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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old woman presents with cold sensitivity, tiredness, and weight gain. A series...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with cold sensitivity, tiredness, and weight gain. A series of blood tests done shows a grossly elevated TSH level and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is made.

      What is the commonest cause of hypothyroidism worldwide?

      Your Answer: Iodine deficiency

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism occurs when there is a deficiency of circulating thyroid hormones. It is commoner in women and is most frequently seen in the age over 60.

      Iodine deficiency is the commonest cause of hypothyroidism worldwide.

      In developed countries, iodine deficiency is not a problem and autoimmune thyroiditis is the commonest cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration...

    Correct

    • Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream.

      Which pancreatic islet cells secretes glucagon?

      Your Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Glucagon, secreted from the pancreatic islet alpha cells, is considered to be the main catabolic hormone of the body. It raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream

      There are five different pancreatic islet cells:
      Alpha cells (20%) – produce glucagon
      Beta cells (70%) – produce insulin and amylin
      Delta cells (<10%) – produce somatostatin
      Gamma cells (<5%) – produce pancreatic polypeptide
      Epsilon cells (<1%) – produce ghrelin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium...

    Correct

    • Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium and phosphate control. Vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.

      Which of the following actions of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is a direct action?

      Your Answer: Increases renal phosphate reabsorption

      Explanation:

      The hormone-active metabolite of vitamin D is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (commonly known as calcitriol). Its activities raise calcium and phosphate levels in the bloodstream.

      The following are the primary effects of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol:

      Calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine is increased.
      Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is increased.
      Increases phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys.
      Increases the action of osteoclastic bacteria (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Inhibits the action of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the kidneys (negative feedback)
      Thyroid hormone (parathyroid hormone) Calcium reabsorption in the tubules of the kidneys is increased, but renal phosphate reabsorption is decreased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A pheochromocytoma is diagnosed in a 38-year-old female who has had episodes of...

    Correct

    • A pheochromocytoma is diagnosed in a 38-year-old female who has had episodes of acute sweating, palpitations, and paroxysmal hypertension.

      Which of the following is the MOST SUITABLE INITIAL TREATMENT?

      Your Answer: Alpha-blocker

      Explanation:

      A phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumour that develops in the adrenal medulla from chromaffin cells. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas (extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas) are tumours that arise in the sympathetic nervous system’s ganglia and are closely connected to extra-adrenal paragangliomas (extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas). Catecholamines are secreted by these tumours, which generate a variety of symptoms and indications associated with sympathetic nervous system hyperactivity.
      Hypertension is the most prevalent presenting symptom, which can be continuous or intermittent.

      Symptoms are usually intermittent, occurring anywhere from many times a day to occasionally. The symptoms of the condition tend to grow more severe and frequent as the disease progresses.
      The ultimate therapy of choice is surgical resection, and if full resection is done without metastases, hypertension is typically cured.

      Preoperative medical treatment is critical because it lowers the risk of hypertensive crises during surgery. This is commonly accomplished by combining non-competitive alpha-blockers (such as phenoxybenzamine) with beta-blockers. To allow for blood volume expansion, alpha-blockade should be started at least 7-10 days before surgery. Beta-blockade, which helps to regulate tachycardia and some arrhythmias, can be started after this is accomplished. Hypertensive crises can be triggered if beta-blockade is started too soon.
      There should also be genetic counselling, as well as a search for and management of any linked illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 59-year-old woman presents with a history of tiredness and weight gain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman presents with a history of tiredness and weight gain and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is suspected.

      Which of these changes is likely to appear first in primary hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Reduced thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

      Correct Answer: Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

      Explanation:

      The earliest biochemical change seen in hypothyroidism is an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.

      Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are normal in the early stages.

