicate that it may have positive effects on cognitive and negative symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the method used by bodybuilders to alleviate the negative effects of misusing anabolic steroids?
Your Answer: Clenbuterol
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications
Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.
There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.
Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.
Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with mild to moderate Alzheimer's dementia and her doctor recommends starting her on donepezil. What is the mechanism of action of donepezil?
Your Answer: N-methyl-d aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonism
Correct Answer: Selective inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
Explanation:Donepezil is a medication that selectively inhibits acetylcholinesterase (AChE) without affecting butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE). It is a long-acting, reversible inhibitor that is commonly used to treat dementia. Other drugs used to treat dementia include Rivastigmine, Galantamine, and Memantine. These medications work by either preventing the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain of by blocking the chemical messenger glutamate, which can cause further damage to brain cells. By increasing communication between nerve cells of reducing damage, these medications can temporarily improve of stabilize the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the truth about polyuria and polydipsia caused by lithium?
Your Answer: Polydipsia results from the direct action of lithium on the hypothalamus
Correct Answer: It is improved by once daily versus twice daily dosing of lithium
Explanation:Daily administration results in increased maximum concentration but more importantly decreased minimum concentration, which is believed to facilitate renal restoration.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42 year old man with depression and reduced sexual desire has been referred to our clinic. Following a thorough discussion of his symptoms, he has agreed to a trial of antidepressants. However, he is concerned about potential side effects and specifically requests a medication that is less likely to exacerbate his sexual dysfunction. What antidepressant would you recommend in this case?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:To ensure adherence, it is crucial to prescribe medication based on the individual’s needs to prevent sexual issues. Among the options provided, mirtazapine has the least occurrence of sexual dysfunction.
Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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An older adult on haloperidol for a psychotic disorder has an extended QTc interval on a routine ECG. What antipsychotic medication is thought to have the least impact on the QTc interval and could be a viable substitute?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the beverage with the highest caffeine content per serving size?
Your Answer: Red Bull
Correct Answer: Brewed coffee
Explanation:The caffeine content in brewed coffee is relatively high, with approximately 100 mg per cup. In comparison, tea has a lower caffeine content. Black tea has around 45 mg per cup, while green tea has approximately 25 mg per cup. Instant coffee contains about 60 mg per cup, and a can of Red Bull contains 80 mg of caffeine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the mechanism of action of memantine?
Your Answer: NMDA antagonist
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the enzyme that shows increased levels in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Your Answer: CPK
Explanation:Elevated levels of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) are observed in NMS.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the primary metabolic pathway for benzodiazepines?
Your Answer: CYP3A4
Explanation:CYP3A4 is responsible for metabolizing the majority of benzodiazepines in the liver.
Benzodiazepines: Effective but Addictive
Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used to treat anxiety. They are divided into two categories: hypnotics, which have a short half-life, and anxiolytics, which have a long half-life. While they can be effective in reducing anxiety symptoms, they are also highly addictive and should not be prescribed for more than one month at a time.
Benzodiazepines are particularly effective as hypnotics, but they do have some negative effects on sleep. They suppress REM sleep, and when they are discontinued, a rebound effect is often seen. This means that people may experience more vivid dreams and nightmares when they stop taking the medication. It is important for doctors to carefully monitor patients who are taking benzodiazepines to ensure that they are not becoming addicted and that they are not experiencing any negative side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the options experiences the lowest level of metabolism in the liver?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Gabapentin
Explanation:Gabapentin, lithium, and topiramate require minimal of no hepatic metabolism, allowing them to be excreted without undergoing significant liver alteration.
Drug Clearance: Understanding the Rate of Drug Removal from the Body
Drug clearance refers to the efficiency of drug removal from the plasma, and is measured as the volume of plasma cleared of a drug over a specific time period. The unit of measurement for drug clearance is volume per time. Clearance of a drug involves both metabolism and excretion. When drug intake equals clearance, it is referred to as a steady state, which is usually achieved by 4.5 half-lives. The time taken to reach steady state depends on the half-life of the drug.
There are two main types of clearance: hepatic and renal. Hepatic clearance involves the conversion of the parent drug into a different chemical entity by the liver enzymes, while renal clearance involves the removal of the drug from the plasma into the urine. The clearance of a drug can take one of two forms: zero and first-order kinetics. In zero-order reactions, the clearance of a drug is constant and not related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. This type of reaction is typically found when the material needed for the reaction to proceed (e.g. enzyme) is saturated. Ethanol and Phenytoin are good examples of this.
Most drugs tend to follow first-order reactions, where the clearance is related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall by half. In first-order reactions, this is constant. In zero-order reactions, it gets progressively shorter.
