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  • Question 1 - A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics IV

      Correct Answer: Call ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through...

    Incorrect

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through spontaneous, vaginal delivery. She had rupture of membranes 30 hours before birth, however looked healthy and did not receive antibiotics. On admission, doctors obtained a vaginal swab. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the baby?

      Your Answer: Await result of vaginal swab and treat the baby according to this

      Correct Answer: Perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results

      Explanation:

      Doctors must perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results to prevent neonatal sepsis. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of the membranes. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of membranes greater than 12–24 hours, intrapartum maternal pyrexia (> 38°C), fetal tachycardia, chorioamnionitis, pre-term birth and maternal colonisation with group B Streptococcus. In this case there are two risk factors: prolonged rupture of membranes, and pre-term birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light headedness. Her heart rate is 200 beats per minute so you try with vagal manoeuvres and repeated boluses of adenosine up to a maximum dose of 500mcg/kg. What would you do next?

      Your Answer: Synchronous DC shock 2J/kg

      Correct Answer: Synchronous DC shock 1J/kg

      Explanation:

      According to APLS, your next step should be one of the following: synchronous DC shock, amiodarone, or cardiology advice for alternative antiarrhythmics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains of anaesthesia of the web spaces between his first and second toes. Injury to which of the following nerves leads to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve lies in the anterior muscular compartment of the lower leg and can be compromised by compartment syndrome affecting this area. It provides cutaneous sensation to the first web space. The superficial peroneal nerve provides more lateral cutaneous innervation.Origin: It originates from the common peroneal nerve, at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to peroneus longus. Root values of common peroneal nerve: L4, L5, S1, and S2.Course and relation: It pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Following which, it passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.Throughout the course it innervates:- Tibialis anterior- Extensor hallucis longus- Extensor digitorum longus- Peroneus tertius- Extensor digitorum brevisAt its termination, it innervates the skin in the web space between the first and second toes.Actions performed by the muscles supplied by the nerve:- Dorsiflexion of ankle joint- Extension of all toes- Inversion of the foot

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The parents of a 5-year-old overweight boy are concerned that the boy is...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 5-year-old overweight boy are concerned that the boy is 'breathing strangely' at night for the past few months now. This is associated with frequent and loud snoring. Furthermore, he seems to have sleep disturbances due to these nocturnal breathing difficulties. This, they feel, is reflected as daytime somnolence in the boy.Clinical examination reveals bilateral tonsillar hypertrophy. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Weight loss advice

      Correct Answer: Refer for ENT opinion

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management would be to refer the patient for an ENT opinion. Rationale:This child has clinical signs of adenotonsillar hypertrophy, symptoms of persistent snoring and features of obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA). Suspected OSA warrants referral to an ENT specialist. Other options:- Capillary blood gas: The investigation consists of overnight oxygen saturation monitoring or polysomnography.- Chest X-ray: A chest x-ray is not indicated.- Phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is the first-line treatment for tonsillitis. However, with a history of several months and no suggestion of fever or sore throat, acute tonsillitis is unlikely.- Weight loss advice: Obesity is a risk factor for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) amongst other health problems. The child’s weight should be highlighted and advice and support for weight loss provided however referral to ENT is warranted for further investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?

      Your Answer: Yellow fever

      Correct Answer: Polio (Salk)

      Explanation:

      Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported...

    Correct

    • A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported to be in a critical state. Birth weight is 550g and the baby shows a poor respiratory effort. The membranes ruptured just prior to the delivery with no signs of maternal fever or sepsis. The infant received no antenatal steroids. After delivery, the neonate was subsequently intubated, resuscitated and given a dose of Curo surf. he was extubated onto CPAP within 6 hours. UVC and UAC access was established and benzylpenicillin and gentamicin were administered. Small amounts of maternal breast milk were given for mouthcare. The baby's cardiovascular system was stable and early ABG samples were within acceptable ranges. At 24 hours of age the baby deteriorates with numerous desaturations and bradycardias requiring reintubation. First gas following reintubation shows pH 7.19, CO2 8.6 kPa, BE -10. Oxygen requirement is 60%. FBC is unremarkable. The baby is cool peripherally and central CRT is 3-4 seconds. There is a loud machinery murmur. Abdominal radiograph shows a football sign. What is the most likely cause of the baby's deterioration?

