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Question 1
Correct
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Fabry's disease is a rare genetic disorder that leads to excessive deposition of neutral glycosphingolipids in the vascular endothelium of several organs and in epithelial and smooth muscle cells. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Fabry's disease?
Your Answer: Inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion
Explanation:Fabry disease (Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum) is an X-linked lysosomal disorder which occurs due to deficiency or absence of alpha-galactosidase A (α-GAL A) activity as a result of a genetic mutation in the GLA gene. As Fabry’s disease follows X-linked genetics it manifestis predominantly in men. Ongoing burning, tingling pain and discomfort, known as acroparesthesia, mainly affecting the hands and feet is the most debilitating symptom in childhood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?
Your Answer: Spinal
Correct Answer: Neurogenic
Explanation:Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bartter Syndrome
Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome
Explanation:Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
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Question 4
Correct
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A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid
Explanation:Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatidThe appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion| a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a baseball bat. The soft tissue around his left eye shows significant swelling that obstructs the child's vision. A CT scan shows a fracture at the floor of the left orbit. This injury will most likely lead to an abnormal communication between the orbit and which of the following areas of the face?
Your Answer: Nasal cavity
Correct Answer: Maxillary sinus
Explanation:The injury described in question leads to an abnormal communication between the orbit and the ipsilateral maxillary sinus – this is termed as a blow-out fracture of the orbit.The maxillary sinuses are found in the maxillary bone, inferior to the orbit. They are the largest of the paranasal air sinuses. The maxillary bone forms the floor of the orbit. This layer of bone separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus. As such, fractures of the floor of the orbit can be associated with herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus. Other options:- The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells in the ethmoid bone. They lie lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity. They are separated from the orbit by a very thin plate of ethmoid bone called the lamina papyracea, which is found on the medial wall of the orbit. The thin nature of this bone means it is commonly fractured in orbital trauma. However, this is the incorrect answer to the above question as a communication between the ethmoidal air cells, and the orbit is associated with fractures of the medial wall of the orbit, not the floor. – The frontal sinuses are found in the frontal bones, above the orbits on each side of the head. A large portion of the roof of the orbit is composed of the frontal bone and separates the orbit from the frontal sinus. Fractures of the roof of the orbit can be associated with communication between the frontal sinus and orbit. The frontal bones are strong, and so fracture is associated with high-impact anterior trauma, such as a road traffic accident. – The sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity. The pituitary gland lies nestled within the hypophyseal fossa, with only a thin wall of bone separating it from the sphenoid sinus below. As such, neurosurgeons can gain access to the pituitary gland via the sphenoid sinus, in a procedure called transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. – The nasal cavity extends from the nares to the nasopharynx. It is found more medial and inferior than the orbits. It does not lie adjacent to the orbit at any point and so is unlikely to be involved in an orbital fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Correct
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What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?
Your Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament
Explanation:The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 7
Correct
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A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each feed. He was dehydrated on admission and IV fluids were started. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Projectile vomiting is the hallmark symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy, which has a male-to-female predominance of 4-5:1. Current management recommendations include ultrasonography for diagnosis, correction of electrolytes, and surgical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?
Your Answer: 0.66
Correct Answer: 2.25
Explanation:An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A dental surgeon infiltrates local anaesthetic at the mandibular foramen to carry out a block of the right inferior alveolar nerve. Which of the following might occur as a result of the procedure?
Your Answer: Transient weakness of the facial muscles on the injected side
Correct Answer: Numbness of the lower teeth on the right side
Explanation:The inferior alveolar nerve supplies all the teeth of the respective hemimandible. It transverses the inferior alveolar canal and is a branch of the trigeminal nerve’s mandibular division. Therefore, in this case, the teeth of the right hemimandible will be numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Correct
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What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery?
Your Answer: Sixth pharyngeal arch
Explanation:There are 6 pharyngeal arches, the fifth does not contribute any useful structures and often fuses with the sixth arch. The structures arising from the aortic arches are as follows:First aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part that gives rise to the maxillary artery.Second aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part giving rise to the stapedial artery.Third aortic arch: This arch is the source of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery, and the external carotid which arises as a bud from this arch.Right Fourth aortic arch: Is the genesis of the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.Left Fourth aortic arch: Gives rise to the medial portion of the arch of the aorta.Fifth aortic arch: The fifth aortic arch regresses completely and very early in the development.Sixth aortic arch: Either of the sixth aortic arches divides into ventral and dorsal segments, and therefore, their derivatives also divide into these two segments.Right Sixth Arch:Ventral: Gives rise to the right pulmonary artery.Dorsal: It degenerates completely and loses its connection with the dorsal aorta.Left Sixth ArchVentral: It gives rise to the left pulmonary artery that goes to the left pulmonary bud.Dorsal: It forms a vital connection during intrauterine life between the left pulmonary artery and the arch of the aorta. This structure is called ductus arteriosus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?