It is important to note that elimination and clearance are not the same. Elimination is the irreversible removal of the drug from the body, while clearance is a theoretical volume of blood that is cleared of the drug per unit of time, which is independent of the drug dose of concentration. Understanding drug clearance is crucial in determining the appropriate dosing regimen for a drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the accurate statement about the dispensation of medication in older adults?
Your Answer: As people age, the half-life of a lipid soluble drug increases
Explanation:Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.
In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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What is a frequently observed negative outcome of taking rivastigmine?
Your Answer: Dizziness
Explanation:Rivastigmine often causes dizziness, while the other listed side effects are less frequently reported.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What substance acts on the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system to produce its effects?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: Pregabalin
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following is most likely to cause dysgeusia?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Taste disturbance is known as Dysgeusia in medical terminology and can be caused by various medications. Lithium is a frequently encountered culprit, but other drugs such as certain antidepressants, benzodiazepines, z-drugs, and opiates can also lead to this condition. Additionally, any medication that causes dry mouth may result in taste disturbance. This information is sourced from D Kaufman’s book, Clinical neurology for psychiatrists, published in 2007 on page 38.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which antidepressant would be the best option for a patient who has been diagnosed with depression and has also experienced a heart attack in the recent past?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Antidepressant Medications and Ischaemic Heart Disease
The SADHART investigation has shown that sertraline is a safe and effective antidepressant for patients with ischaemic heart disease. However, other medications have not yet been proven safe for this population.
Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is not recommended for patients with comorbid coronary heart disease due to its high relative risk of myocardial infarction and direct cardiac effects. It may also induce weight gain and increase the risk of diabetes, both of which are known risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
Mirtazapine has been studied as a safe second line/alternative treatment to SSRIs in post MI depression, but it can also cause weight gain. Further research is needed to determine the safety and efficacy of other antidepressant medications in patients with ischaemic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known adverse effect of valproate?
Your Answer: Hair loss
Correct Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Valproate can cause weight gain, which is particularly concerning when it is combined with other medications like clozapine.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What investigation would be suitable for a patient who is taking antipsychotics and experiencing symptoms of weight loss and thirst?
Your Answer: Liver function test
Correct Answer: Fasting glucose
Explanation:Blurred vision, recurrent infections (especially of the skin), lethargy, and polyuria are other possible symptoms that may indicate the development of diabetes, with type II diabetes typically presenting milder symptoms.
Antipsychotic Medication and Diabetes Risk
Individuals with schizophrenia are already at a higher risk for developing diabetes. However, taking antipsychotic medication can further increase this risk. Among the various antipsychotics, clozapine and olanzapine are associated with the highest risk. To mitigate this risk, the Maudsley recommends using amisulpride, aripiprazole, of ziprasidone for patients with a history of predisposition for diabetes. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of antipsychotic medication when treating patients with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most probable outcome of muscarinic receptor antagonism?
Your Answer: Increased frequency of urination
Correct Answer: Memory impairment
Explanation:The sole anticholinergic side effect is memory impairment, while the remaining choices are instances of cholinergic side effects.
Receptors and Side-Effects
Histamine H1 Blockade:
– Weight gain
– SedationAlpha 1 Blockade:
– Orthostatic hypotension
– Sedation
– Sexual dysfunction
– PriapismMuscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
– Agitation
– Delirium
– Memory impairment
– Confusion
– SeizuresMuscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
– Dry mouth
– Ataxia
– Blurred vision
– Narrow angle glaucoma
– Constipation
– Urinary retention
– TachycardiaEach receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What product is licensed to assist individuals in quitting smoking?
Your Answer: Buprenorphine
Correct Answer: Varenicline
Explanation:Varenicline is a medication that helps people quit smoking by partially activating specific nicotine receptors in the body.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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When treating a 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia who has a history of epilepsy, which antipsychotic medication should be avoided due to its potential to induce seizures?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Antipsychotic medications have been associated with an increased risk of seizures, with second generation antipsychotics (SGAs) being more likely to cause seizures than first generation antipsychotics (FGAs). Among SGAs, clozapine has the highest risk of inducing seizures, while olanzapine and quetiapine also carry a relatively high risk. On the other hand, risperidone, haloperidol, and aripiprazole are considered to be relatively low risk in terms of inducing seizures. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risks and monitor patients accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female with a history of seizures is prescribed an anticonvulsant but experiences pain in her left flank after 10 months. An ultrasound reveals the presence of a kidney stone.
