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  • Question 1 - An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his blood sugar level was high this morning.The boy was diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 6, following which his sugars have been under control with insulin. His mother insists that his mental, social, and physical development were all normal for his age.His is currently on a basal-bolus regime, where he takes insulin glargine at 9 pm every evening. What is the most likely explanation for the pattern shown by the boy's blood sugars?

      Your Answer: Smogyi effect

      Correct Answer: Dawn phenomenon

      Explanation:

      The patient’s sugar levels typically show the Dawn phenomenon.Dawn phenomenon:This is an early morning rise in blood glucose levels secondary to a rise in hormones that increase blood glucose levels. The question suggests that he is undergoing a pubertal growth spurt, suggesting that an increase in these hormones is what has led to the higher morning glucose levels.Other options:- Inactivity at night-time: It is expected, and insulin dose should be adequate despite inactivity during the night.- Inadequate bedtime insulin: It is possible that this is a contributing factor. However, inadequate background insulin is also likely to result in high blood glucose in the day, which the question does not suggest.- Somogyi effect: There are no features suggestive of nocturnal hypoglycaemia that can cause the Somogyi effect.- Nocturnal glycogenesis: Glycogenesis would result in hypoglycaemia, not hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A new-born baby with confirmed trisomy 21 presents with bilious vomiting and an...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby with confirmed trisomy 21 presents with bilious vomiting and an abdominal X-ray at 1 day of age showing a ‘double-bubble’ appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal Atresia

      Explanation:

      Congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).Presenting symptoms and signs are the results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.Once delivered, an infant with duodenal atresia typically has a scaphoid abdomen. One may occasionally note epigastric fullness from dilation of the stomach and proximal duodenum. Passing meconium within the first 24 hours of life is not usually altered. Dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance soon follow unless fluid and electrolyte losses are adequately replaced. If intravenous (IV) hydration is not begun, a hypokalaemic/hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria develops, as with other high GI obstruction. An orogastric (OG) tube in an infant with suspected duodenal obstruction typically yields a significant amount of bile-stained fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:

      Your Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct

      Correct Answer: Midgut

      Explanation:

      From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following is the first sign of the onset of puberty?

      Your Answer: Breast-bud development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of pubarche in females is breast-bud development (thelarche).This begins between the ages of 9 and 12 years and continues to 12–18 years. Pubic hair growth occurs next (said to occur in stage 3), at ages 9–14 years, and is complete at 12–16 years. Menarche occurs relatively late in stage 4 (age 11–15 years) and is associated with a deceleration in growth. The peak height velocity is reached earlier (10–13 years) and growth is completed much earlier than in boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?

      Your Answer: Mesalazine

      Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following congenital abnormalities are usually associated with a characteristic karyotype?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following congenital abnormalities are usually associated with a characteristic karyotype?

      Your Answer: Cri-du chat syndrome

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is a sex chromosome disorder in boys and men that results from the presence of an extra X chromosome in cells. People typically have 46 chromosomes in each cell, two of which are the sex chromosomes. Females have two X chromosomes (46,XX), and males have one X and one Y chromosome (46,XY). Most often, boys and men with Klinefelter syndrome have the usual X and Y chromosomes, plus one extra X chromosome, for a total of 47 chromosomes (47,XXY).Cri-du-chat (cat’s cry) syndrome, also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, is a chromosomal condition that results when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing.Pierre Robin syndrome is not caused by a single gene defect but is a sequence.Meningomyelocele does not follow usual patterns of inheritance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age....

    Incorrect

    • A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age. The serum bilirubin was 286 µmol/L, direct Coombs test negative, blood film showed spherocytes and reticulocytes. The baby’s blood group was A rhesus negative and mother’s blood group O Rhesus negative.Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breast milk-associated jaundice

      Correct Answer: ABO incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic disease of the new-born due to ABO incompatibility is usually less severe than Rh incompatibility. One reason is that fetal RBCs express less of the ABO blood group antigens compared with adult levels. In addition, in contrast to the Rh antigens, the ABO blood group antigens are expressed by a variety of fetal (and adult) tissues, reducing the chances of anti-A and anti-B binding their target antigens on the fetal RBCs.ABO HDN occurs almost exclusively in the offspring of women of blood group O, although reports exist of occasional cases in group A mothers with high‐titre anti‐(group B) IgG

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT surgeon, it was noticed that the bleeding was coming from the anterior part of the nose and the bleeding point was clearly visualised. Which of the following options is the most suitable choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Anterior nasal packing

      Correct Answer: Cautery

      Explanation:

      In the case of anterior nasal bleeds, when the bleeding point is clearly visualised the best management step is cautery, either electrical or chemical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 4 year old boy is wetting his bed at night or whenever...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old boy is wetting his bed at night or whenever he gets excited. His parents are concerned. What is the best strategy?