      TBG levels are generally unchanged in primary hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 33-year-old woman who is investigated for recurrent renal stones is discovered to...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman who is investigated for recurrent renal stones is discovered to have a markedly elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level.
      Which of the following would stimulate PTH release under normal circumstances? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Decreased plasma calcium concentration

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids. It is the principal controller of free calcium in the body.
      PTH is synthesised by and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands that are located immediately behind the thyroid gland.
      PTH is released in response to the following stimuli:
      Decreased plasma calcium concentration
      Increased plasma phosphate concentration (indirectly by binding to plasma calcium and reducing the calcium concentration)
      PTH release is inhibited by the following factors:
      Normal/increased plasma calcium concentration
      Hypomagnesaemia
      The main actions of PTH are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60 -year-old man is tested to have low calcium levels . After...

    Correct

    • A 60 -year-old man is tested to have low calcium levels . After additional questioning, it becomes clear that he has a calcium-deficient diet.

      What is the daily calcium intake recommendation for a healthy adult?

      Your Answer: 1300 mg

      Explanation:

      A daily calcium intake of 1,000 to 1,300 mg is advised for adults. Women have a slightly higher calcium need than men and are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis as they age.

      Calcium-rich foods include the following:
      Milk, cheese, and butter as dairy products.
      Broccoli, spinach, and green beans as green veggies.
      Bread, rice, and cereals as whole grain foods.
      Sardines, salmon, and other bony fish
      Eggs
      Nuts
      The following foods have the least calcium:
      Carrot
      Fruits such as kiwis, raspberries, oranges, and papaya
      Chicken and pork in meats.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient in the Emergency Department had a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)...

    Correct

    • A patient in the Emergency Department had a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and you commence an insulin infusion. Which of these statements concerning endogenous insulin is true?

      Your Answer: Insulin has a short half-life of around 5-10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Insulin, a peptide hormone, is produced in the pancreas by the beta-cells of the islets of Langerhans.

      The beta-cells first synthesise an inactive precursor called preproinsulin which is converted to proinsulin by signal peptidases, which remove a signal peptide from the N-terminus.

      Proinsulin is converted to insulin by the removal of the C-peptide.

      Insulin has a short half-life in the circulation of about 5-10 minutes.
      Glucagon and parasympathetic stimulation stimulates insulin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 17-year-old type I diabetic patient presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Measurement...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old type I diabetic patient presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Measurement of her blood glucose level is done and found to be grossly elevated. She is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. A fixed rate insulin infusion is given as part of her treatment.

      Which of these is an action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Stimulates lipogenesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin is an anabolic hormone. Its actions can be broadly divided into:
      Lipid metabolism
      Protein metabolism and
      Carbohydrate metabolism

      For lipid metabolism, insulin:
      Stimulates lipogenesis
      Inhibits lipolysis by lipase

      For carbohydrate metabolism, insulin:
      Decreases gluconeogenesis
      Stimulates glycolysis
      Promotes glucose uptake in muscle and adipose tissue
      Promotes glycogen storage
      Increases glycogenesis
      Decreases glycogenolysis

      Protein metabolism:
      Stimulates protein synthesis
      Accelerates net formation of protein
      Stimulates amino acid uptake
      Inhibits protein degradation
      Inhibits amino acid conversion to glucose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium...

    Correct

    • Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium and phosphate control. Vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.

      Which enzyme hydroxylates 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?

      Your Answer: 1-alpha-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      The hormone-active metabolite of vitamin D is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (commonly known as calcitriol). Its activities raise calcium and phosphate levels in the bloodstream.

      In the presence of UVB light, 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted to cholecalciferol in the epidermal layer of the skin, resulting in 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.

      Cholecalciferol is then converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the endoplasmic reticulum of liver hepatocytes by 25-hydroxylase (calcifediol).

      Finally, 1-alpha-hydroxylase converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney. The key regulatory point in the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which is induced by parathyroid hormone or hypophosphatemia.

      The following are the primary effects of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol:
      Calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine is increased.
      Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is increased.
      Increases phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys.
      Increases the action of osteoclastic bacteria (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Inhibits the action of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the kidneys (negative feedback)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of these increases osteoclast activity? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these increases osteoclast activity?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Osteoclasts are bone cell that break down bone tissue.

