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Question 1
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A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin:    12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7) White cell count:  8.2 x 109/l (4-11) Platelets:         200 x 109/l (150-400) C reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10) ESR:             15 mm/hr (<20) Sodium:          140 mmol/l (135-146) Potassium:       3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine:       92 µmol/l (79-118) ALT:             12 U/l (5-40) Alkaline phos:    724 U/l (39-117) Calcium:         2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disease of the skeleton. In healthy bone, a process called remodeling removes old pieces of bone and replaces them with new, fresh bone. Paget’s disease causes this process to shift out of balance, resulting in new bone that is abnormally shaped, weak, and brittle. Paget’s disease most often affects older people, occurring in approximately 2 to 3% of the population over the age of 55.
Many patients with Paget’s disease have no symptoms at all and are unaware they have the disease until X-rays are taken for some other reason. When bone pain and other symptoms are present, they can be related to the disease itself or to complications that arise from the disease — such as arthritis, bone deformity, and fractures. In patients with Paget’s disease, alkaline phosphatase levels are usually quite elevated — a reflection of the high bone turnover rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old heavy drinker is brought to the A&E in a drowsy state. He is responding to questions however on examination he has nystagmus and hyper-reflexia. His MCV is 103fL.What is the most likely cause for his cognitive impairment?
Your Answer: B12 Deficiency
Correct Answer: B1 Deficiency
Explanation:Thiamine deficiency is very common with alcoholism. It manifests by Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy. The patient is usually agitated, with an abnormal gait and amnesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 3
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A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and dyspnoea over the past month. She has a history of toxic multinodular goitre successfully treated with radioiodine. On examination, she has a firm asymmetrical swelling of the thyroid gland. Laryngoscopy demonstrates a right vocal cord paralysis and apparent external compression of the trachea.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer
Explanation:Thyroid malignancies are divided into papillary carcinomas (80%), follicular carcinomas (10%), medullary thyroid carcinomas (5-10%), anaplastic carcinomas (1-2%), primary thyroid lymphomas (rare), and primary thyroid sarcomas (rare).
Hürthle cell carcinoma is a rare thyroid malignancy that is often considered a variant of follicular carcinoma.
– Papillary and Follicular carcinoma are slow-growing tumours
– Sporadic cases of Medullary thyroid carcinoma also typically manifest with painless solitary thyroid nodules in the early stages.
– Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma has the most aggressive biologic behaviour of all thyroid malignancies and has one of the worst survival rates of all malignancies in general. It manifests as a rapidly growing thyroid mass in contrast to a well-differentiated carcinoma, which are comparatively slow-growing. Patients commonly present with associated symptoms due to local invasion. Hoarseness and dyspnoea resulting from the involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and airway occur in as many as 50% of patients.
– Almost all patients with primary thyroid lymphoma have either a clinical history or histological evidence of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. The risk of primary thyroid lymphoma increases 70-fold in patients with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis compared with the general population. Regional and distant lymphadenopathy is common. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45-year-old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check up. His labs are as follows: Fasting blood sugar: 6 mmol/l, Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT): 10 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance
Explanation:Impaired glucose tolerance means that blood glucose is raised beyond normal levels, but not high enough to warrant a diabetes diagnosis. With impaired glucose tolerance you face a much greater risk of developing diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Impaired glucose tolerance is defined as 2-hour glucose levels of 140 to 199 mg per dL (7.8 to 11.0 mmol) on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test, and impaired fasting glucose is defined as glucose levels of 100 to 125 mg per dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol per L) in fasting patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 5
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly.
Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?Your Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol
Explanation:11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.
In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
– Increased levels of ACTH
– Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
– Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 6
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis.
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?Your Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio
Explanation:In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.
Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
– Hirsutism
– Infertility
– Obesity and metabolic syndrome
– Diabetes
– Obstructive sleep apnoeaAndrogen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.
Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old previously well female presented with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. Investigations revealed low haemoglobin, a retic count of 8% and the occasional spherocyte on blood film. Which of the following is the most appropriate single investigation?
Your Answer: G6PD enzyme assay
Correct Answer: Direct coombs test
Explanation:A low haemoglobin and a high retic count is suggestive of a haemolytic anaemia. Occasional spherocytes can be seen on blood film during haemolysis and it is not a specific finding. Direct Coombs test will help to identify autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where there are antibodies attached to RBCs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 8
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months.
She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone).
A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal.
Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?Your Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 9
Correct
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All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?
Your Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients
Explanation:For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with diarrhoea and 8 kg weight loss over the last 3 months. She has also experienced amenorrhea for the past 12 weeks. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Thyroid Antibodies
Correct Answer: Thyroid Function Test
Explanation:Weight loss is most commonly linked to hyperthyroidism. An overactive thyroid gland (hyperthyroidism) or underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) can cause menstrual irregularities, including amenorrhea. In this scenario, we would carry out thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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