Which anticonvulsant is the most probable cause of this adverse effect?Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Long-term use of topiramate for approximately one year can result in systemic metabolic acidosis due to the inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, leading to distal tubular acidification and impaired acid excretion by the kidneys. Additionally, topiramate use can elevate urine pH and decreased urine citrate, which is a crucial inhibitor of kidney stone formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is linked to losing weight?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Topiramate is a medication used for epilepsy and bipolar affective disorder. It works by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels and increasing GABA levels. Unlike most psychotropic drugs, it is associated with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man undergoing treatment for generalised tonic clonic epilepsy, exhibits symptoms of hepatic failure shortly after commencing medication. Which medication is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Valproate is an anticonvulsant drug that is used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. However, it can cause several side effects that patients should be aware of. Some of the common side effects of valproate include weight gain, nausea, vomiting, and hair loss. Patients may also experience easy bruising, tremors, and hepatic failure. In rare cases, valproate can cause pancreatitis, which is a serious inflammation of the pancreas. Patients should talk to their doctor if they experience any of these side effects while taking valproate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
-
What is the target of disulfiram that results in its unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed?
Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase
Correct Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Explanation:Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase is irreversibly bound by disulfiram.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which CYP450 enzyme is produced by the 2D6 gene?
Your Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Correct Answer: Debrisoquine hydroxylase
Explanation:Debrisoquine hydroxylase is responsible for the metabolism of several antidepressants such as tricyclics, SSRIs, venlafaxine, and others. Poor metabolisers may experience more side effects from these medications, while ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher doses.
The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 31
Correct
-
A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea and muscular weakness. He appears restless and mentions that he has recently been prescribed 'water pills'. His medical history reveals previous hospital visits for manic episodes. During the physical examination, you observe hypertonia. What is your suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lithium toxicity
Explanation:The term ‘water pills / tablets’ is sometimes used by patients to describe diuretics. When taking thiazide diuretics, there is a risk of elevated lithium levels, which can lead to symptoms indicative of lithium toxicity.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 32
Incorrect
-
What is the most frequent adverse effect of atomoxetine?
Your Answer: Agitation
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 33
Correct
-
A 45-year-old woman taking medication for her depression experiences dry mouth and blurred vision. Which psychotropic medication is most likely causing these side effects?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, urinary retention, and dry skin, are commonly associated with Amitriptyline and other tricyclic antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 34
Correct
-
The most probable diagnosis for a diabetic patient who has started taking antidepressants and presents with symptoms of nausea, headaches, and low plasma sodium levels is:
Your Answer: SIADH
Explanation:Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of delirium?
Your Answer: Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:The available evidence is of poor quality and does not support an increased risk of delirium associated with digoxin.
Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences
Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.
Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.
According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).
Medications Linked to Mood Changes
The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:
– Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
– Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
– Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
– Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
– Antidepressants can precipitate mania.Medications Linked to Psychosis
The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:
– Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
– CorticosteroidsMedications Linked to Anxiety
The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:
– Stimulants
– β adrenergic inhalers -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
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Question 36
Correct
-
What investigation results would indicate a diagnosis of SIADH?
Your Answer: Increased urine sodium
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is a condition where the serum sodium level in a patient falls below 135 mmol/L, with severe hyponatraemia being defined as a level below 120 mmol/L. The causes of hyponatraemia can be classified based on the patient’s fluid status, which can be hypovolaemic, euvolemic, of hypervolaemic. Hypovolaemic hyponatraemia occurs when there is a reduction in extracellular fluid volume and serum sodium levels, often due to gastrointestinal losses. Euvolemic hyponatraemia is the most common type and occurs when the extracellular fluid volume is normal. This type can be caused by conditions such as SIADH, hypothyroidism, primary polydipsia, and medications. Hypervolaemic hyponatraemia is associated with increased extracellular volume and occurs when fluid retention is greater than sodium retention, often due to cardiac and renal failures of liver cirrhosis.
Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Aripiprazole exhibits partial agonism at D2 receptors and acts as an agonist at 5HT1A receptors while antagonizing 5HT2A receptors.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 38
Incorrect
-
Which of the following symptoms is uncommon during the discontinuation of SSRIs?
Your Answer: Crying spells
Correct Answer: Palpitations
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
Among the given medications, which one is the most probable cause of delirium?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Pethidine
Explanation:Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences
Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.
Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.
According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).
Medications Linked to Mood Changes
The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:
– Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
– Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
– Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
– Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
– Antidepressants can precipitate mania.Medications Linked to Psychosis
The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:
– Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
– CorticosteroidsMedications Linked to Anxiety
The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:
– Stimulants
– β adrenergic inhalers -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
For which specific symptom would you recommend a patient to begin taking buspirone?
Your Answer: Side effects include sedation
Correct Answer: Can cause dry mouth
Explanation:Buspirone is a type of anti-anxiety medication that belongs to the azapirone (azaspirodecanedione) class of drugs. It is used to treat the same conditions as benzodiazepines. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone is a partial agonist of the serotonin 5HT1A receptor and does not cause sedation, physical dependence, of psychomotor impairment. However, it may cause side effects such as dizziness, headache, excitement, and nausea. Other less common side effects include dry mouth, tachycardia/palpitations/chest pain, drowsiness/confusion, seizures, fatigue, and sweating. Buspirone is not recommended for individuals with epilepsy, severe hepatic impairment, moderate to severe renal impairment, during pregnancy, of while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of lithium toxicity?
