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Question 1
Correct
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A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?
Your Answer: Sulphonamides
Explanation:Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 2
Correct
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Damage to which of the following nerves may cause an absent jaw jerk reflex?
Your Answer: Trigeminal
Explanation:The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the muscles of mastication and well as providing sensory input for most of the head. In testing the function of this nerve, the jaw jerk reflex may be brisk in cases of upper motor neuron lesions, but is however absent in nuclear or infra nuclear lesions involving the trigeminal nerve. Other nerve reflexes include the gag reflex of the glossopharyngeal nerve, and the pupillary light reflex of the optic nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is true of miliaria?
Your Answer: Miliaria crystalline causes tiny, fragile clear vesicles
Explanation:Miliaria is a common skin disease caused by blockage and/or inflammation of eccrine sweat ducts. Miliaria is frequently seen in hot, humid or tropical climates, in patients in the hospital, and in the neonatal period. Miliaria is also known as sweat rash.Based on the level of the sweat duct obstruction, miliaria is divided into three subtypes:- Miliaria crystallina (sudamina), caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts close to the surface of the skin (epidermis)|- Miliaria rubra, caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts deeper in the epidermis|- Miliaria profunda (tropical anhidrosis), the result of sweat leaking into the middle layer of skin (dermis).Miliaria crystallina appears as 1–2 mm superficial clear blisters that easily break. The blisters can look like beads of sweat. There is no inflammation. The blisters are usually seen widely spread on the head, neck, and upper trunk.Miliaria rubra is the most common type of miliaria results in red, 2–4 mm, non-follicular papules and papulovesicles. They are very itchy. Background erythema is often present. In children, miliaria affects the skin folds of the neck, axilla or groin. In adults, miliaria often affects the upper trunk, scalp, neck and flexures, particularly areas of friction with clothing. Miliaria pustulosa is a variant of milia rubra in which there are pustules.Miliaria profunda describes asymptomatic deep papules. The flesh–coloured, 1–3 mm diameter papules usually arise on the trunk and extremities.Mild Topical steroids can be used as a treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?
Your Answer: Hyporeninaemia
Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure
Explanation:Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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Surfactant reduces the surface tension at the air/liquid interface in the lung. Which of the following cells produce surfactant in the lung parenchyma?
Your Answer: Type II pneumocyte
Explanation:Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted by the epithelial type II cells into the alveolar space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the primary reason for a written protocol?
Your Answer: Document the process of the trial in advance
Explanation:A written protocol is important in clinical research as it helps to decrease bias with early findings as the process of the trial has been documented in advance. To show that the study has been properly undertaken before commencing, the investigators must document their names| they must describe the process, detail the analysis that will be undertaken, and provide a power calculation. The ethics committee does not always need to see the protocol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 7
Correct
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What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour?
Your Answer: Abdominal mass
Explanation:The most common manifestation of Wilms tumour is an asymptomatic abdominal mass| an abdominal mass occurs in 80% of children at presentation. Abdominal pain or haematuria occurs in 25%. Urinary tract infection and varicocele are less common findings than these. Hypertension, gross haematuria, and fever are observed in 5-30% of patients. A few patients with haemorrhage into their tumour may present with hypotension, anaemia, and fever. Rarely, patients with advanced disease may present with respiratory symptoms related to lung metastases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for a child who has repeated UTIs?
Your Answer: Increase fluids
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics
Explanation:Prophylactic antibiotics should be given to the child to avoid infections and renal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with complaints of ear pain. The pain started last night and prevented him from sleeping. He reports that sounds are muffled on the affected side. On examination, he has a fever. A bulging tympanic membrane with a visible fluid level is seen on otoscopy. You suspect a diagnosis of acute suppurative otitis media. Tensor tympani is a muscle that is found in the middle ear. What is the nerve supplying the tensor tympani?