Your Answer: Venous blood haemoglobin >17g/dL
Correct Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%
Explanation:Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 12
Correct
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An infant was born yesterday with ambiguous genitalia. Mineralocorticoid deficiency and androgen excess are associated with the suspected diagnosis. What is the pathophysiology of the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Deficiency of 21-alphahydroxylase
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a common cause of virilisation in females that can present as ambiguous genitalia at birth. Deficiency of the 21-alphahydroxylase enzyme is implicated in excess mineralocorticoid and androgens produced by the adrenal gland. Virilisation occurs when excess androgens are converted to testosterone in a genetically female foetus, causing the genitalia to resemble male genitalia. A deficiency of 5-alpha hydroxylase would rather decrease the production of testosterone and lead to the presentation of external female genitalia in a genetically male foetus. Autoantibodies against glutamic acid are seen in type 1 diabetes mellitus, while defects in the AIRE gene and the FOXP3 affect components of the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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You have been called to see a 5 hour old infant exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. The baby was born premature, and the mothers membranes had ruptured more than 24 hours before delivery. You are concerned that the infant is at risk of sepsis.The following statement best describes sepsis:
Your Answer: Dysregulated inflammatory response to infection
Explanation:Sepsis can be described as a condition in which there is a dysregulated inflammatory response to an infection. In the case of neonates, sepsis can be life threatening and may present with respiratory distress more than 4 hours after birth, shock, seizures, and multi organ failure. Risk factors that further point to sepsis include prolonged rupture of maternal membranes for more than 24 hours before birth, a history of a maternal fever during labour, or parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the mother for a suspected or confirmed bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 14
Correct
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Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.
Your Answer: Chi squared (X²) test
Explanation:The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who report that she has had multiple collapsing episodes over the past week. Each time she would collapse with the eyes shut and regain consciousness after 2 to 5 min with general weakness. The collapse is not followed by a post ictal state. The patient feels well and normal between these episodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope
Explanation:A vasovagal episode or vasovagal syncope is the most common form of reflex syncope. Reflex syncope is a general term used to describe types of syncope resulting from a failure in autoregulation of blood pressure, and ultimately, in cerebral perfusion pressure resulting in transient loss of consciousness. The mechanisms responsible for this are complex and involve both depression of cardiac output as well as a decrease in vascular tone. Other types of reflex syncope include carotid sinus syncope and situational syncope, for instance, cough or micturition syncope. Vasovagal syncope may be triggered by pain or emotional upset, although frequently a specific trigger cannot be identified.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan, generalized stiffness, swollen wrists and fingers and lower extremity oedema bilaterally. There is a facial rash over her cheeks and palms. She complains that while combing her hair, she has started to notice hair loss. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anticardiolipin antibodies
Correct Answer: Low serum complement levels
Explanation:Complement activation plays a key role in the pathophysiology of SLE and it is recommended to continue monitoring serum levels of C3 and C4 to assess for disease activity. However, it is important to note that decreased serum complement is not consistently associated with disease flares.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Correct
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A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever and urinary urgency. The temperature is recorded to be 39C. Which of the following is the best investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Clean catch of urine
Explanation:Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis?
Your Answer: Most patients manifest this dysfunction as part of Fanconi’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Children can present with nephrocalcinosis
Explanation:Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes Ca and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria, thus precipitating calcium compounds in the kidney. Other consequences of the dRTA in children include rickets, hypokalaemia, and polyuria. While dRTA can occur as a result of various pathologies including autoimmune disease, proximal renal tubular acidosis often presents as part of Fanconi’s syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA offering the child an acid load will decrease the urinary ph whereas in distal disease the pH will be unaffected due to impairment in hydrogen ion secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past year. According to the parents, he has episodes in the middle of the night where he sits up in bed, unresponsive, eyes wide open, arms outstretched, and thrashing. During these episodes, he usually looks frightened, will cry out, and then goes back to sleep again. The event lasts for 2–3 minutes and can occur up to three times a night. The following day, he is tired and falls asleep at school. What is the most appropriate next step to be taken for this patient?
