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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is the most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma:

      Your Answer: IgA

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      IgA is the major Ig in secretions, particularly from the gastrointestinal tract (but also in saliva, tears, sweat and breast milk). IgE is important for mast cell degranulation in allergic and antiparasitic response. In the allergic response, the plasma cell produces IgE-antibodies, which, like antibodies of other immunoglobulin isotypes, are capable of binding a specific allergen via its Fab portion. IgG is the most abundant in plasma (comprising 80% of normal serum immunoglobulin) and the main circulatory Ig for the secondary immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Pathology
      3.5
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - The sympathetic supply to the stomach comes from the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The sympathetic supply to the stomach comes from the:

      Your Answer: Vagus

      Correct Answer: Celiac plexus

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve supplies the stomach and up to proximal two-thirds of the large intestine and has parasympathetic stimulation. The sympathetic chain which begins at the level of he 1st thoracic vertebra and extends up to 3rd lumbar vertebra gives off the celiac plexus which mainly supplies the stomach. The mesenteric plexus mainly supplies the small intestine and is located below the celiac plexus in the sympathetic chain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      4.1
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?

      Your Answer: 5α-reductase

      Explanation:

      The enzyme 5α-reductase synthesizes DHT from testosterone in the prostate, testes, hair follicles, and adrenal glands. This enzyme reduces the 4,5 double-bond of the testosterone. Relative to testosterone, DHT is much more potent as an agonist of the androgen receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      3.8
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via: ...

    Correct

    • Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via:

      Your Answer: Cadherins

      Explanation:

      Cadherins are calcium dependant molecules that mediate cell to cell adhesions in epithelial and endothelial cells among others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      6.5
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on...

    Incorrect

    • What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen?

      Your Answer: Adduction of the eyeball

      Correct Answer: Elevation of the upper eyelid

      Explanation:

      The levator palpebrae superioris is the muscle in the orbit that elevates the superior (upper) eyelid. The levator palpebrae superioris originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen and receives somatic motor input from the ipsilateral superior division of the oculomotor nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.1
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with: ...

    Correct

    • The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with:

      Your Answer: Mesothelial cells

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid mater is one of the three meninges that covers the brain and spinal cord. It is interposed between the two other meninges, the more superficial and much thicker dura mater and the deeper pia mater, from which it is separated by the subarachnoid space. The arachnoid mater consists of a subdural mesothelial layer and a compact central layer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6.3
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - The coronary sinus drains into the: ...

    Correct

    • The coronary sinus drains into the:

      Your Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus drains into the right atrium. Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3.7
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes:

      Your Answer: Influx of Ca++

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca++ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.2
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Nitric oxide triggers vascular smooth muscle contraction through activation of which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Nitric oxide triggers vascular smooth muscle contraction through activation of which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Protein kinase a

      Correct Answer: Guanylyl cyclase

      Explanation:

      Impaired production or excess catabolism of NO impairs this endothelium-dependent vasodilator function and may contribute to excessive vasoconstriction under various pathological situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - The Plateau phase in myocyte action potentials does all of the following except:...

    Incorrect

    • The Plateau phase in myocyte action potentials does all of the following except:

      Your Answer: This phase is unique to myocytes

      Correct Answer: It allows early reactivation of the myocytes

      Explanation:

      The presence of the plateau in the action potential causes ventricular contraction to last as much as 15 times longer in cardiac muscle as in skeletal muscle. The plateau phase which follows is unique to myocytes and results from a small, but sustained inward calcium current through L-type calcium channels lasting 200-400 ms. This calcium influx is caused by a combined increase in permeability of the cell and especially the sarcolemmal membranes to calcium. This plateau (refractory) phase prevents early reactivation of the myocytes and directly determines the strength of contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      6
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located:

      Your Answer: At the apical surface of the villi

      Correct Answer: At the base of the crypts

      Explanation:

      Epithelial cells are renewed every 4-5 days through a process of renewal and migration. Renewal relies on proliferative cells or stem cells that reside at the crypt base of the intestinal glands. Crypts are epithelial invasions into the underlying connective tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      5.2
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline?

      Your Answer: Pyruvate dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Ornithine transcarbamoylase

      Explanation:

      Carbamoyl phosphate is converted to citrulline by ornithine transcarbamoylase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - What is the normal duration of the ST segment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal duration of the ST segment?

      Your Answer: 0.02 s

      Correct Answer: 0.08 s

      Explanation:

      The ST segment lies between the QRS complex and the T-wave. The normal duration of the ST segment is 0.08 s. ST-segment elevation or depression may indicate myocardial ischaemia or infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      4
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax...

    Correct

    • Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax and upper abdomen?

      Your Answer: CN X

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve X supplies the structures of the thorax and abdomen. All the rest of the cranial nerves supply the structures in the head and neck

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.3
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      The submandibular glands provide the bulk of salivary secretions contributing close to 70%. The sublingual glands provide 5% and the remainder from the parotid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Cold receptors are likely to be active at the following temperatures except? ...

    Correct

    • Cold receptors are likely to be active at the following temperatures except?