Your Answer: Fever
Correct Answer: Hepatic impairment
Explanation:Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
What is a frequently observed side-effect of lisdexamfetamine?
Your Answer: Agitation
Correct Answer: Decreased appetite
Explanation:ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
Select the atypical antipsychotic with the shortest half-life.
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Due to its short half-life of 6 hours, quetiapine is administered twice daily in divided doses. However, a modified release version called Seroquel XL is available, which can be taken once daily.
Antipsychotic Half-life and Time to Steady State
Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Understanding the half-life and time to steady state of these medications is important for determining dosing and monitoring their effectiveness.
Aripiprazole has a half-life of 75 hours and takes approximately 2 weeks to reach steady state. Olanzapine has a half-life of 30 hours and takes about 1 week to reach steady state. Risperidone has a half-life of 20 hours when taken orally and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Clozapine and Amisulpride both have a half-life of 12 hours and take 2-3 days to reach steady state. Ziprasidone has a shorter half-life of 7 hours and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Quetiapine has the shortest half-life of 6 hours and also takes 2-3 days to reach steady state.
Knowing the half-life and time to steady state of antipsychotic medications can help healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosing and frequency of administration. It can also aid in monitoring the effectiveness of the medication and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman with mild anxiety was prescribed an antidepressant but experienced sexual side effects. Her doctor suggested switching to a medication that is a serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). What is an example of an SNRI?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Milnacipran
Explanation:SNRIs are a type of antidepressant medication that work by blocking the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, providing two mechanisms to help with the antidepressant effect. They are particularly effective at inhibiting the norepinephrine transporter compared to the serotonin transporter. Examples of SNRIs include Venlafaxine, Desvenlafaxine, Duloxetine, and Milnacipran. Bupropion is a different type of antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine (NDRI). Escitalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), while Mirtazapine is a noradrenergic and specific serotonin antidepressant (NaSSA). Nefazodone is a serotonin antagonist/reuptake inhibitor (SARI).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
What statement accurately describes the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale?
Your Answer: It should not be used where a person lacks access to a sexual partner (e.g. institutional settings)
Correct Answer: It can be used in both males and females
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management
Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
When discussing the advantages and disadvantages of donepezil with a patient during a regular clinic visit, what would you inform him is the most prevalent adverse effect of the medication?
Your Answer: Syncope
Correct Answer: Nausea
Explanation:Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
What factors can cause an increase in the levels of lamotrigine?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Correct Answer: Valproate
Explanation:This question is quite challenging, and it’s understandable if you didn’t get the answer right. Even healthcare professionals like consultants and pharmacists may struggle with this. However, for the record, the levels of lamotrigine can be increased by sertraline and valproate.
Lamotrigine: An Anticonvulsant Drug for Epilepsy, Bipolar Disorder, and Depression
Lamotrigine is a medication that belongs to the class of anticonvulsants. It is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, bipolar disorder, and depression. Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, while bipolar disorder is a mental illness that causes extreme mood swings. Depression, on the other hand, is a mood disorder that affects a person’s thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
Lamotrigine works by stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain, which helps to prevent seizures and mood swings. It is often used as a first-line treatment for epilepsy and is effective in reducing the frequency and severity of seizures. In bipolar disorder, lamotrigine is used to prevent episodes of mania and depression. It can also be used as an add-on therapy for depression, particularly in cases where other antidepressants have not been effective.
Overall, lamotrigine is a versatile medication that can be used to treat a range of neurological and psychiatric conditions. It is generally well-tolerated and has few side effects, making it a popular choice for many patients. However, as with all medications, it is important to discuss the risks and benefits with your healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about depot antipsychotics?
Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a contraindication for subsequent depot use
Correct Answer: The risk of tardive dyskinesia is equal for depot and oral formulation of same drug
Explanation:Contrary to popular belief, the risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is not higher with depot antipsychotics compared to oral drugs. Additionally, there is no evidence to suggest that a prior history of NMS should prevent the use of depot antipsychotics. While caution may be warranted, a history of NMS is not a complete contraindication for depot antipsychotic use. These findings were reported by Patel in a 2005 article titled Why aren’t depot antipsychotics prescribed more often and what can be done about it? published in Advances in Psychiatric Treatment.
, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 49
Correct
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A patient in her 60s with psoriasis has observed that her condition has deteriorated since commencing a new medication. What factor would you suspect to be the most likely cause of exacerbating her psoriasis?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Medications that can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms include:
– Lithium
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
– Beta blockers
– Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitorsLithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A woman with schizophrenia, successfully treated with olanzapine, is seen in the outpatient clinic. She has put on a significant amount of weight since starting medication and now has a BMI of 40. She has consistently failed to lose weight through diet and exercise. Augmentation with which of the following would be an appropriate intervention to help reduce her weight?