Your Answer: Devise an appropriate sleep management plan
Correct Answer: Request an EEG
Explanation:The most appropriate next step would be to request for an EEG (electroencephalogram).The two primary differential diagnoses for the clinical scenario presented would be night terrors (hypnopompic hallucinations) due to underlying narcolepsy or frontal lobe epilepsy.Though occult airway obstruction and obstructive sleep apnoea can cause sleep disturbances, the clinical scenario presented is more suggestive of neurological disorders.The hyper-motor activity, along with arm posturing (often dystonic in appearance) and multiple occurrences per night would favour epilepsy. The daytime somnolence could be secondary to the nocturnal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?
Your Answer: Fixed splitting of S2
Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child?
Your Answer: Birthweight is doubled by 5 months
Correct Answer: Full growth hormone responsiveness develops in puberty
Explanation:Most healthy infants and children grow predictably, following a typical pattern of progression in weight, length, and head circumference. Normal human growth is pulsatile| periods of rapid growth (growth spurts) are separated by periods of no measurable growth Growth hormone levels and responsiveness’ develop in late infancy, increase during childhood and peak during puberty.Typical milestones — General guidelines regarding length or height gain during infancy and childhood include the following:- The average length at birth for a term infant is 20 inches (50 cm)- Infants grow 10 inches (25 cm) during the first year of life- Toddlers grow 4 inches (10 cm) between 12 and 24 months, 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 24 and 36 months, and 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 36 and 48 months- Children reach one-half of their adult height by 24 to 30 months- Children grow 2 inches per year (5 cm per year) between age four years and puberty- There is a normal deceleration of height velocity before the pubertal growth spurt.Growth continues past pubertal growth spurt as there is increase in spinal length.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer: Child-onset polycystic kidney disease
Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Explanation:Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 23
Correct
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In a premature infant boy, an inguinal hernia will most likely:
Your Answer: Recur after surgery
Explanation:Inguinal hernias are a common surgical condition in preterm male infants. Surgical repair is usually suggested shortly after birth due to a fear of incarceration or strangulation. These hernias are often indirect as they pass though the processes vaginalis, rather than the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Recurrence of the hernia is the most common post operative complication. While other complications can occur if left un-repaired, hydrocele and testicular atrophy are not as common, neither is spontaneous resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 24
Correct
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An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular rash. She had a previous history of flu-like illness and sore throat diagnosed as tonsillitis for which she was prescribed Amoxicillin. On examination, she has widespread cervical lymphadenopathy and petechiae on her palate. What is the most likely underlying pathogen?
Your Answer: Epstein Barr Virus
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely underlying pathogen is the Epstein Barr virus (EBV).An Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infection most commonly results in upper respiratory tract symptoms with fever and sore throat. Lymphadenopathy is frequently palpable on examination. Splenomegaly may also occur, and for this reason, patients diagnosed with glandular fever should be advised to avoid contact sports for one month following diagnosis. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is also associated with EBV infection. The vast majority of patients with active EBV infection will develop a widespread rash if given amoxicillin, therefore, phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is recommended for the treatment of a suspected bacterial throat infection to prevent this complication occurring for individuals who have EBV infection.Other options:- Coronavirus: This is one of the causes of the common cold and is frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, the presenting features are more suggestive of an EBV infection.- Group A Streptococcus: Streptococci are classified into two main groups| alpha-haemolytic and beta-haemolytic. Group A Streptococcus belongs to the beta-haemolytic group. Group A streptococcal infection is a common cause of bacterial tonsillitis. It is possible that the child, in this case, had streptococcal tonsillitis and has had a drug reaction to the amoxicillin. However her age, flu-like symptoms and petechiae on her palate all point to an EBV infection and amoxicillin resulting in a rash.- Parainfluenza: Parainfluenza viruses are one of many causes of the common cold and can cause pharyngitis. They are the leading cause of viral croup.- Rhinovirus: Rhinoviruses are one of many causes of the common cold and are frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, are other factors suggesting EBV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 25
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy complains of chest pain. Examination reveals hypotension and tachycardia with distended neck veins and a displaced trachea. What is the next appropriate management?