Your Answer: Vestibulocochlear nerve
Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve
Explanation:The nerve supply to the tensor tympani is the mandibular nerve.The mandibular nerve is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that carries motor fibres.Tensor tympani is a muscle that lies in a bony canal just superior to the pharyngotympanic tube. It originates from the cartilaginous portion of the pharyngotympanic tube, the bony canal in which it sits, and the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. It inserts into the upper part of the handle of the malleus. When contracted, it pulls the handle of the malleus medially. This action increases the tension across the tympanic membrane, reducing the magnitude of vibrations transmitted into the middle ear. This dampens loud noises or noises produced by chewing. Tensor tympani is innervated through the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve.Other options:- The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. This nerve has two components, a vestibular division that carries balance information, and a cochlear division that carries hearing information.- The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve. It has a wide range of functions. It carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, as well as sensation from the pharyngeal wall and tonsils, the middle ear, external auditory canal and auricle. It carries parasympathetic fibres that supply the parotid gland. It also supplies the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus and supplies the secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland.- The maxillary nerve carries only sensory fibres.- The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve. It supplies the muscles of facial expression, as well as stylohyoid, the posterior belly of digastric, and stapedius (the only other muscle associated with the middle ear). It carries taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and sensation from part of the external acoustic meatus, parts of the auricle and the retro-auricular area. It provides secretomotor fibres which supply to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland (via chorda tympani nerve), nasal glands and lacrimal glands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 10
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination, her eyes were red. But she denied any ocular or visual discomfort.Which of the following should be suspected in this patient?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:When a child with joint problems presents with red-eye, the likelihood of anterior uveitis must be excluded by involving an ophthalmologist in the assessment. This is because uveitis is the most common extra-articular manifestation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Other options:- Cataract: It does not give rise to a red-eye, but leukocoria. Often this would have been picked up at an earlier age. – A patient with a corneal foreign body almost would almost invariably give a suspicious history (onset while playing outdoors etc.), as well as have marked symptoms of ocular discomfort (red, watery and painful eyes). – A child with periorbital cellulitis often presents acutely unwell and distressed. – A child with an uncorrected refractive error often complains of being unable to see in class and does not normally present with ocular redness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Correct
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Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:Patent ductus arteriosus is a heart defect that occurs in around 50% of the preterm or low birth weight infants. It is characterized by the failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth. There are certain risk factors which predispose an infant to a patent ductus arteriosus. The most important risk factor is trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome, which is associated with multiple cardiac defects. Other factors are congenital rubella syndrome, birth at high altitudes, and female gender.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Correct
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A 15 month old girl from Greece presents with pallor. Her mother complains that she always seems tired. However, she has no problems with eating and has a fairly balanced diet. She was born in a rural part of the Greece and just recently moved to the UK with her parents. She hasn’t had any previous blood tests or investigations done since her birth. She has been on the second centile since her first check up in the UK, but has not lost any weight. The following are the results of her investigations. Hb 5.5g/dlMCV 62 flWBC 4.3 x 109/lPLT 430 x 109/lReticulocyte count 490 x 109/l (normal range 20-100 x 109/lFerritin 260 ng/ml (normal range: 20-300 ng/ml)Blood film: hypochromic microcytic red cells, polychromasia, fragmented red cells, nucleated red cellsWhat is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thalassaemia
Explanation:The differentials of the child’s condition are likely to include an Iron deficiency anaemia, or a hemoglobinopathy such as sickle cell disease or thalassemia based on the presentation of pallor, growth failure and easy fatiguability. While the full blood count and film present a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with reticulocytosis, the normal serum ferritin levels rule out iron deficiency anaemia. Thalassemia is to be suspected over sickle cell disease as the patient comes from the Mediterranean region known for a high incidence of thalassemia. Sickle cell anaemia also tends to present with normocytic normochromic red blood cells, with many sickled cells. Vitamin B12 deficiency and Aplastic anaemia are ruled out as they present with a macrocytic anaemia, and a decrease in white blood cells, platelets and red blood cells respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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In the treatment of infants with gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is the most accurate one?
Your Answer: In most instances require treatment with an antibiotic which is not absorbed from the gut
Correct Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally
Explanation:The main problem with infants having gastroenteritis is dehydration. So they should be admitted to the hospital for IV fluids if they are not tolerating oral fluids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic hair. What is the present stage of pubic hair development in this boy according to the Tanner system?