      Your Answer: Spontaneous intestinal perforation

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous intestinal perforation (SIP) of the new-born, also referred to as isolated perforation or focal intestinal perforation (FIP) of the new-born, is a single intestinal perforation that is typically found at the terminal ileum. SIP occurs primarily in preterm infants with very low birth weight (VLBW, birth weight <1500 g) and extremely low birth weight (ELBW, birth weight <1000 g), umbilical catheter placement, maternal drug use and twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome. SIP is a separate clinical entity from necrotizing enterocolitis, the most severe gastrointestinal complication of preterm infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that he has been running a fever and associated with a headache.Which of the following clinical features, if present, is suggestive of raised intracranial pressure?

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, bradycardia is a feature of raised intracranial pressure.The features of raised intracranial pressure include relative bradycardia and hypertension, altered consciousness, focal neurology and seizures.All other options are signs of shock but not raised intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an episode of infective diarrhoea.Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. HUS is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in children. It predominantly occurs in infants and children after prodromal diarrhoea. In summer epidemics, the disease may be related to infectious causes.Bacterial infections may include the following:S dysenteriaeE ColiSalmonella typhiCampylobacter jejuniYersinia pseudotuberculosisNeisseria meningitidisS pneumoniaLegionella pneumophilaMycoplasma speciesRickettsial infections may include Rocky Mountain spotted fever and microtatobiotesViral infections may include the following:Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)CoxsackievirusEchovirusInfluenza virusEpstein-Barr virusHerpes simplex virusFungal infections can include Aspergillus fumigatus.Vaccinations may include the following:Influenza triple-antigen vaccineTyphoid-paratyphoid A and B (TAB) vaccinePolio vaccinePregnancy-associated HUS occasionally develops as a complication of preeclampsia. Patients may progress to full-blown haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome. Postpartum HUS usually occurs within 3 months of delivery. The prognosis is poor, with a 50-60% mortality rate, and residual renal dysfunction and hypertension occur in most patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Gillespie syndrome

      Explanation:

      Leukocoria is an abnormal red reflex in which the pupil appears white. It represents various abnormalities of the visual media and is one of the primary signs of retinoblastoma. Other possible causes of leukocoria include congenital cataracts, toxocariasis, Norrie disease, retinopathy of prematurity, and Coat’s disease. Gillespie syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition characterized by congenital hypotonia, multiple ocular defects, hypoplasia of the cerebellum, and vertebral deformities. The ocular defects consist of aniridia, photophobia, reduced visual acuity, and the inability of the pupillary sphincter to contract. Leukocoria is not associated with this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees....

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Optic neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Iritis

      Explanation:

      The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa

      Correct Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Aneurysmal bone cyst

      Correct Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Persistent pulmonary hypertension is NOT a recognized complication of which of the following?...

    Incorrect

    • Persistent pulmonary hypertension is NOT a recognized complication of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary hypoplasia

      Correct Answer: Duct dependent congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born is secondary to the failure of normal circulatory transition at birth, leading to an abnormally high pulmonary vascular resistance. This elevated resistance causes right-to-left shunting of blood and hypoxemia. It can be caused by parenchymal lung diseases (meconium aspiration syndrome, pneumonia or ARDS), lung hypoplasia (like occurring in oligohydramnios or diaphragmatic hernia), or it can be idiopathic. Other possible causes include maternal indomethacin use, group B streptococcal septicaemia, and high-pressure ventilation. Duct dependent congenital heart disease does not lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea and headaches. He lives on a farm and would usually play hide and seek with his siblings in the barn where the family store pesticides and other chemicals. Lab investigations reveal a significant leukopenia. Aplastic anaemia results due to failure of hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to progenitors of immune cells. In which area of the body are these cells primarily located?

      Your Answer: Cervical lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are a rare population of cells residing in the bone marrow (BM) and continuously replenish all mature blood cells throughout their life span.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples and a systolic murmur. Her femoral pulses are absent. Her mother admits she did not have any scans during gestation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Williams syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disease that affects females. It presents with wide-spread nipples, low hairline, lymphoedema, short 4th metacarpals, high-arched palate, cardiac problems, and horseshoe kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Correct Answer: Myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism usually occurs after the surgical removal of the spleen or in pathological processes where the splenic tissue is replaced with abnormal tissue. It is often associated with diseases such as sickle cell disease, Coeliac disease, SLE and Dermatitis Herpetiformis. Myxoedema however bears no known association with hyposplenism. Patients with hyposplenism are at risk of fulminant bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps. On...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps. On examination, it was found that her left proximal radioulnar joint had dislocated and the annular ligament was stretched. This will make which movement extremely painful?