Your Answer: Needle thoracocenthesis
Explanation:The patient history suggests a spontaneous tension pneumothorax which is a life-threatening situation in which excess air is introduced into the pleural space surrounding the lung. When there is a significant amount of air trapped in the pleural cavity, the increasing pressure from this abnormal air causes the lung to shrink and collapse, leading to respiratory distress. This pressure also pushes the mediastinum (including the heart and great vessels) away from its central position, e.g. deviated trachea, and diminishing the cardiac output. Tension pneumothoraxes cause chest pain, extreme shortness of breath, respiratory failure, hypoxia, tachycardia, and hypotension. These are definitively managed by insertion of a chest tube. However, in the emergency setting temporizing measures are needed while chest tube materials are being gathered. In these situations, urgent needle thoracostomy (also called needle decompression) is performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Correct
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A 15-year-old male presents complaining of gradually increasing fatigue. He says that he turned vegan a year ago. He explains that he takes vitamin B12 supplements every day. Considering iron deficiency anaemia as a possible cause, you order some blood tests to confirm. Which of the following would increase the ability of the body to absorb dietary iron?
Your Answer: Consuming iron in its ferrous (Fe2+) form
Explanation:Consuming iron in its Fe2+ (ferrous form) form can improve the ability to absorb dietary iron in patients with iron deficiency anaemia (IDA). Clinical features of IDA include:- Koilonychia- Atrophic glossitis- Post-cricoid webs- Angular stomatitisThe peripheral blood smear shows the following abnormal RBC morphologies:- Target cells- Pencil poikilocytes- Microcytic-hypochromic cells
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 27
Correct
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An infant born at term presents with low blood sugar and a history of poor feeding. She was born with exomphalos and a large left arm. What is the most probable condition that the baby is going to develop?
Your Answer: Wilms’ tumour
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests that the baby has Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome, which predisposes the individual to cancer. The most common childhood tumour that a person with Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome may develop is Wilms’ tumour. Typical features include: macrosomia, asymmetric limb growth, macroglossia, neonatal hypoglycaemia, umbilical hernias or other abdominal wall deformities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl, known to have atopic eczema since she was six months old, presents because her parents are worried about several skin changes. They are concerned that they could be caused by topical steroid ointments. Which of the following is more likely to be present due to the disease, rather than as a side-effect of the treatment?
Your Answer: Hypopigmentation
Explanation:Hypopigmentation is a side-effect that is more likely to be due to eczema rather than topical steroids therapy.All the options provided are potential side-effects of topical steroid therapy. They are observed when the potency of the steroid used is too high, or the amount of drug used is too much.. FTU or fingertip unit application is what is recommended, with caution, in delicate areas such as the face. Hypopigmentation can occur in eczema and is a post-inflammatory response, in contrast to the total depigmentation which is seen in vitiligo. Chronic eczema causes lichenification of skin, where the epidermis is thickened, and not skin atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 2-week-old infant is suffering from hydrocephalus that has developed secondary to congenital spina bifida. Where in the brain is the CSF formed?
Your Answer: Choroid plexuses
Explanation:CSF is produced mainly by a structure called the choroid plexus in the lateral, third and fourth ventricles. CSF flows from the lateral ventricle to the third ventricle through the interventricular foramen (also called the foramen of Monro). The third ventricle and fourth ventricle are connected to each other by the cerebral aqueduct (also called the Aqueduct of Sylvius). CSF then flows into the subarachnoid space through the foramina of Luschka (there are two of these) and the foramen of Magendie (only one of these).Absorption of the CSF into the blood stream takes place in the superior sagittal sinus through structures called arachnoid villi . When the CSF pressure is greater than the venous pressure, CSF will flow into the blood stream.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum?
Your Answer: Should never be treated with steroid cream
Correct Answer: Is usually associated with lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Eczema herpeticum (also called Kaposi varicelliform eruption) is a disseminated viral illness usually associated with lymphadenopathy.It is most often caused by Herpes Simplex type 1 or type 2. Occasionally, other viruses such as coxsackievirus A16 may cause eczema herpeticum. Affected children usually develop itchy blisters and fever after coming in contact with an affected individual who may or may not display cold sores.It is characterised by an itchy and sometimes painful cluster of blisters most commonly on the face initially. This spreads over one to several weeks resulting in further crops of blisters which can become confluent. Lymphadenopathy and fever are common in these patients.The severity varies from mild illness to life-threatening, especially in immunocompromised children or young infants. It is markedly more common in children with atopic dermatitis. It is one of the few dermatological emergencies, and oral antivirals are often indicated. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be needed if there is eyelid or eye involvement. Occasionally, superadded skin infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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