Your Answer: Amisulpride
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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What percentage of Caucasians have a deficiency in the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6?
Your Answer: 52%
Correct Answer: 6%
Explanation:Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.
The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 52
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six months ago, but stopped taking it five days ago due to perceived lack of efficacy. He has a history of asthma but no other significant medical history. Over the past two days, he has been experiencing heightened anxiety, sweating, headaches, and a sensation of needles in his head. During the appointment, he appears restless and paces around the room. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor discontinuation syndrome
Explanation:It is important to be aware of the higher likelihood of experiencing discontinuation symptoms with paroxetine compared to other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors during exams.
Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 53
Correct
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Which receptor antagonism is most likely to result in Priapism?
Your Answer: Alpha 1
Explanation:Priapism is a rare condition where the penis remains erect for more than four hours without any stimulation, and it can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic and antidepressant medications.
Receptors and Side-Effects
Histamine H1 Blockade:
– Weight gain
– SedationAlpha 1 Blockade:
– Orthostatic hypotension
– Sedation
– Sexual dysfunction
– PriapismMuscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
– Agitation
– Delirium
– Memory impairment
– Confusion
– SeizuresMuscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
– Dry mouth
– Ataxia
– Blurred vision
– Narrow angle glaucoma
– Constipation
– Urinary retention
– TachycardiaEach receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 54
Correct
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Which diuretic can be used safely in combination with lithium?
Your Answer: Amiloride
Explanation:Loop diuretics and potassium sparing diuretics have been found to have no significant impact on lithium levels, unlike other diuretics. While acetazolamide can decrease lithium levels by increasing excretion, loop diuretics may initially increase excretion followed by a rebound phase of enhanced reabsorption, resulting in no significant effect on lithium levels over a 24-hour period.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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What is the suggested way in which St John's Wort works?
Your Answer: SSRI
Correct Answer: SNRI and MAOI
Explanation:Antidepressants: Mechanism of Action
Antidepressants are a class of drugs used to treat depression and other mood disorders. The mechanism of action of antidepressants varies depending on the specific drug. Here are some examples:
Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant (NaSSa). It works by blocking certain receptors in the brain, including 5HT-1, 5HT-2, 5HT-3, and H1 receptors. It also acts as a presynaptic alpha 2 antagonist, which stimulates the release of noradrenaline and serotonin.
Venlafaxine and duloxetine are both serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They work by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.
Reboxetine is a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of noradrenaline, which increases its availability in the brain.
Bupropion is a noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.
Trazodone is a weak serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI) and 5HT agonist. It works by increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain.
St John’s Wort is a natural supplement that has been used to treat depression. It has a weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) effect and a weak SNRI effect.
In summary, antidepressants work by increasing the availability of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, such as serotonin, noradrenaline, and dopamine. The specific mechanism of action varies depending on the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A young adult who has just begun taking olanzapine reports experiencing dizziness, euphoria, and blurred vision upon sudden standing. What would be the most suitable replacement medication?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Correct Answer: Amisulpride
Explanation:The patient’s reported symptoms are indicative of postural hypotension, which is likely a side effect of the olanzapine medication they were given.
Maudsley Guidelines: Antipsychotics for Postural Hypotension
When postural hypotension is a concern, it may be necessary to switch to an antipsychotic that is less likely to cause this side effect. The following antipsychotics are recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines:
– Amisulpride
– Aripiprazole
– Haloperidol
– Sulpiride
– TrifluoperazineThese medications have a lower risk of causing postural hypotension compared to other antipsychotics such as risperidone, clozapine, olanzapine, paliperidone, quetiapine, and ziprasidone. It is important to discuss any concerns about side effects with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the cytochrome P450 system?
Your Answer: CYP2D6 is not involved in metabolism of clozapine
Correct Answer: CYP2D6 shows the largest phenotypic variation amongst the cytochromes
Explanation:The liver plays a significant role in breaking down clozapine through the action of CYP450 enzymes, with CYP1A2, CYP3A4, and CYP2D6 being particularly involved in the process.
The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 58
Correct
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A female client at your clinic has mentioned that she is using various herbal and dietary supplements to manage her depression. Which of these supplements is most likely to interact with her SSRI antidepressant medication?
Your Answer: St John's wort
Explanation:Omega 3 fatty acids, which are found in high amounts in oily fish, have been shown in some studies to improve depressive symptoms and can be safely combined with SSRIs. However, St John’s wort, which inhibits serotonin reuptake at nerve terminals, should not be taken with drugs that have a predominantly serotonergic action. Brewer’s yeast may cause a tyramine reaction with an MAOI, while evening primrose oil and ginkgo biloba have no interaction with SSRIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 59
Correct
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For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed?
