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  • Question 1 - Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts? ...

    Correct

    • Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (also known as von Recklinghausen disease) does not present with cataracts.The eye findings in NF1 are Lisch’s nodules, which are pigmentary lesions seen on the iris and constitute one of the major diagnostic features in this condition. Note:Interestingly, in another syndrome closely related to it, Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF-2), cataracts can occur. Early detection in family members may be made by finding lens opacities (both congenital polar cataracts and posterior lenticular opacities). Other options:- Incontinentia pigmenti is an X-linked dominant disorder with pigmentary skin changes, mental retardation and eye involvement in 40% of cases. – Myotonic dystrophy is a triplet-repeat disorder with neurological symptoms and cataracts. – Lowe syndrome (oculo-cerebro-renal syndrome) is an X-linked recessive condition. Males with this X-linked recessive condition have cataracts, hypotonia, mental retardation, generalised aminoaciduria and renal tubular acidosis with hypophosphatemia. – Wilson disease is an inborn error of copper metabolism. The clinical features include hepatic involvement, progressive neurological features, eye involvement, including Kayser–Fleischer rings and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in...

    Correct

    • A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths| Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap| advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the appropriate management for a child who has repeated UTIs? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate management for a child who has repeated UTIs?

      Your Answer: Surgery

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic antibiotics should be given to the child to avoid infections and renal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Absence of which of the following milestones warrants further assessment in a 15-month-old...

    Correct

    • Absence of which of the following milestones warrants further assessment in a 15-month-old child?

      Your Answer: Stand holding onto furniture

      Explanation:

      By 15 months, it’s common for many toddlers to:- say three to five words.- understand and follow simple commands.- point to one body part.- walk alone and begin to run.- climb on furniture.- make marks with a crayon.- imitate activities, such as housework.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50...

    Correct

    • In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50 out of 200 non-smokers developed lung cancers. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer: Relative risk=2

      Explanation:

      Relative risk = (Incidence in exposed group)/incidence in unexposed group). So in this case RR = (50/100)/(50/200) = 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle following a fall from his bicycle.Which vessel is at the highest risk of injury?

      Your Answer: External carotid artery

      Correct Answer: Subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      Being anatomically situated immediately posterior to the subclavius muscle and the medial part of the clavicle, the subclavian vein is at the highest risk of injury in the above patient.As a direct tributary of the brachiocephalic vein, it’s injury poses a high risk of massive bleeding.The brachiocephalic vein rests on the first rib, below and in front of the third part of the subclavian artery, and then on scalenus anterior which separates it from the second part of the artery (posteriorly).Anatomy of the clavicle:The clavicle extends from the sternum to the acromion and helps prevent the shoulder falling forwards and downwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      627.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Reassure and discharge with head injury advice

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT team

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-1

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid is the protective liquid that surrounds the fetus in utero. It prevents the fetus from injury, protects the umbilical cord from compression, and provides necessary nutrients and a medium for growth and movement. Amniotic fluid originates from the maternal plasma initially, but by 16th week of gestation, fetal kidneys start making urine which contributes to further production of the amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid contains a number of chemical substances including hormones, tumour markers, nutrients, electrolytes, and immunoglobulins. Main substances found in amniotic fluid include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, lactoferrin, insulin-like growth factor, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, erythropoietin, etc. Interleukin-1 is not a component of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?

      Your Answer: Blood flows in the ductus arteriosus from right to left

      Correct Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium

      Explanation:

      In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Today was Jacob’s birthday. This morning he woke up very excited and picked...

    Incorrect

    • Today was Jacob’s birthday. This morning he woke up very excited and picked out a pair of shorts and t-shirt in his favourite colour, blue, with matching blue sandals. He brushed his teeth with supervision, and used the toilet by himself. He greeted each of his friends at the door with an excited jump. At the party he ran around and jumped on the small trampoline in the backyard with his friends. He tried to skip like some if his friends, but he wasn’t able to do it as evenly. How old is Jacob likely to be?

      Your Answer: 3 years of age

      Correct Answer: 4 years of age

      Explanation:

      Jacob is likely to be four years old as demonstrated by his activities throughout the day. Most 4 year olds are able to run well, jump and hop, but find skipping a little more difficult. They are able to brush their teeth and dress themselves with supervision, and go to the toilet alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates milk after a feed, especially when laying on her back. Doctors suspect gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR). What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Barium swallow

      Correct Answer: Reassure the parents

      Explanation:

      Most experts suggest that parents reassurance in case of infantile gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a sufficient initial measure that involves education about regurgitation and lifestyle changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following findings is associated with genu valgus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings is associated with genu valgus?

