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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health screen.
Which one of the following biochemical findings would be most suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism rather than any other cause of hypercalcaemia?Your Answer: Low serum concentration of calcitriol (1,25- dihydroxycholecalciferol)
Correct Answer: Serum PTH concentration within the normal range
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is diagnosed based upon levels of blood calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). In most people with PHPT, both levels are higher than normal. Occasionally, a person may have an elevated calcium level and a normal or minimally elevated PTH level. Since PTH should normally be low when calcium is elevated, a minimally elevated PTH is considered abnormal and indicates PHPT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 2
Incorrect
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In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?
Your Answer: Constitutional short stature
Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.
Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?
Your Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure
Explanation:Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights.
congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant.
Which of the following is most likely to make you ask her to defer pregnancy at this stage?Your Answer: Hb A1C 9.4%
Explanation:Pregnancies affected by T1DM are at increased risk for preterm delivery, preeclampsia, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, intrauterine fetal demise, fetal growth restriction, cardiac and renal malformations, in addition to rare neural conditions such as sacral agenesis.
Successful management of pregnancy in a T1DM patient begins before conception. Research indicates that the implementation of preconception counselling, emphasizing strict glycaemic control before and throughout pregnancy, reduces the rate of perinatal mortality and malformations.
The 2008 bulletin from the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence recommends that preconception counselling be offered to all patients with diabetes. Physicians are advised to guide patients on achieving personalized glycaemic control goals, increasing the frequency of glucose monitoring, reducing their HbA1C levels, and recommend avoiding pregnancy if the said level is > 10%.
Other sources suggest deferring pregnancy until HbA1C levels are > 8%, as this margin is associated with better outcomes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked, drowsy and confused.
He is known to be type-2 diabetic maintained on metformin.
Blood tests reveal a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 24 mmol/l. Ketones are not significantly elevated and random blood glucose was 8.7 mmol/l.
What is the mainstay of treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Rehydration
Explanation:Lactic acidosis is occasionally responsible for metabolic acidosis in diabetics. It may occur in the presence of normal blood levels of the ketone bodies, and such cases are often described as having non-ketotic diabetic acidosis.
It is most commonly associated with tissue hypoperfusion and states of acute circulatory failure.
Appropriate measures include treatment of shock, restoration of circulating fluid volume, improved cardiac function, identification of sepsis source, early antimicrobial intervention, and resection of any potential ischemic regions. Reassessment of lactate levels for clearance assists ongoing medical management. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old son who has recently been diagnosed by type-1 diabetes. He has an identical twin brother and she is concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.
What advice would you give regarding his future risk?Your Answer: He has a 30-50% future risk of developing type-1 diabetes
Explanation:The frequency of type-1 diabetes is higher in siblings of diabetic parents (e.g., in the UK 6% by age 30) than in the general population (in the U.K. 0.4% by age 30), while disease concordance in monozygotic (identical) twins is about 40% i.e. the risk that the unaffected twin will develop diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 7
Correct
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A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of acute pancreatitis.
On examination, he has a BP of 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is regular 70 bpm and his BMI is 23. There is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on examination of his skin.
It was noted that his fasting triglycerides level is 8.5 mmol/l (0.7-2.1) at his follow up appointment although his LDL level is not particularly raised.
Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for him?Your Answer: Fenofibrate
Explanation:Three classes of medications are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations: fibric acid derivatives, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.
Fibrate is used as a first-line agent for reduction of triglycerides in patients at risk for triglyceride-induced pancreatitis.
High-dose niacin (vitamin B-3) (1500 or more mg/d) decreases triglyceride levels by at least 40% and can raise HDL cholesterol levels by 40% or more. Niacin also reliably and significantly lowers LDL cholesterol levels, which the other major triglyceride-lowering medications do not.
Omega-3 fatty acids are attractive because of their low risk of major adverse effects or interaction with other medications. At high doses (>4 g/d), triglycerides are reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 8
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly.
Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?Your Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol
Explanation:11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.
In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
– Increased levels of ACTH
– Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
– Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for review. Over the past few months, she has lost increasing amounts of weight and has become increasingly anxious about palpitations, which occur mostly at night. Her TSH is <0.1 IU/l (0.5-4.5).
On examination, her BP is 122/72 mmHg, her pulse is 92 and regular. You cannot palpate a goitre or any nodules on examination of her neck.
Which of the following investigations can differentiate between self-administration of thyroid hormone and endogenous causes of thyrotoxicosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radioactive uptake thyroid scan
Explanation:Once thyrotoxicosis has been identified by laboratory values, the thyroid radio-iodine uptake and scan may be used to help distinguish the underlying aetiology. Thyroid radioiodine uptake is raised in Graves’ disease. It may be normal or raised in patients with a toxic multinodular goitre. It is very low or undetectable in thyrotoxicosis resulting from exogenous administration of thyroid hormone or the thyrotoxic phase of thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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