00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT a typical electrolyte disturbance caused by furosemide:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical electrolyte disturbance caused by furosemide:

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of loop diuretics include:
      Mild gastrointestinal disturbances, pancreatitis and hepatic encephalopathy
      Hyperglycaemia
      Acute urinary retention
      Water and electrolyte imbalance
      Hyponatraemia, hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypochloraemiaHypotension, hypovolaemia, dehydration, and venous thromboembolism
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Hyperuricaemia
      Blood disorders (bone marrow suppression, thrombocytopenia, and leucopenia)
      Visual disturbance, tinnitus and deafness
      Hypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old man is complaining of pain in his perineal area, a recent...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man is complaining of pain in his perineal area, a recent onset of urinary frequency and urgency, fever, chills, and muscle aches. He has a long history of nocturia and terminal dribbling. On rectal examination you find an exquisitely tender prostate.

      Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin for 14 days

      Explanation:

      An acute focal or diffuse suppurative inflammation of the prostate gland is called acute bacterial prostatitis.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in a man presenting with:
      A feverish illness of sudden onset which may be associated with rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia; Irritative urinary voiding symptoms; acute urinary retention; perineal or suprapubic pain and an exquisitely tender prostate on rectal examination.

      Treatment of acute prostatitis as recommended by NICE and the BNFare:
      Ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin for 14 days
      Alternatively, trimethoprim can be used. Duration of treatment is still 14 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent...

    Correct

    • A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. She is pregnant in her second trimester.

      The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute.

      She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.

      Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for pregnant women with lower UTIs are:
      1. Prescribe an antibiotic immediately, taking into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results or avoiding past antibiotics that may have caused resistance
      2. Obtain a midstream urine sample before starting antibiotics and send for urine culture and susceptibility
      – Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available
      – change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possible

      The first choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute

      The second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:
      1. Amoxicillin
      500 mg PO TDS for seven days (ONLY if culture results available and susceptible)
      2. Cefalexin
      500 mg BD for seven days
      Alternative second-choices – consult local microbiologist, choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The patient is a 66-year-old woman who has troublesome bilateral ankle swelling. This...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 66-year-old woman who has troublesome bilateral ankle swelling. This has been happening since she began taking a new antihypertensive medication a few weeks ago.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to be the cause of this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Amlodipine is a calcium-channel blocker that is frequently used to treat hypertension. Ankle swelling is a very common side effect of calcium-channel blockers, and it occurs quite frequently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old male patient, presenting with polyuria and polydipsia symptoms had normal blood...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male patient, presenting with polyuria and polydipsia symptoms had normal blood test results. Upon interview, he had mentioned being in a car accident in which he had a head injury. His polyuria and polydipsia symptoms are most likely associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Polydipsia is the feeling of extreme thirstiness. It is often linked to polyuria, which is a urinary condition that causes a person to urinate excessively. The cycle of these two processes makes the body feel a constant need to replace the fluids lost in urination. In healthy adults, a 3 liter urinary output per day is considered normal. A person with polyuria can urinate up to 15 liters of urine per day. Both of these conditions are classic signs of diabetes.

      The other options are also types of diabetes, except for psychogenic polydipsia (PPD), which is the excessive volitional water intake seen in patients with severe mental illness or developmental disability. However, given the patient’s previous head injury, the most likely diagnosis is cranial diabetes insipidus.

      By definition, cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland after an infection, operation, brain tumor, or head injury. And the patient’s history confirms this diagnosis. To define the other choices, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus happens when the structures in the kidneys are damaged and results in an inability to properly respond to antidiuretic hormone.

      Kidney damage can be caused by an inherited (genetic) disorder or a chronic kidney disorder. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also cause an elevated urine output.