      Your Answer: In-toeing

      Correct Answer: Out-toeing

      Explanation:

      Gait variations in children are usually physiologically normal and only become a cause of concern when they persist or are associated with pain or other medical symptoms. Genu varus, also known as knock knees causes an outward rotation of the leg, leading the toes pointing outwards. The condition usually resolves by the age of 18 months. In comparison, in- toeing occurs with genu varus. Metatarsus adductus is also associated with an inward pointing of the toes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

      Your Answer: Persistent wolffian duct

      Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure

      Explanation:

      Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past year. According to the parents, he has episodes in the middle of the night where he sits up in bed, unresponsive, eyes wide open, arms outstretched, and thrashing. During these episodes, he usually looks frightened, will cry out, and then goes back to sleep again. The event lasts for 2–3 minutes and can occur up to three times a night. The following day, he is tired and falls asleep at school. What is the most appropriate next step to be taken for this patient?

      Your Answer: Obtain a multiple sleep latency test for narcolepsy

      Correct Answer: Request an EEG

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step would be to request for an EEG (electroencephalogram).The two primary differential diagnoses for the clinical scenario presented would be night terrors (hypnopompic hallucinations) due to underlying narcolepsy or frontal lobe epilepsy.Though occult airway obstruction and obstructive sleep apnoea can cause sleep disturbances, the clinical scenario presented is more suggestive of neurological disorders.The hyper-motor activity, along with arm posturing (often dystonic in appearance) and multiple occurrences per night would favour epilepsy. The daytime somnolence could be secondary to the nocturnal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 3-year-old boy was brought at the hospital by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy was brought at the hospital by his mother due to sudden onset pyrexia with emesis and bilateral facial swelling. Upon history taking, she mentions that she brought her son to the GP who suggested analgesics for his bilateral parotid pain, 2 days ago. What would be the next step of your management?

      Your Answer: Immediate surgery

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of mumps. Mumps is a viral disease with initial signs and symptoms including fever, muscle pain, headache, poor appetite, and feeling tired. This is then usually followed by painful swelling of one or both parotid salivary glands. Mumps is a self-limiting condition treated only for symptomatic relief. As he currently is taking analgesics for pain relief, one should only offer reassurance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are...

    Correct

    • A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are they most commonly associated?

      Your Answer: Medulla of the thymus

      Explanation:

      Hassall’s corpuscles are groups of epithelial cells within the thymic medulla. The physical nature of these structures differs between mammalian species. Although Hassall’s corpuscles have been proposed to act in both the removal of apoptotic thymocytes and the maturation of developing thymocytes within the thymus, the function of Hassall’s corpuscles has remained an enigma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after birth. Which of the following heart conditions might the baby have?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a common congenital heart lesion that presents with severe cyanosis that is likely to appear in the first day of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      105.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Foramen of Magendie

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 11-year-old boy presents with complaints of deep pain in his right leg...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy presents with complaints of deep pain in his right leg for the past four weeks. His mother describes him as ‘being off-colour’ of late. The physical examination of the child revealed no findings. Blood investigations reveal: Hb: 11.5 g/dL (13-18) WBC Count: 2.0 x 109/L (4-11) Differential Count: Neutrophils: 0.5 x 109/L (1.5-7.0) Lymphocytes: 1.4 x 109/L (1.5-4.0) Platelet count: 160 x 109/L (150-400) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate: 50 mm in the 1st hourUrea and electrolytes were found to be within the normal range. An MRI showed diffuse uptake in both femurs, which are highly suggestive of tumour infiltration. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The clinical features and the presentation of this child and the MRI findings are highly suggestive of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.Anaemia and neutropenia, with a borderline platelet count as well as the tumour infiltration on both femurs on the MRI scan, are suggestive of a widespread Marrow disorder. Based on the age of the patient, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is more appropriate as it is more common than acute myeloid leukaemia in children and can present with bony pain in this age group.Other options:- Acute myeloid leukaemia: Although this is the most common leukaemia that is seen in adults, it rarely presents in children. – Ewing’s sarcoma: This would usually present in a more unilateral manner, and would only be associated with cytopenia if there was direct bone marrow involvement.- HIV infection: It would be very rare in this group. HIV infection can cause a wide array of signs and symptoms, but we are told that the MRI scan is highly suggestive of tumour infiltration, which would be uncommon in this condition. – Juvenile arthritis: It is much less common. There is also nothing to find on examination, such as swollen or painful joints, which would usually be seen in this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
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  • Question 21 - What developmental milestones would you expect to observe during the assessment of a...