Your Answer: Narcolepsy
Explanation:Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement
Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine?
Your Answer: Blocks dopamine reuptake pump
Correct Answer: Blocks 5HT2A, 5HT2C and 5HT3 serotonin receptors
Explanation:Duloxetine boosts serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine levels by functioning as a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). On the other hand, Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and specific serotonergic agent (NaSSA) that acts as an alpha 2 antagonist, increasing serotonin and norepinephrine levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 61
Correct
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What is believed to be an effective method for treating ADHD by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline?
Your Answer: Atomoxetine
Explanation:ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 62
Correct
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Which SSRI medications have a higher likelihood of causing QTc interval prolongation?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:While the majority of SSRIs are believed to have minimal impact on the QTc interval, studies have demonstrated that citalopram and escitalopram can lead to QTc prolongation.
Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects
SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.
Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the post-injection syndrome linked with olanzapine embonate?
Your Answer: The risk is reduced if the depot is administered into the deltoid rather than the gluteal muscle
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Although the occurrence of the post-injection syndrome is rare, patients must still be observed for three hours after receiving the depot injection.
, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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What is the duration required for olanzapine to achieve a stable state?
Your Answer: 4 days
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 65
Correct
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What is the most effective way to address sexual dysfunction in a male patient who is taking sertraline and wishes to continue its use due to positive response to the medication?
Your Answer: Sildenafil
Explanation:The medication with the strongest evidence is sildenafil.
Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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Antagonism of which receptor is most likely to cause orthostatic hypotension?
Your Answer: H1
Correct Answer: Alpha 1
Explanation:Blocking H1 receptors, which respond to histamine, can lead to sedation and weight gain. Cimetidine, an H2 antagonist, is commonly prescribed for peptic ulcer disease. Ondansetron, which blocks the 5HT3 receptor, is effective in reducing nausea.
Receptors and Side-Effects
Histamine H1 Blockade:
– Weight gain
– SedationAlpha 1 Blockade:
– Orthostatic hypotension
– Sedation
– Sexual dysfunction
– PriapismMuscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
– Agitation
– Delirium
– Memory impairment
– Confusion
– SeizuresMuscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
– Dry mouth
– Ataxia
– Blurred vision
– Narrow angle glaucoma
– Constipation
– Urinary retention
– TachycardiaEach receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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An important function of hepatic metabolism is to make a drug:
Your Answer: More lipid soluble
Correct Answer: More water soluble
Explanation:Understanding Biotransformation: A Metabolic Process for Excretion
Biotransformation is a metabolic process that occurs primarily in the liver, but also in other organs such as the kidneys, intestine, adipose, skin, and lungs. Its main function is to facilitate the excretion of both exogenous and endogenous substances by altering their chemical structures through a series of reactions. Enzymes found in the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria of cells catalyze these reactions, which can cause the substrate to become inactive, active, of even toxic.
Biotransformation is divided into three phases. Phase I reactions involve oxidation, reduction, of hydrolysis of the drug, yielding a polar, water-soluble metabolite that is often still active. Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic groups to the original molecule, a toxic intermediate, of a nontoxic metabolite formed in phase I, to increase its polarity. The most common method is conjugation with glucuronic acid, but other groups such as sulphate, amino acids, acetate, and methyl can also be added. Phase III reactions occur post-phase II, where a chemical substance can undergo further metabolism and excretion through active transport into the urinary of hepatobiliary system.
Understanding biotransformation is crucial in pharmacology and toxicology, as it affects the efficacy and toxicity of drugs and other substances. By facilitating the excretion of these substances, biotransformation helps maintain homeostasis in the body and prevent accumulation of potentially harmful compounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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What is a possible approach to enhance treatment for a patient with hyperprolactinaemia caused by risperidone?
Your Answer: Amisulpride
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:In certain cases, the addition of 5-10 mg of aripiprazole has demonstrated the ability to restore hyperprolactinaemia to normal levels.
Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management
Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 69
Correct
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Which symptom of serotonin syndrome poses the highest risk for causing a life-threatening situation?
Your Answer: Muscle rigidity
Explanation:While myoclonus can be scary for patients, it is typically not a danger to their lives. On the other hand, the muscle stiffness that occurs in serotonin syndrome is extremely severe and can result in the failure of multiple organs (Ahuja 2009).
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 70
Correct
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Which option is not employed for managing extrapyramidal side effects?
Your Answer: Dopamine antagonists
Explanation:EPSE’s occur as a result of the inhibition of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. The administration of a dopamine antagonist would exacerbate EPSE’s. Antipsychotics function as dopamine antagonists.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an inducer of the Cytochrome P450 system?
