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  • Question 1 - HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)

      Explanation:

      HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are considered low-risk types of HPV, meaning they are less likely to cause serious health issues such as cancer. Instead, these genotypes are commonly associated with genital warts and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL). LSIL can correspond cytologically to Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN) 1, which is a precancerous condition of the cervix. Therefore, the correct answer is Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL). High grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (HSIL) and Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN) 2 and 3 are more likely to be caused by high-risk HPV genotypes that are associated with a higher risk of developing cervical cancer. Squamous cell carcinoma of the penis is not typically associated with HPV genotypes 6 and 11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      3.1
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following neuropathological findings in young individuals with HIV infection is...

    Correct

    • Which of the following neuropathological findings in young individuals with HIV infection is also seen in the brains of drug users who do not have HIV?

      Your Answer: Axonal damage

      Explanation:

      In young individuals with HIV infection, neuropathological findings such as lymphocytic leptomeningitis, perivascular lymphocytic cuffing, parenchymal T and B lymphocyte infiltration, and microglial activation are commonly observed. These findings are indicative of the inflammatory response and immune cell infiltration in the brain due to HIV infection.

      However, axonal damage is a neuropathological finding that is not specific to HIV infection and can also be seen in the brains of drug users who do not have HIV. Axonal damage can result from various factors such as inflammation, trauma, and hypoxia, which are common in drug users. Therefore, the presence of axonal damage in both individuals with early HIV infection and drug users without HIV suggests that this particular neuropathological finding may not be specific to HIV infection but rather a result of other factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      6.8
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  • Question 3 - Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?

      Your Answer: Rubella - seven to 10 days

      Correct Answer: Mumps - 14-18 days

      Explanation:

      The correct match for the disease with its corresponding incubation period is as follows:
      – Mumps: 14-18 days

      Explanation:
      – Chicken pox: The correct incubation period for chickenpox is 5-7 days, not 7-21 days.
      – Hand foot and mouth disease: The correct incubation period for hand foot and mouth disease is 2-6 days, not 7-10 days.
      – Measles: The correct incubation period for measles is 5-7 days, not 14-21 days.
      – Rubella: The correct incubation period for rubella is 7-10 days, not 14-21 days.
      – Mumps: The correct incubation period for mumps is 14-18 days, which matches the given information.

      Understanding the correct incubation periods for different diseases is crucial for proper diagnosis, treatment, and prevention strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      7.7
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  • Question 4 - HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)

      Explanation:

      HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are considered low-risk types of HPV, meaning they are less likely to cause serious health issues such as cancer. These genotypes are commonly associated with low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL), which are abnormal changes in the cells of the cervix that are considered to be less severe.

      On the other hand, high-risk types of HPV, such as genotypes 16, 18, 31, and 33, are more likely to cause high grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (HSIL) and cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2 and 3, which are more severe abnormalities in the cervical cells that can progress to cervical cancer if left untreated.

      Therefore, the association of HPV genotypes 6 and 11 with LSIL highlights the importance of HPV genotyping in determining the risk of developing cervical abnormalities and guiding appropriate management and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      2.7
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  • Question 5 - A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma....

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma. His chemotherapy regime includes cyclophosphamide, vincristine, methotrexate, and prednisolone. After one day of starting chemotherapy, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs.

      Which one of the following is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Tumour lysis syndrome

      Explanation:

      The 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma with chemotherapy. After one day of starting treatment, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs. These symptoms are most likely due to tumour lysis syndrome (TLS), which is a potentially fatal condition that can occur as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias.

      TLS occurs when there is a rapid breakdown of tumour cells, leading to the release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia, along with hyponatraemia. The symptoms of TLS can include confusion, muscle cramps, and other neurological symptoms.

      In this case, the introduction of chemotherapy likely triggered the development of TLS in the patient. It is important to be aware of this condition and to take steps for its prophylactic management. One such measure is the administration of rasburicase prior to chemotherapy, which helps reduce the risk of TLS by metabolizing uric acid to a more soluble form for renal excretion.

      Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is also implicated in the development of Burkitt lymphoma. Treatment for Burkitt lymphoma involves chemotherapy, which can lead to a rapid response and potentially trigger TLS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      5.2
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  • Question 6 - Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of tuberculosis (TB) in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of tuberculosis (TB) in adults and adolescents?