      Your Answer: Behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Generally, bed-wetting before age 7 isn’t a concern as the child may still be developing night-time bladder control. The child is less than 5 years and most children will outgrow bed-wetting on their own. Therefore only reassurance and behavioural therapy are suggested at this stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What form of inheritance does Chédiak–Higashi syndrome have? ...

    Incorrect

    • What form of inheritance does Chédiak–Higashi syndrome have?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but they typically do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea and headaches. He lives on a farm and would usually play hide and seek with his siblings in the barn where the family store pesticides and other chemicals. Lab investigations reveal a significant leukopenia. Aplastic anaemia results due to failure of hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to progenitors of immune cells. In which area of the body are these cells primarily located?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are a rare population of cells residing in the bone marrow (BM) and continuously replenish all mature blood cells throughout their life span.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and stiffness in her joints. On examination, she has +1 oedema, slightly swollen metacarpophalangeal joints and ulceration of her buccal mucosa. Her BP is 145/95. Serum creatinine is 92 x 10^12/l. Urinalysis is significant for blood and protein, both +3. High titres of anti-dsDNA are detected in her serum. Which of the following histological changes would be observed in the renal tissue?

      Your Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with deposits of IgG, IgM and C3

      Explanation:

      Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is a term used to describe a distinct histologic form of glomerulonephritis common to various types of systemic inflammatory diseases, including autoimmune disorders (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus [SLE]), vasculitis syndromes (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis), and infectious processes. In DPGN, more than 50% of the glomeruli (diffuse) show an increase in mesangial, epithelial, endothelial (proliferative), and inflammatory cells (i.e., glomerulonephritis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 14-year-old female was found to have a 1/6 systolic ejection murmur on...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female was found to have a 1/6 systolic ejection murmur on regular check-up and was subsequently referred to a cardiologist. A thorough physical examination reveals long upper extremities with thin slender fingers, with a high arched palate and excessive ligamentous laxity. Her thumb can be bent back easily to touch her radius. ECG reveals sinus bradycardia that is consistent with aerobic conditioning. She also had an echo done. In reference to her most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most serious cardiac complication associated to this condition?

      Your Answer: Mitral valve stenosis

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?

      Your Answer: Poliomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Trendelenburg gait is an abnormal gait resulting from a defective hip abductor mechanism. The primary musculature involved is the gluteal musculature, including the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles. The weakness of these muscles causes drooping of the pelvis to the contralateral side while walking.Any pathology of the fulcrum, load, effort or the lever which binds all three will lead to a positive Trendelenburg gait.Failure of the fulcrum presents in the following conditions:Osteonecrosis of hipLegg-Calve-Perthes diseaseDevelopmental dysplasia of the hipChronically dislocated hips secondary to traumaChronically dislocated hips secondary to infections like tuberculosis of the hipFailure of the lever is a feature in the following conditions:Greater trochanteric avulsionNon-union of the neck of the femurCoxa VaraFailure of effort presents in the following conditions:PoliomyelitisL5 radiculopathySuperior gluteal nerve damageGluteus medius and minimus tendinitisGluteus medius and minimus abscessPost total hip arthroplastyThe gait of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis patients can be explained as a crouch-like gait with hyperflexion in hip and knee joints and less plantar flexion in the ankle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe...

    Incorrect

    • A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ABO incompatibility

      Correct Answer: Rh incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
    Given the...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
      Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?

      Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a line and start cutting with scissors?

      Your Answer: 3-4 years

      Correct Answer: 2- 2 1/2 years

      Explanation:

      Fine motor development involves greater use of the hands to perform more precise tasks. By 6 -12 months children should be able to reach for small objects and pass an object from one hand to the other. From 1 -2 years they can perform more complex tasks such a building a tower of blocks, feeding themselves, and turning knobs. In terms of pencil skills, they should be able to imitate scribbles and then spontaneously scribble. By the age of 2 years they can draw a line, and by three they can draw a circle. From the age of 3.5 they can draw a cross, 4.5 – a square, 5 – a triangle, and 6 a diamond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Correct Answer: Sulphonamides

      Explanation:

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?

      Your Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is the suggested minimum time interval between ingestion and measuring the blood plasma paracetamol levels?