Your Answer: Smoking
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Cytochrome P450 is an important enzyme system involved in drug metabolism. Certain substances can either increase or decrease the activity of this system. Smoking, alcohol, barbiturates, carbamazepine, Phenytoin, and St John’s Wort are known to induce the activity of cytochrome P450. On the other hand, chlorpromazine, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), and grapefruit juice are known to inhibit the activity of cytochrome P450.
The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 72
Correct
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What is the primary mechanism by which valproate stabilizes mood?
Your Answer: GABA agonism
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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What is the characteristic of drugs that are hydrophilic?
Your Answer: They are subject to tubular reabsorption
Correct Answer: They pass poorly through cell membranes
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 74
Correct
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What was the amount of drug X ingested by a patient who has overdosed, given that the drug has a volume of distribution of 4L and their blood concentration of X is 10 mg/L, assuming 100% bioavailability via the route of administration?
Your Answer: 40mg
Explanation:Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology
The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.
The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.
The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of anxiety and you believe that an anxiolytic medication may be helpful. What is a true statement about medications used to treat anxiety?
Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the amount of noradrenaline and 5HT released from nerve terminals
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine causes few anticholinergic side effects
Explanation:Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) increase levels of noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine by inhibiting one of both of the monoamine oxidase enzymes, MAO-A and MAO-B. This is different from selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclics, which primarily affect serotonin levels. Tricyclics have anticholinergic and noradrenergic side effects, while SSRIs cause fewer anticholinergic effects but may lead to gastrointestinal problems, agitation, insomnia, and headaches. MAOIs have their own set of potential side effects, including interactions with certain foods and medications, as well as possible hypertensive crises.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic is least likely to result in orthostatic hypotension?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Asenapine
Explanation:According to the 13th edition of Maudsley, asenapine and lurasidone are associated with the lowest risk.
Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects
Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.
Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.
Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.
Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.
Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Pimozide + + – + + + +++
Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 77
Correct
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A 35-year-old female presents with secondary amenorrhea and is currently taking medication for bipolar disorder. What is the initial diagnostic test that should be performed?
Your Answer: Pregnancy test
Explanation:While antipsychotics can cause secondary amenorrhoea by increasing prolactin levels, it is important to first rule out pregnancy as it is the most common cause of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the medications utilized for opioid dependence?
Your Answer: Methadone mainly targets delta receptors
Correct Answer: Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at the mu receptor
Explanation:Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications
Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.
There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.
Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 79
Correct
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An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of the following medications?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:The previously assumed higher risk is now uncertain and may not actually exist. We include this question to ensure that you are aware of the past association, as it may still be present in exam materials that have not been revised.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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What category of adverse drug reaction does respiratory depression caused by opioids fall under?
Your Answer: Type E
Correct Answer: Type A
Explanation:The MHRA categorizes adverse drug reactions into five types. Type A reactions occur when a drug’s usual pharmacological actions are amplified at the normal therapeutic dose, and are typically dose-dependent. Type B reactions are unexpected and not related to the drug’s known pharmacological actions. Type C reactions persist for a prolonged period of time, while Type D reactions become apparent after a delay. Type E reactions are associated with the withdrawal of a medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 81
Correct
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What is the lowest amount of fluoxetine that can effectively treat adults?
Your Answer: 20 mg
Explanation:Adults require a minimum effective dose of 20 mg of fluoxetine.
Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses
According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:
– Citalopram: 20 mg/day
– Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
– Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
– Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
– Sertraline: 50 mg/day
– Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
– Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
– Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
– Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
– Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
– Trazodone: 150 mg/dayNote that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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What is a characteristic of drugs that are eliminated through zero order kinetics?
Your Answer: The rate of elimination increases with an increase in drug concentration
Correct Answer: Zero order reactions follow non-linear pharmacokinetics
Explanation:As the concentration decreases, the half-life of a zero order reaction becomes shorter. This is because zero order kinetics involve constant elimination, meaning that the rate of elimination does not change with increasing concentration. Therefore, as the concentration decreases, there is less drug available to be eliminated at a constant rate, resulting in a shorter half-life.
The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about olanzapine pamoate / embonate?
Your Answer: A test dose 10 mg is required before initiation of higher doses
Correct Answer: It is licenced only for gluteal administration
Explanation:Although only gluteal injection is approved for olanzapine, deltoid injection is not as effective. Smoking and carbamazepine can induce the metabolism of olanzapine, resulting in lower concentrations. However, the increase in olanzapine clearance is only slight to moderate, and the clinical implications are likely limited. Clinical monitoring is recommended, and an increase in olanzapine dosage may be necessary. While test doses are not required for olanzapine embonate, the Summary of Product Characteristics (SPC) recommends treating patients with oral olanzapine before administering ZYPADHERA to establish tolerability and response.
, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about phase II reactions in biotransformation?