      Your Answer: 39 °C

      Explanation:

      Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is primarily responsible for the detection of temperatures ranging from 8-28 C. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca+ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.3
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Shortened by sympathetic stimulation

      Explanation:

      AV nodal delay Is about 0.1s before the action potential spreads to the ventricles. It is shortened by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and lengthened by stimulation of the parasympathetic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.3
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation...

    Incorrect

    • Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation of covalent cross-linkages?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Correct Answer: Factor XIIIa

      Explanation:

      Factor XIII or fibrin stabilizing factor is an enzyme of the blood coagulation system that crosslinks fibrin. Deficiency of this factor (FXIIID) affects clot stability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - All of the following constitute small intestinal brush border enzymes except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following constitute small intestinal brush border enzymes except:

      Your Answer: Glucoamylase

      Correct Answer: Alpha-amylase

      Explanation:

      The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli which extend from the cell known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes. All these enzymes except alfa amylase are brush border enzymes. Alfa amylase is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Endotoxin will typically act on which one of the following cells, to produce...

    Incorrect

    • Endotoxin will typically act on which one of the following cells, to produce endogenous pyrogens?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Endotoxin, also known as lipopolysaccharides or lipoglycans, are molecules that consist of a lipid and a polysaccharide. They bind to many cell types, but especially to monocytes, promoting the secretion of proinflammatory cytokines, acting as a pyrogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      5.4
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Correct

    • Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck. The posterior triangle has the following boundaries: anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle posteriorly – trapezius roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles The contents of the posterior triangle are: 1. fat 2. lymph nodes (level V) 3. accessory nerve 4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5) 5. inferior belly of omohyoid 6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries) 7. third part of the subclavian artery 8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      4.2
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: M2

      Correct Answer: Α1

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors cause uterine contraction during pregnancy. They are linked to Gq-proteins that activate smooth muscle contraction through the IP3 signal transduction pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.2
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer?

      Your Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of autosomal dominant familial retinoblastoma have at least one mutated copy of the RB gene. This predisposes the patient to develop retinoblastoma in one or both the eyes. Patients with a family history should be screened properly so that it can be detected and treated as early as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Physiology
      4.9
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - The production of bile is increased by: Stimulation of the ____ nerve and...

    Incorrect

    • The production of bile is increased by: Stimulation of the ____ nerve and the hormone ____.

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal, secretin

      Correct Answer: Vagus, CCK

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin is synthesized and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum, the first segment of the small intestine, and causes the release of digestive enzymes and bile from the pancreas and gallbladder, respectively. It also acts as a hunger suppressant. Release of CCK is stimulated by monitor peptide released by pancreatic acinar cells as well as CCK-releasing protein, a paracrine factor secreted by enterocytes in the gastrointestinal mucosa. In addition, release of acetylcholine by the parasympathetic nerve fibers of the vagus nerve also stimulate its secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome?

      Your Answer: Scurvy

      Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      The main syndrome of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms:Megaloblastic anaemiaGastrointestinal symptoms &Neurological symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolism
      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - The chief cells of the stomach secrete which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The chief cells of the stomach secrete which of the following?

      Your Answer: Pepsinogens

      Explanation:

      A gastric chief cell (or peptic cell, or gastric zymogenic cell) is a type of cell in the stomach that releases pepsinogen and gastric lipase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      5.1
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - What landmark divides the frontal and parietal lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What landmark divides the frontal and parietal lobes?

      Your Answer: Lateral fissure

      Correct Answer: Central sulcus

      Explanation:

      The central sulcus divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. It contains the motor cells for the movement function of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.4
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Pre-oxygenation is done prior to intubation to extend the ‘safe apnoea time’. Which...

    Correct

    • Pre-oxygenation is done prior to intubation to extend the ‘safe apnoea time’. Which lung volume or capacity is the most important store of oxygen in the body?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity

      Explanation:

      The administration of oxygen to a patient before intubation is called pre-oxygenation and it helps extend the ‘safe apnoea time’. The Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs after normal tidal expiration. It is the most important store of oxygen in the body. The aim of pre-oxygenation is to replace the nitrogen in the FRC with oxygen. Apnoea can be tolerated for longer periods before critical hypoxia develops if the FRC is large. Patients with reduced FRC reach critical hypoxia more rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      4
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - The internodal tract of Bachman: ...

    Correct

    • The internodal tract of Bachman:

      Your Answer: Connects the SA node to the AV node

      Explanation:

      Internodal tract of Bachman connects the SA node to the AV node conducting the electrical impulses generated from the SA node to the AV node and from the AV node to the rest of the electrical complex of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was...

    Correct

    • A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was brought in to the emergency department with suspicion of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). The SHO on call decided to have a diagnostic lumbar puncture after computed topography scan failed to support the suspicion. To perform a successful lumbar puncture without causing injury to the spine, which anatomical landmark should guide the SHO to locate the fourth vertebra for insertion of the spinal needle?

      Your Answer: Iliac crest

      Explanation:

      The safest spinal level for conducting a lumbar puncture, is at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra. The anatomical landmark used to locate the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4), is the iliac crest. The needle can safely be inserted either above or below L4. The conus medullaris is at the level of the border of L1 and L2 so L4 is safely distant from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immunology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (1/4) 25%
Physiology (10/26) 38%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (3/7) 43%
Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Head & Neck (2/3) 67%
Neurology (3/6) 50%
Cell Biology (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Metabolism (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
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