      Parathyroid hormone increases osteoclastic activity.

      1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases osteoclastic activity

      Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic activity

      Bisphosphonates are osteoclast inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman diagnosed with hyperthyroidism has her T 4 levels grossly elevated...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman diagnosed with hyperthyroidism has her T 4 levels grossly elevated and she is started on carbimazole.

      A release of which of the following from the hypothalamus is inhibited by increase in T4 levels?

      Your Answer: Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

      Explanation:

      A negative feedback mechanism involving the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis controls the release of T3 and T4 into the bloodstream.

      When metabolic rate is low or serum T3 and/or T4 levels are decrease, this triggers the secretion of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      TRH goes to the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

      An increased serum level of T3 and T4 inhibits the release of TRH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

    Which of...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

      Which of the following stimulates release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

      Your Answer: Increased plasma phosphate concentration

      Explanation:

      PTH is synthesised and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands located behind the thyroid gland.
      It is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids and it controls free calcium in the body.

      The following stimuli causes release of PTH:
      Increased plasma phosphate concentration
      Decreased plasma calcium concentration

      PTH release is inhibited by:
      Normal or increased plasma calcium concentration
      Hypomagnesaemia

      The main actions of PTH are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.
      Glucagon is produced in which of the following cells? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Alpha-cells in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man presents with headaches, lethargy, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbance. A...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with headaches, lethargy, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbance. A diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism is made.

      Which biochemical pictures would best support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone outside of the renin-angiotensin axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. High renin levels will lead to secondary hyperaldosteronism.

      The classical presentation of hyperaldosteronism when symptoms are present include:
      Hypokalaemia
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Hypertension
      Normal or slightly raised sodium levels

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with symptoms of headache, tiredness, and muscle weakness. His blood test today shows a low potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L, and a slightly raised sodium level at 147 mmol/L.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.

      Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Conn’s syndrome
      Adrenal hyperplasia
      Adrenal cancer
      Familial aldosteronism

      Causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Renal vasoconstriction
      Oedematous disorders
      Drugs – diuretics
      Obstructive renal artery disease

      Although patients are usually asymptomatic, when clinical features are present, classically hyperaldosteronism presents with:
      Hypokalaemia
      Sodium levels can be normal or slightly raised
      Hypertension
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Less common, clinical features are:
      Lethargy
      Headaches
      Intermittent paraesthesia
      Polyuria and polydipsia
      Muscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)
      Tetany and paralysis (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A thyroid function test is done for a 55-year-old woman with non-specific symptoms,...

    Correct

    • A thyroid function test is done for a 55-year-old woman with non-specific symptoms, the results are shown below:
      TSH = 5.2
      Free T4 is normal
      Free T3 is normal

      The most likely diagnosis in this patient is?

      Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed using the results of thyroid function tests (TFTs).

      In the early stages of the disease, the earliest biochemical change noticed is a rise in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. Free triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are usually normal.

      In primary hypothyroidism, the serum TSH level is usually greater than 10 mU/L, and free T4 levels are below the reference range.

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is diagnosed when the serum TSH level is above the reference range, and the free T4 levels are within the reference range. The test should, however, be repeated after 3-6 months to exclude transient causes of raised TSH.

      In summary, how to interpret TFTs in cases of suspected hypothyroidism is shown below:

      Subclinical hypothyroidism
      TSH is raised
      Free T4 is normal
      Free T3 is normal

      Primary hypothyroidism
      TSH is raised
      Free T4 is lowered
      Free T3 is lowered or normal

      Secondary hypothyroidism
      TSH is lowered or normal
      Free T4 is lowered
      Free T3 is lowered or normal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old woman has been visiting her GP with symptoms of tiredness, muscle...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman has been visiting her GP with symptoms of tiredness, muscle weakness and headaches. She is known to be hypertensive and takes amlodipine to control this. Her blood results today show that her potassium level is low at 3.0 mmol/L, and her sodium level is slightly elevated at 146 mmol/L.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE most appropriate INITIAL investigation?

      Your Answer: Plasma renin and aldosterone levels

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism occurs when there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin axis. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.
      The causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome) – the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism (,80% of all cases). These are usually unilateral and solitary and are more common in women.
      Adrenal hyperplasia – this accounts for ,15% of all cases. Usually, bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (BAH) but can be unilateral rarely. More common in men than women.
      Adrenal cancer – a rare diagnosis but essential not to miss
      Familial aldosteronism – a rare group of inherited conditions affecting the adrenal glands
      The causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Drugs – diuretics
      Obstructive renal artery disease – renal artery stenosis and atheroma
      Renal vasoconstriction – occurs in accelerated hypertension
      Oedematous disorders – heart failure, cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome
      Patients are often asymptomatic. When clinical features are present, the classically described presentation of hyperaldosteronism is with:
      Hypertension
      Hypokalaemia
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Sodium levels can be normal or slightly raised
      Other, less common, clinical features include:
      Lethargy
      Headaches
      Muscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)
      Polyuria and polydipsia
      Intermittent paraesthesia
      Tetany and paralysis (rare)
      Often the earliest sign of hyperaldosteronism is from aberrant urea and electrolytes showing hypokalaemia and mild hypernatraemia. If the patient is taking diuretics, and the diagnosis is suspected, these should be repeated after the patient has taken off diuretics.
      If the diagnosis is suspected, plasma renin and aldosterone levels should be checked. Low renin and high aldosterone levels (with a raised aldosterone: renin ratio) is suggestive of primary aldosteronism.
      If the renin: aldosterone ratio is high, then the effect of posture on renin, aldosterone and cortisol can be investigated to provide further information about the underlying cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Levels should be measured lying at 9 am and standing at noon:
      If aldosterone and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an ACTH dependent cause, e.g. adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome)
      If aldosterone levels rise and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an angiotensin-II dependent cause, e.g. BAH
      Other investigations that can help to distinguish between an adrenal adenoma and adrenal hyperplasia include:
      CT scan
      MRI scan
      Selective adrenal venous sampling

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An infection causes an Addisonian crisis in a male patient with a known history...

    Correct

    • An infection causes an Addisonian crisis in a male patient with a known history of Addison's disease.

      Which of the following is NOT a well-known symptom of an Addisonian crisis?

      Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Although Addisonian crisis is a rare illness, it can be fatal if it is misdiagnosed. Hypoglycaemia and shock are the most common symptoms of an Addisonian crisis (tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered conscious level, and coma).

      Other clinical characteristics that may be present are:
      Fever
      Psychosis
      Leg and abdominal pain
      Dehydration and vomiting
      Convulsions 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and withering, easy bruising, and acne. You notice that she has a full, plethoric aspect to her face, as well as significant supraclavicular fat pads, when you examine her. She has previously been diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome.

      Cushing's syndrome is most commonly caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Iatrogenic administration of corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids. Cushing’s syndrome affects about 10-15 persons per million, and it is more common in those who have had a history of obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

      Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s illness is the second most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s disease is distinct from Cushing’s syndrome in that it refers to a single cause of the illness, a pituitary adenoma that secretes high quantities of ACTH, which raises cortisol levels.

      Cushing’s syndrome has several endogenous sources, including:
      Cushing’s disease is caused by a pituitary adenoma.
      Adrenal adenoma Ectopic corticotropin syndrome, e.g. small cell cancer of the lung
      Adrenal carcinoma is a cancer of the adrenal gland.
      Hyperplasia of the adrenal glands

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.

      Which of the following statements about Cushing's syndrome is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia is a common feature

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.

      Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome.
      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.

      Insulin resistance causes hyperglycaemia, which is a frequent symptom. Insulin resistance can produce acanthosis nigricans in the axilla and around the neck, as well as other skin abnormalities.

      In contrast to menorrhagia, elevated testosterone levels are more likely to produce amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea. Infertility in women of reproductive age can also be caused by high androgen levels.

      A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      17.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine Physiology (20/21) 95%
Physiology (20/21) 95%
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