Your Answer: Phase II reactions produce polar metabolites
Correct Answer: Phase II reactions involve conjugation
Explanation:Conjugation is involved in Phase II reactions, but it is not necessary for these reactions to occur in a specific order. They can occur in reverse order, with Phase II preceding Phase I, of as a single reaction.
Understanding Biotransformation: A Metabolic Process for Excretion
Biotransformation is a metabolic process that occurs primarily in the liver, but also in other organs such as the kidneys, intestine, adipose, skin, and lungs. Its main function is to facilitate the excretion of both exogenous and endogenous substances by altering their chemical structures through a series of reactions. Enzymes found in the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria of cells catalyze these reactions, which can cause the substrate to become inactive, active, of even toxic.
Biotransformation is divided into three phases. Phase I reactions involve oxidation, reduction, of hydrolysis of the drug, yielding a polar, water-soluble metabolite that is often still active. Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic groups to the original molecule, a toxic intermediate, of a nontoxic metabolite formed in phase I, to increase its polarity. The most common method is conjugation with glucuronic acid, but other groups such as sulphate, amino acids, acetate, and methyl can also be added. Phase III reactions occur post-phase II, where a chemical substance can undergo further metabolism and excretion through active transport into the urinary of hepatobiliary system.
Understanding biotransformation is crucial in pharmacology and toxicology, as it affects the efficacy and toxicity of drugs and other substances. By facilitating the excretion of these substances, biotransformation helps maintain homeostasis in the body and prevent accumulation of potentially harmful compounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the impact of antidepressants on the heart?
Your Answer: Arrhythmia is common with use of agomelatine
Correct Answer: The arrhythmogenic potential of antidepressants is dose-related
Explanation:Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects
SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.
Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 86
Correct
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What is the primary way in which agomelatine works?
Your Answer: Melatonin receptor agonist
Explanation:Agomelatine is a newly developed antidepressant that primarily targets the melatonin receptors, but its antidepressant properties stem from its ability to block serotonin receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A team of healthcare professionals reaches out to you seeking guidance on a patient who has had a stroke, is unable to swallow, and has developed severe depression. They are interested in knowing which sublingual SSRIs have been proven to be effective in treating this condition for an elderly patient.
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:There is limited evidence of effectiveness for fluoxetine, making it the only viable option. It is worth noting that the contents of ketamine injections have been used sublingually and have shown apparent efficacy.
Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants
While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.
One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.
Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.
Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.
Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
Which antidepressant is commonly linked to priapism?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Trazodone
Explanation:Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection
Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
What is the extrapyramidal side-effect that is identified by a feeling of restlessness?
Your Answer: Dyskinesia
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
What is the lowest daily dose of moclobemide that is effective for treating depression in adults?
Your Answer: 150 mg
Correct Answer: 300 mg
Explanation:Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses
According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:
– Citalopram: 20 mg/day
– Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
– Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
– Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
– Sertraline: 50 mg/day
– Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
– Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
– Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
– Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
– Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
– Trazodone: 150 mg/dayNote that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
Which option is considered to have the lowest risk of causing damage to the heart?
Your Answer: Imipramine
Correct Answer: Lofepramine
Explanation:Among the tricyclic antidepressants, Lofepramine has the lowest potential for causing cardiotoxicity.
Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects
SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.
Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
What is the drug that primarily acts through the GABA system?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
What sublingual preparation of an SSRI has demonstrated efficacy in treating depression?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants
While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.
One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.
Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.
Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.
Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not recommended as a treatment for dystonia caused by antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer: Procyclidine
Correct Answer: Tetrabenazine
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 95
Correct
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A senior citizen started on an antidepressant develops hyponatremia. Which of the following in their history was most likely to contribute to this?
Your Answer: Having a low baseline sodium concentration
Explanation:Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
What is a frequently observed side effect of carbamazepine?
Your Answer: Increased salivation
Correct Answer: Ataxia
Explanation:The use of carbamazepine often results in numerous side effects, with ataxia being a common occurrence.
Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects
Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.
However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.
Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.
In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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What is the safest option for post-MI use?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects
SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.
Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about clozapine?
Your Answer: It appears more active at striatal than limbic dopamine receptors
Correct Answer: It affects adrenergic receptors
Explanation:Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 99
Correct
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What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for NMDA receptors?
Your Answer: Memantine
Explanation:Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 100
Correct
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What is the principle utilized to forecast the temporal pattern of medication levels in various regions of the body?
Your Answer: Pharmacokinetic
Explanation:The time course of drug concentration in various body parts is described and predicted by pharmacokinetics, while pharmacodynamics is used to describe the intensity and time course of a drug’s effects. Pharmacological actions encompass genetic and environmental factors that affect an individual’s response to and tolerance of psychotropic agents. The mechanism of drugs’ therapeutic effects is described as how they are produced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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