Your Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:Based on the clinical presentation, the pubic hair development is in Tanner stage 2.The Tanner stages for pubic hair are as follows:Stage 1 – pre-adolescentStage 2 – sparse hair that is long, slightly pigmented and downyStage 3 – hair spread over the junction of the pubes, darker and coarserStage 4 – adult-type hair, but the area covered is smaller than it is in an adult.Stage 5 – adult in quantity and type
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Correct
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A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Undescended testes are associated with subfertility even if very early orchiopexy is performed
Explanation:Undescended testis (UDT) is a common abnormality, affecting about 1/20 males at birth. Half of these have delayed testicular descent, with the testis in the scrotum by 10-12 weeks after term. Beyond this spontaneous descent is rare. Current treatment recommendations are that UDT beyond 3 months need surgery between 6-12 months of age. Some children have scrotal testes in infancy but develop UDT later in childhood because the spermatic cord does not elongate with age, leaving the testis behind as the scrotum moves further from the groin. The maldescended testis suffers heat stress when not at the lower scrotal temperature (33 degrees Celsius), interfering with testicular physiology and development of germ cells into spermatogonia. Recent evidence suggests orchidopexy between 6-12 months improves germ cell development, with early reports of improved fertility, but no evidence yet for changes in malignancy prognosis.Hypospadias is also a common abnormality in new-born males, affecting about 1/150 boys. Androgens control masculinization of the genital tubercle into penis between 8-12 weeks’ gestation, with tabularization of the urethra from the perineum to the tip of the glans. If this process is disrupted hypospadias occurs, with a variable proximal urethral meatus, failed ventral preputial development producing a dorsal hood, and discrepancy in the ventral versus dorsal penile length, causing a ventral bend in the penis, known as chordee. Surgery to correct hypospadias is recommended between 6-18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old infant is brought to the hospital with a 3-day history of frequent watery stools and vomiting. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and is refusing to drink in the emergency department.What would be the most appropriate course of action for this child?
Your Answer: For intravenous rehydration (maintenance) + oral fluids as tolerated
Correct Answer: Admit for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube
Explanation:The most appropriate step in this patient would be to admit the patient for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube.Enteral rehydration:Oral rehydration is the most preferred way of rehydrating children. If a child is not tolerating small-frequent-feeds, then nasogastric rehydration is an underused next best step. The fluid can be run through a continuous pump so that it is better tolerated. Note:Intravenous fluids are effective but can have profound effects on the serum electrolyte balance if not monitored closely. Most children will tolerate fluids in an emergency department, but failure to take fluids orally is not an indication for intravenous therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner:
Your Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Hormones can be secreted in a number of different ways, thus plasma levels of each may vary throughout the day. Many of these exhibit intermittent secretion related to sleep (growth hormone, and prolactin), while others are released based on circadian rhythms (cortisol). Some are released in a pulsatile fashion throughout the day such as FSH, LH, Thyroxine, while others are stress related like cortisol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 5 week old boy presents with a history of jerky movements involving both upper and lower limbs. The parents admit that this happens 2-3 times during sleep, without waking him up. He feeds well and doesn’t seem to cry more than normally. He was a term baby, born without any perinatal complications. The neurological examination turns out normal. Parents worry he has seizures as they have a 3 year old nephew with epilepsy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus
Explanation:Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus is a condition characterised by neonatal onset myoclonic jerks during NREM. Characteristic for this disorder is the absence of electroencephalographic findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 19
Correct
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In which one of the following conditions is faltering growth frequently seen?
Your Answer: Complete atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:Congenital heart diseases such as complete atrioventricular septal defects are most likely to cause large left to right shunts leading to faltering growth due to chronic severe hypoxia, pulmonary oedema, and feeding problems. Isolated atrial septal defects or ventricular septal defects result in relatively smaller shunts. Pulmonary stenosis and bicuspid aortic valve do not cause chronic systemic hypoxia. People with these conditions are often asymptomatic and only show some symptoms with intense physical activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur in anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Hepatosplenomegaly
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is a serious, psychiatric eating disorder characterized by distorted self-image due to which abnormal eating behaviours are adopted. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the gastrointestinal system. The GI manifestations of anorexia are enlarged salivary glands due to purging behaviour, gastritis, gastroparesis, acute gastric dilatation, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, elevated liver transaminases, which cause hepatocyte apoptosis leading to cirrhosis, and steatosis leading to fatty liver. Hepatosplenomegaly is not a recognized complication of anorexia nervosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)White cell count 60 per ml (<5)Lymphocytes 90%Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis meningitis
Correct Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?