    Incorrect

    • What developmental milestones would you expect to observe during the assessment of a normally developing 6-month-old boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lost Moro reflex

      Explanation:

      Among the provided options, we would expect a normally developing six-month-old child to have lost Moro’s reflex.Note:The Moro reflex is present from birth and persists until 4 months of age. It is abnormal for the Moro reflex to persist much beyond this stage, and if it does, cerebral palsy should be considered.A normal 6-month old baby should be able to roll over from front to back, readily follow objects with their eyes, transfer objects from hand to hand, recognise parental voices and babble and laugh.Other options:- Having a pincer grip is more typical of a 9-12-month-old.- Although at 6 months babies are often able to sit briefly or with support, sitting steadily is typically seen at 9 months.- Starting to stand with support is more typical of a 9-12-month-old.- Waving bye-bye is more typical of a 9-12-month-old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      0
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  • Question 22 - A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a...

    Incorrect

    • A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 23 - A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born...

    Incorrect

    • A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born to a mother who had not booked at the hospital. Her notes are not available and she does not speak English. However, her partner has managed to communicate that Zika virus had been confirmed in pregnancy. The midwife wants to know if it is safe for the mother to breastfeed the baby in the meantime.What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Encourage breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Possible Zika virus infections have been identified in breastfeeding babies, but Zika virus transmission through breast milk has not been confirmed. Additionally, we do not yet know the long-term effects of Zika virus on young infants infected after birth. Because current evidence suggests that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of Zika virus spreading through breast milk, CDC continues to encourage mothers to breastfeed, even if they were infected or lived in or travelled to an area with risk of Zika.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton

      Explanation:

      The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 6 month old baby has been exclusively breast fed for two years,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old baby has been exclusively breast fed for two years, and now receives a mixture of bottle feeds and breast milk. The mother of the child wants advice on how to wean the baby. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate advice to give the mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infant led weaning can be tried first if the mother is happy with this

      Explanation:

      At the age of 6 months, children can begin to be weaned off breastmilk and formula feeds. One healthy and inexpensive way to do this is through infant led weaning as opposed to the conventional spoon feeding method. Children are able to enjoy a variety of soft finger foods even before they grow teeth, so all food does not need to be pureed or sweet. Children should however not be given cow’s milk until the age of 1 year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 26 - The following best describes non parametric tests: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following best describes non parametric tests:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Are less powerful than parametric tests

      Explanation:

      Compared to parametric tests, non parametric tests are seen to be less powerful as they often contend with fewer assumptions, and may use less information from the data. Sample sizes can be smaller. The samples do not have to follow a normal distribution as in parametric tests, and data may be ordinal, ranked or contain outliers that cannot be removed. Therefore nonparametric tests are well suited for these instances and do not need to be used as a last resort. They are not any more complex than parametric tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 3-year-old boy presents with a patchy rash after treatment for an enlarged...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy presents with a patchy rash after treatment for an enlarged cervical lymph node and sore throat. What is the antibiotic that caused this rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampicillin

      Explanation:

      An enlarged lymph node does not necessarily need treatment especially if it is caused by a virus. If it is bacterial, antibiotics should be prescribed. Amoxicillin is first line treatment in non-penicillin allergic patients and side effects include allergic reactions like skin rash and itching

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past presented with a recent history of wetting himself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin

      Explanation:

      As this boy has experienced significant dry spells in the past, it is unlikely that a structural abnormality is causing the enuresis. The only therapies that have been shown to be effective in randomized trials are alarm therapy and treatment with desmopressin acetate or imipramine. Bladder training exercises are not recommended. Desmopressin acetate is the preferred medication for treating children with enuresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystine stone

      Explanation:

      Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commonly preceded by a viral infection

      Explanation:

      While the cause for Bell’s palsy is still under debate, it is observed that Bell’s palsy is often preceded by a viral infection. Bell’s Palsy:Bell’s palsy (idiopathic facial palsy) is an acute unilateral lower motor neurone palsy. It typically occurs two weeks after viral infection such as Epstein–Barr, herpes simplex, herpes zoster or mumps. A careful assessment may suggest an alternative aetiology for the acute onset of weakness, e.g. acute otitis media, Lyme disease, hypertension. Causes:In childhood, Bell’s palsy is probably a post-infectious (i.e. immune-mediated) phenomenon, while in adults, there is increasing evidence that the majority of cases follow reactivation of previous HSV infection. Management:The prognosis is generally good in childhood with full recovery in the majority. However, permanent weakness is observed in around 5%. Steroids and acyclovir may have some benefit in adults with recent onset of weakness, but the evidence of the treatment benefit is much less convincing in childhood. Exposure keratitis is an important complication and children should be managed with eye drops and taping of the eyelid at night until recovery is complete.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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