      Your Answer: 12 hours

      Correct Answer: 4 hours

      Explanation:

      The post-ingestion plasma level, which is required in order to guide the treatment, reaches a peak at 4 hours. Levels requiring antidote (N-acetyl cysteine) include: 100 mcg per ml at 4 hours, 35 mcg per ml at 10 hours and 25 mcg per ml at 12 hours. These levels are in conjunction with the levels recorded and they should all be put down on a treatment nomogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in the face and swollen ankles - these symptoms have been present for 4 days. The swelling began just a few days after he suffered from a mild cold with a runny nose. His only past medical history is that of eczema. His urine analysis showed the following: haematuria| proteinuria (10g/24h)| creat60umol/l| and albumin of 15g/l. From the list of options, what is the single most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      A 10 year old child, with a history of URTI and haematuria, presents a picture consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. This condition can present with proteinuria and generalized swelling. However, an important differentiating point from rapidly progressive GN is the duration. IgA nephropathy is usually <10 days (commonly 4-5 day history of infection).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?

      Your Answer: Chromosomal trisomies

      Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:- Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)- Omphalocele- Gastroschisis- posterior urethral valves- nephrosis- GI obstruction- teratomas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute otitis externa

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?

      Your Answer: Decrease in leukocytes

      Correct Answer: Target cells

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of a post-splenectomy/hyposplenism blood picture can be made reliably by identifying Howell Jolly bodies in routine Wright-Giemsa stained blood and target cells. These are round basophilic bodies in red blood cells that represent residual nuclear material from marrow nucleated red cell precursors that are usually culled out by the spleen.These do not occur in individuals with normally functioning splenic tissue and their presence indicates either 1) an asplenic state or 2) hypofunctioning splenic tissue as might be seen in a patient with late-stage sickle cell anaemia. Their presence in an individual with splenomegaly leads to a narrow differential diagnosis and their absence in a splenectomised individual indicates accessory splenic Heinz bodies and poikilocytosis typically increase in a splenectomised individual and care must be taken not to overdiagnose haemolysis in such an individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of hormones?

      Your Answer: Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern

      Explanation:

      Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern.The secretion of cortisol is regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus located in the hypothalamus.Other options:- FSH, LH, GH and prolactin are secreted in a pulsatile pattern, i.e. these hormones are secreted in an episodic manner rather than continuously.- Thyroxine is secreted in a continuous pattern, not pulsatile.- The secretion of ACTH is in response to stress.Secondary to stress, the hypothalamus secretes corticotrophin releasing hormones, which are transported to the pituitary gland via the hypophyseal–portal system. ACTH is then released by the pituitary gland and binds to its receptor on the adrenal gland, which releases cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old girl developed haemoptysis with acute kidney injury requiring dialysis. She suffered...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl developed haemoptysis with acute kidney injury requiring dialysis. She suffered from recurrent epistaxis for the past 2 weeks. Renal biopsy showed crescentic glomerulonephritis. Which antibody would you expect to be positive?

      Your Answer: Antiproteinase 3

      Explanation:

      This patient has pulmonary renal syndrome which is most commonly due to an ANCA positive vasculitis. The history of recurrent epistaxis makes Wegener’s granulomatosis the most probable diagnosis. Wegener’s granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis, and idiopathic pauci-immune necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis (NCGN) are strongly associated with antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies (ANCAs) directed against either proteinase 3 (anti-PR3) or myeloperoxidase (anti-MPO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?...

    Incorrect

    • Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Coloboma of lower eyelids

      Correct Answer: Hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Treacher Collins syndrome is a congenital disorder transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. The basic abnormality is the TCOF 1 gene mutation, which leads to a multitude of clinical features, of which the most striking is the symmetrical craniofacial deformities. Important clinical features include conductive deafness, coloboma of lower eyelids, cleft palate, antimongoloid (short and downward slanting) palpebral fissures, deformed or absent ears, sleep apnoea, and airway issues. Hirsutism is not a recognized feature of this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9 months. On examination, both parotid glands are firm and non-tender and are not warm to touch.What is the most probable infectious cause for chronic parotitis in the given scenario?

      Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for chronic parotitis in this patient would be HIV infection.Rationale:Chronic infectious parotitis is relatively uncommon in children. While mycobacterial infection can result in chronic parotitis, HIV is a relatively more common cause. The presentation should always prompt an HIV test. Other options:- While mumps is the most common cause of acute viral parotitis, the chronic nature of the boy’s presentation rules it out. – Acute bacterial parotitis is usually unilateral and is warm and tender to touch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      9.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (3/4) 75%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (0/2) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/4) 0%
Neonatology (0/2) 0%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Child Development (1/2) 50%
Haematology And Oncology (2/4) 50%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Genitourinary (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
HIV (1/1) 100%
Passmed