Your Answer: Hunter's syndrome
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the hospital. The parents are now asking for advice on how to manage future occurrences at home. What do you advise?
Your Answer: Heimlich manoeuvre
Correct Answer: Turn the child on his back and give thumps
Explanation:Give up to five back blows: hit them firmly on their back between the shoulder blades. Back blows create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway, which is often enough to dislodge the blockage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 24
Correct
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A new-born baby with confirmed trisomy 21 presents with bilious vomiting and an abdominal X-ray at 1 day of age showing a ‘double-bubble’ appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duodenal Atresia
Explanation:Congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).Presenting symptoms and signs are the results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.Once delivered, an infant with duodenal atresia typically has a scaphoid abdomen. One may occasionally note epigastric fullness from dilation of the stomach and proximal duodenum. Passing meconium within the first 24 hours of life is not usually altered. Dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance soon follow unless fluid and electrolyte losses are adequately replaced. If intravenous (IV) hydration is not begun, a hypokalaemic/hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria develops, as with other high GI obstruction. An orogastric (OG) tube in an infant with suspected duodenal obstruction typically yields a significant amount of bile-stained fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 25
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea.Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?
Your Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months| progestin can be added later.In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Correct
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6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring admission for phototherapy, and have lost 12% and 13% of their birthweights, respectively. They both have serum sodium levels of 145 mmol/L. What is the best advice about fluid management over the next 48 h?
Your Answer: Continue breast-feeding but give full top-ups via bottle/cup feeding
Explanation:Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?
Your Answer: Raised Testosterone
Explanation:Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels↑ Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen index↑ LH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A young child with cystic fibrosis also suffers from malabsorption. Which of the following represent a possible state and consequence for such a child?
Your Answer: Vitamin K deficiency and Osteomalacia
Correct Answer: Vitamin A deficiency and night blindness
Explanation:Malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins is likely in most people with Cystic Fibrosis (CF).Factors that may contribute to fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies in CF include:- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption as a consequence of pancreatic insufficiency and bile salt deficiency.- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption due to suboptimal PERT or poor adherence to PERT especially with vitamin replacement therapy.- Poor dietary intake due to anorexia or poor dietary sources of vitamins.- Poor adherence to prescribed fat-soluble vitamin supplementation.- Inappropriate vitamin supplementation regimens.- Increased utilisation and reduced bioavailability.- Short gut syndrome due to previous bowel resection.- CF-related liver disease.- Chronic antibiotic use.Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays a role in the eye (dark adaptation), skin, respiratory and immune systems. Vitamin A deficiency may cause night blindness and can proceed to xerophthalmia in CF.Severe vitamin D deficiency causes rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults.Vitamin E acts as an antioxidant reducing the effects of free radicals produced by infection and chronic inflammation, thus helping to protect cell membranes from oxidative damage.Vitamin E deficiency has been associated with haemolytic anaemia in infants and may cause ataxia, neuromuscular degeneration and compromised cognitive function. Oxidative stress is enhanced in CF due to chronic respiratory inflammation.Vitamin K is important for blood coagulation and bone health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 29
Correct
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An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?
Your Answer: Iritis
Explanation:The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl presents with pallor and marked gland enlargement. She has been unwell for the past three weeks. She had a full term normal delivery with no neonatal problems. Her immunisations are up to date. There is no family or social history of note. On examination, her temperature is 37.6°C, and she looks pale and unwell. She has a few petechiae on the neck and palate, with moderate generalised lymphadenopathy and a 3 cm spleen. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
Correct Answer: Acute leukaemia
Explanation:Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma: The history is of enlarged reticuloendothelial system with abnormalities in all 3 cell lines of the bone marrow (pallor, fever and petechiae). The most likely diagnosis is therefore acute (lymphoblastic) leukaemia. Lymphadenopathy may be prominent: mediastinal nodes are characteristic of T-cell leukaemia. In lymphoma the marrow involvement tends to be much less.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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