      Diabetes mellitus is classified into two types, and the main difference between them is that type 1 diabetes is a genetic disorder, and type 2 diabetes is diet-related and develops over time. Type 1 diabetes is also known as insulin-dependent diabetes, in which the pancreas produces little or no insulin. Type 2 diabetes is termed insulin resistance, as cells don’t respond customarily to insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 36 year old man who is overweight with a history of gout,...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old man who is overweight with a history of gout, presents to emergency room with an acutely painful big toe which is red, hot and swollen. However, he is apyrexic and otherwise systemically well. He has been diagnosed with acute gout. The most appropriate first line treatment for him is which of the following?

      Your Answer: NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      The first line treatment for acute gout includes NSAIDs like diclofenac, indomethacin or naproxen. In patients in whom NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated or ineffective, colchicine is an alternative. In those who cannot tolerate or who are resistant to NSAIDs and colchicine, oral or parenteral corticosteroids are an effective alternative. In acute monoarticular gout, intra-articular injection of a corticosteroid can be used occasionally. In acute gout. allopurinol is not used in the actual treatment, but its use should be continued during an acute attack if the patient is already established on long term therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer from bipolar disorder, which has been well controlled by the use of lithium for many years.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is the inability to produce concentrated urine. It is characterised by the presence of excessive thirst, polyuria and polydipsia. There are two distinct types of diabetes insipidus:
      Cranial (central) diabetes insipidus and;
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
      Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of vasopressin (anti-diuretic hormone). Patients with cranial diabetes insipidus can have a urine output as high as 10-15 litres per 24 hours, but adequate fluid intake allows most patients to maintain normonatraemia. 30% of cases are idiopathic, and a further 30% are secondary to head injuries. Other causes include neurosurgery, brain tumours, meningitis, granulomatous disease (e.g. sarcoidosis) and drugs, such as naloxone and phenytoin. A very rare inherited form also exists that is associated with diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, nerve deafness and bladder atonia.
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal resistance to the action of vasopressin. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output is markedly elevated. Serum sodium levels can be maintained by secondary polydipsia or can be elevated. Causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include chronic renal disease, metabolic disorders (e.g. hypercalcaemia and hypokalaemia) and drugs, including long-term lithium usage and demeclocycline.
      In view of the history of long-term lithium use, in this case, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals...

    Correct

    • A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals that he has suffered damage to the nerve that innervates pectoralis major.
      Pectoralis major receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Lateral and medial pectoral nerves

      Explanation:

      Pectoralis major is a thick, fan-shaped muscle situated in the chest. It makes up the bulk of the chest musculature in the male and lies underneath the breast in the female. It overlies the thinner pectoralis minor muscle.
      Superficial muscles of the chest and arm showing pectoralis major (from Gray’s Anatomy)
      Pectoralis major has two heads; the clavicular head and the sternocostal head. The clavicular head originates from the anterior border and medial half of the clavicle. The sternocostal head originates from the anterior surface of the sternum, the superior six costal cartilages and the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. It inserts into the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus.
      Pectoralis major receives dual innervation from the medial pectoral nerve and the lateral pectoral nerve.
      Its main actions are as follows:
      Flexes humerus (clavicular head)
      Extends humerus (sternocostal head)
      Adducts and medially rotates the humerus
      Draws scapula anteriorly and inferiorly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following corticosteroids has the most potent mineralocorticoid effect: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following corticosteroids has the most potent mineralocorticoid effect:

      Your Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Fludrocortisone has the most potent mineralocorticosteroid activity, making it ideal for mineralocorticoid replacement in adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is NOT one of insulin's actions: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT one of insulin's actions:

      Your Answer: Increased gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin has a number of effects on glucose metabolism, including:
      Inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
      Increased glucose transport into fat and muscle
      Increased glycolysis in fat and muscle
      Stimulation of glycogen synthesis
      By inhibiting gluconeogenesis, insulin maintains the availability of amino acids as substrates for protein synthesis. Thus, insulin supports protein synthesis through direct and indirect mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (6/6) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (2/2) 100%
Renal Physiology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (2/2) 100%
Passmed