      Your Answer: Unexplained weight gain

      Explanation:

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but can also affect other parts of the body. Common symptoms of TB in adults and adolescents include a persistent cough of 2 weeks or more, fever for more than two weeks, drenching night sweats, chest pain and discomfort, and unexplained weight loss.

      Unexplained weight gain is NOT a common symptom of tuberculosis. In fact, unexplained weight loss is more commonly associated with TB as the infection can cause a loss of appetite and difficulty in absorbing nutrients from food. Weight gain is not typically seen in individuals with TB unless they are actively trying to gain weight through diet and exercise.

      Therefore, the correct answer is: Unexplained weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      3.4
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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?

      Your Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels

      Explanation:

      Progressive HIV infection is characterized by a number of immunological changes that ultimately lead to immunodeficiency. One of these changes is an increase in B2-microglobulin levels. B2-microglobulin is a protein that is found on the surface of all nucleated cells and is involved in the immune response. In HIV infection, levels of B2-microglobulin increase as a result of immune activation and inflammation.

      The other options provided in the question do not accurately reflect the immunological changes seen in progressive HIV infection. For example, an increase in IL-2 production is not typically seen in HIV infection, as IL-2 is a cytokine that is produced by CD4+ T cells and their depletion is a hallmark of HIV infection. Similarly, increased type IV hypersensitivity responses and increased natural killer (NK) cell function are not typically seen in progressive HIV infection.

      Overall, the most accurate answer to the question is an increase in B2-microglobulin levels, as this is a common immunological change seen in progressive HIV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      7.2
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following is true of Koplik's spots? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of Koplik's spots?

      Your Answer: Are diagnostic of measles

      Explanation:

      Koplik’s spots are small, blue/white spots that appear on the buccal mucosa inside the mouth. They are considered pathognomonic for measles, meaning they are highly indicative of the disease. These spots typically appear near the premolars, not opposite the incisors. They are not related to fever height and do not appear on the hands. Koplik’s spots usually appear before the characteristic measles rash develops, making them an important diagnostic feature for healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      8.2
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  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old Afro-Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old Afro-Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents with swollen ankles. He has been treated with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for 2 years, with partial response.

      His plasma creatinine concentration is 358 μmol/l, albumin is 12 g/dl, CD4 count is 35/μl and 24 hour urine protein excretion rate is 6.8 g. Renal ultrasound shows echogenic kidneys 13.5 cm in length.

      What would a renal biopsy show?

      Your Answer: Membranous nephropathy

      Correct Answer: Microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS

      Explanation:

      HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) is a common complication of HIV infection, particularly in individuals of African descent. It is characterized by renal dysfunction, proteinuria, and progressive renal failure.

      A renal biopsy in a patient with HIVAN would typically show microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS (focal segmental glomerulosclerosis). FSGS is a pattern of scarring in the kidney that can lead to proteinuria and eventually kidney failure. The collapsing variant of FSGS is particularly associated with HIVAN and is characterized by prominent podocytes and collapsing capillary loops.

      Other possible findings on renal biopsy in HIVAN may include Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions, which are characteristic of diabetic nephropathy, but can also be seen in HIVAN. Minimal-change disease, focal necrotizing crescentic nephritis, and membranous nephropathy are less likely to be seen in HIVAN.

      In this case, the patient’s clinical presentation of swollen ankles, elevated plasma creatinine, significant proteinuria, and echogenic kidneys on ultrasound are all consistent with a diagnosis of HIVAN. A renal biopsy showing microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS would confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      29.4
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  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a retired teacher with occasional international travel. On examination, his body weight was 40 kg with some oral ulcers.
      Tests revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 1.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.4 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
      Urine Protein 2+
      Cholesterol 4.5 <5.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following tests is next indicated for this patient?

      Your Answer: CD4 count

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of HIV Nephropathy

      HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. A CD4 count and HIV serological testing should be done urgently. HIV nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most common pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves ACE inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy, with dialysis being necessary in end-stage disease. Renal biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum IgA levels are elevated in IgA nephropathy, while serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor are needed in SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases or vasculitis. However, the lack of systemic symptoms points away from these diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      4.9
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Pathology (8/10) 80%
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