      Your Answer: Elbow extension

      Correct Answer: Supination

      Explanation:

      Supination is the rotation of the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces anteriorly. This is performed by the biceps brachii and supinator of the extensor muscles of the thumb. The opposite action of moving the palm from an anterior-facing position to a posterior-facing position is called pronation. Pronation is performed by the pronator teres and pronator quadratus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Dementia

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Pellagra occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Niacin is required for most cellular processes. Since tryptophan in the diet can be converted to niacin in the body, both of these need to be deficient for pellagra to develop.The classical triad of symptoms is diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia.The first sign is reddened skin with superficial scaling in areas exposed to sunlight, heat and friction. This may resemble severe sunburn then gradually subsides leaving a dusky brown-red colouration. The rash is usually symmetrical with a clear edge between affected and unaffected skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - All of the following drugs tend to worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following drugs tend to worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis except?

      Your Answer: Pyridostigmine

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Prednisone is used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis if there is no initial response to the anticholinesterase medications. Pyridostigmine can make the symptoms of myasthenia gravis worse if used  in the initial stages of treatment. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What serious side effect would you expect, after giving IV lorazepam to a...

    Incorrect

    • What serious side effect would you expect, after giving IV lorazepam to a 4-year-old boy suffering from febrile convulsions?

      Your Answer: Amnesia

      Correct Answer: Apnoea

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is known to cause respiratory depression and finally apnoea as a side effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin used in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) treatment?

      Your Answer: Decreases hepatic glucose production

      Correct Answer: Increases insulin production

      Explanation:

      Metformin works by improving the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin, which results in a reduction of circulating insulin levels. Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and it also increases the glucose uptake by peripheral tissues and reduces fatty acid oxidation. Metformin has a positive effect on the endothelium and adipose tissue independent of its action on insulin and glucose levels.Metformin was the first insulin sensitising drug (ISD) to be used in PCOS to investigate the role of insulin resistance in the pathogenesis of the syndrome Several effects have been reported as related to metformin in PCOS patients including restoring ovulation, reducing weight, reducing circulating androgen levels, reducing the risk of miscarriage and reducing the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Other studies have reported that the addition of metformin to the ovarian stimulation regime in invitro fertilization (IVF) improves the pregnancy outcome. These effects will be addressed individually.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old child.Which of the following could cause low calcium levels due to an artefact?

      Your Answer: Platelets

      Correct Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      The accuracy of the test for calcium levels in the blood is affected by the blood level of albumin. If albumin levels are low, the calcium level can also appear low.This is termed as pseudohypocalcemia.Hypocalcaemia usually presents with muscle spams. These can include spasms of voluntary muscle but also smooth muscle such as in the airways (causing bronchospasm) and in the heart (causing angina).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT? ...

    Correct

    • All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Phenylketonuria

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a commonly occurring neonatal disorder, which is characterized by a venous haematocrit ≥ 65%. It increases the blood viscosity and causes microcirculatory flow impairment in the end-organs. Causes of polycythaemia are multi-factorial, but the significant risk factors are maternal diabetes, SGA, LGA or post-term birth, infants with chromosomal abnormalities, and delayed clamping of the cord. Jaundice is not a recognized risk factor for polycythaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer: 0.66

      Correct Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?

      Your Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Urethral valves

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve. A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy. Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography. Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation. Management:The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine. The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line.Conditions associated with torsade include the following:Electrolyte abnormalities – Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemiaEndocrine disorders – Hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism, hypoglycaemiaCardiac conditions – Myocardial ischemia, myocardial infarction, myocarditis, bradyarrhythmia, complete atrioventricular (AV) block, takotsubo cardiomyopathyIntracranial disorders – Subarachnoid haemorrhage, thalamic hematoma, cerebrovascular accident, encephalitis, head injuryNutritional disorders – Anorexia nervosa, starvation, liquid protein diets, gastroplasty and ileojejunal bypass, celiac diseaseRisk factors for torsade include the following:Congenital long QT syndromeFemale genderAcquired long QT syndrome (causes of which include medications and electrolyte disorders such as hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia)BradycardiaBaseline electrocardiographic abnormalitiesRenal or liver failure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neonatology (6/6) 100%
Emergency Medicine (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (3/3) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (3/3) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/2) 50%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed