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  • Question 1 - Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows ST segment...

    Incorrect

    • Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF, and ST segment depression in V1-V3?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      A posterior wall MI occurs when posterior myocardial tissue (now termed inferobasilar), usually supplied by the posterior descending artery — a branch of the right coronary artery in 80% of individuals — acutely loses blood supply due to intracoronary thrombosis in that vessel. This frequently coincides with an inferior wall MI due to the shared blood supply.

      The ECG findings of an acute posterior wall MI include the following:

      1. ST segment depression (not elevation) in the septal and anterior precordial leads (V1-V4). This occurs because these ECG leads will see the MI backwards; the leads are placed anteriorly, but the myocardial injury is posterior.
      2. A R/S wave ratio greater than 1 in leads V1 or V2.
      3. ST elevation in the posterior leads of a posterior ECG (leads V7-V9). Suspicion for a posterior MI must remain high, especially if inferior ST segment elevation is also present.
      4. ST segment elevation in the inferior leads (II, III and aVF) if an inferior MI is also present.

      The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction:

      ECG Leads Location Vessel involved
      V1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descending
      V3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descending
      V5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      II, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%)
      I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      V1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary artery
      V7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      144.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain that has been going on for the past 12 hours. Upon further investigation, a troponin test was ordered and the results came back negative. He was given a discharge order from the emergency department.

      Which of the following aspects of this test is considered the most significant in the decision made that it was safe to send the patient home?

      Your Answer: Specificity

      Correct Answer: Likelihood ratio

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.

      The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.

      A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The renal team is currently prescribing erythropoietin to a patient with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • The renal team is currently prescribing erythropoietin to a patient with chronic kidney disease.

      Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is correct?

      Your Answer: It is only produced in the kidney

      Correct Answer: It protects red blood cell progenitors from apoptosis

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that regulates the formation of red blood cells (red cell production). It is mostly produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney, which are located near the PCT. It is also produced in the liver’s perisinusoidal cells, however this is more common during the foetal and perinatal periods.

      The kidneys produce and secrete erythropoietin in response to hypoxia. On red blood cells, erythropoietin has two main effects:
      – It encourages stem cells in the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.
      – It protects red blood cell progenitors and precursors from apoptosis by targeting them in the bone marrow.
      As a result of the increased red cell mass, the oxygen-carrying capacity and oxygen delivery increase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is nimodipine used predominantly in the treatment of? ...

    Correct

    • What is nimodipine used predominantly in the treatment of?

      Your Answer: Prevention and treatment of vascular spasm following subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Nimodipine is a smooth muscle relaxant that is related to nifedipine, but the effects preferentially act on cerebral arteries. It is exclusively used for the prevention and treatment of vascular spasm after an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Chylomicrons are exocytosed from enterocytes to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

      Explanation:

      Dietary fat is chiefly composed of triglycerides (esters of free fatty acids and glycerol which may be saturated or unsaturated). The essential fatty acids are linoleic acid and alpha-linoleic acid, which cannot be manufactured in the body. Dietary fat provides 37 kJ (9 kcal) of energy per gram. Fats are digested almost entirely in the small intestine and are only released from the stomach into the duodenum at the rate at which they can be digested.
      Pancreatic lipase is the most significant enzyme for fat digestion. In the duodenum fat is emulsified by bile acids, a process where larger lipid droplets are broken down into much smaller droplets providing a greater surface area for enzymatic digestion. Micelles are arranged so that hydrophobic lipid molecules lie in the centre, surrounded by bile acids arranged such the outer region is hydrophilic. Dietary and synthesised lipids are incorporated into chylomicrons in the Golgi body, which are exocytosed from the basolateral membrane to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 43-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto her back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that she has pain on hip abduction, but normal hip extension.

      Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Gluteus medius

      Explanation:

      The primary hip extensors are the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings such as the long head of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. The extensor head of the adductor magnus is also considered a primary hip extensor.

      The hip abductor muscle group is located on the lateral thigh. The primary hip abductor muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.
      The secondary hip abductors include the piriformis, sartorius, and superior fibres of the gluteus maximus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except:

      Your Answer: They provide a way to estimate the pre-test probabilities of having a condition

      Correct Answer: A likelihood ratio less than 1 indicates that the result is associated with the presence of the disease

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.

      The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.

      A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect they may have an Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury. Regarding Erb's palsy, which one of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Erb's palsy may result in loss of sensation of the regimental badge area.

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy is caused by damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots and thus primarily involves the musculocutaneous, suprascapular and axillary nerves. It commonly result from an excessive increase in the angle between the neck and the shoulder e.g. a person thrown from a motorbike or horseback or during a difficult birth. There is loss or weakness of abduction, lateral rotation and flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm and loss of sensation on the lateral arm. A characteristic ‘Waiter’s tip’ deformity may be present where the limb hangs limply by the side, medially rotated by the unopposed action of pectoralis major with the forearm pronated due to paralysis of the biceps brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Lymphatic vessels from the palate usually drain into deep cervical lymph nodes.

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the pharynx and palate drain into the deep cervical lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What does the correlation coefficient r = 0 indicate with regards to linear...

    Incorrect

    • What does the correlation coefficient r = 0 indicate with regards to linear relationships between two variables?

      Your Answer: The two variables are directly proportional

      Correct Answer: There is no correlation between two variables

      Explanation:

      r = 0 if there is no correlation between two variables.
      The closer that r is to 0, the weaker the correlation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      21.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (3/4) 75%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/3) 0%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Renal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Passmed