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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) team. He was brought to the hospital with symptoms of psychosis. He now complains of abdominal pain with abdominal examination revealing hepatomegaly. Which of the following investigations will most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is Wilson’s disease. Elevated serum ceruloplasmin levels can confirm the diagnosis.Serum ceruloplasminWilson’s disease causes reduced binding of copper to ceruloplasmin, which is the body’s primary copper carrying protein. As a result, copper cannot be excreted into the bile. Copper, therefore, builds up in the liver, causing toxicity and is secreted into the bloodstream unbound to ceruloplasmin. This free copper is deposited around the body, especially the brain, eyes and kidneys. The genetic defect means that ceruloplasmin is not released into the bloodstream| therefore, ceruloplasmin is low in Wilson’s disease.Other options:- Microscopic evaluation of the hair is performed in Menke’s disease, which is a disease of copper absorption leading to copper deficiency. This causes kinky hair, failure to thrive and neurological symptoms (such as hypotonia).- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the brain: An MRI brain may show features of Wilson’s disease (especially in the basal ganglia), but it is not diagnostic.- Serum ferritin: Serum ferritin becomes high in haemochromatosis. This classically causes cirrhosis, bronzing of the skin, cardiomyopathy and diabetes.- Ultrasound scan of the abdomen: While it is useful in any case of hepatomegaly| it is not going to provide the diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk...

    Incorrect

    • According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?

      Your Answer: Jaundice within 48 hours

      Correct Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice

      Explanation:

      Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:- gestational age under 38 weeks- a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy- mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively- visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin used in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) treatment?

      Your Answer: Increases insulin production

      Explanation:

      Metformin works by improving the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin, which results in a reduction of circulating insulin levels. Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and it also increases the glucose uptake by peripheral tissues and reduces fatty acid oxidation. Metformin has a positive effect on the endothelium and adipose tissue independent of its action on insulin and glucose levels.Metformin was the first insulin sensitising drug (ISD) to be used in PCOS to investigate the role of insulin resistance in the pathogenesis of the syndrome Several effects have been reported as related to metformin in PCOS patients including restoring ovulation, reducing weight, reducing circulating androgen levels, reducing the risk of miscarriage and reducing the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Other studies have reported that the addition of metformin to the ovarian stimulation regime in invitro fertilization (IVF) improves the pregnancy outcome. These effects will be addressed individually.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg. He is otherwise well with no fever or history of trauma. Clinical examination reveals limited limb motion due to the pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)

      Correct Answer: Perthes’ disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes’ disease is a disease of the hip in children. It presents with pain that is typically located in the groin area. The pain is often present only during physical activity. Most children seek medical attention because of limping.

      Osgood–Schlatter disease is pain caused by inflammation of the patella tendon at the tibial insertion.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis occurs classically in adolescence (M:F = 3:2)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely...

    Correct

    • In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely to be found?

      Your Answer: White European

      Explanation:

      Mongolian spots are, hyper-pigmented, non-blanching patches present on the back and gluteal region at birth. They are commonly found in African and Asian ethnic groups, and can also present in infants of Mediterranean and middle eastern descent. Though the spots usually disappear by puberty, some may persist into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - For a given condition, disease or attribute, there will be a proportion of...

    Incorrect

    • For a given condition, disease or attribute, there will be a proportion of people in a population who have it at a specified point in time or over a specified period of time. Which of following is the best term which describes the above?

      Your Answer: Sensitivity

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Prevalence:

      This is the proportion of individuals in a population who have a specific condition, disease, or attribute at a given point in time or over a specific period.

      Incidence:

      This is the number of new cases of a specific condition, disease, or attribute that develop in a population during a specified period of time.

      Specificity:

      This refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify those without the condition (true negative rate).

      Sensitivity:

      This refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify those with the condition (true positive rate).

      Probability:

      This is a measure of the likelihood that an event will occur. In the context of diseases, it can refer to the likelihood of developing a condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was irritable with evidence of weight loss. His stools were pale, bulky and malodorous. What is the most appropriate test that can be done to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endomysial Antibodies

      Correct Answer: Jejunal Biopsy

      Explanation:

      Pale, bulky, malodorous stools are evidence of fat malabsorption syndrome. The diagnostic test is jejunal biopsy to rule out other differential diagnoses such as celiac disease, giardiasis or Crohn’s disease etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which of the following would be a contraindication for the baby's discharge from the hospital?

      Your Answer: Grunting on expiration

      Correct Answer: Any one of the above

      Explanation:

      Any 2-month-old child presenting with any of the above signs, should be assessed and have a history taken and physical examination made before discharge. As these may all be signs and symptoms for a condition requiring hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor...

    Incorrect

    • At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor development?

      Your Answer: Can roll over

      Correct Answer: Finger play with the hands open and brought together

      Explanation:

      By the age of three months a child should become more fascinated with their hands and fingers| they can bring their hand to their mouth, open and close their hand, and shake and grab at dangling objects and toys. Their ability to roll over will come by the time the child is 6 months, at which time they will also be able to sit with support. Soon, at 8-9 months, attempts will be made to crawl and as they approach 12 months they will be able to pull on objects to stand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old boy presented to the ophthalmology clinic with a painless swelling on...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presented to the ophthalmology clinic with a painless swelling on the superotemporal aspect of his orbit. It was smooth on examination and produced no visual disturbances. Following excision, it was found to be lined by squamous epithelium and hair follicles.Which lesion is most probably associated with these findings?

      Your Answer: Desmoid tumour

      Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst

      Explanation:

      The most probable lesion in the patient is a dermoid cyst.Rationale:Dermoid cysts are embryological remnants and may be lined by hair and squamous epithelium (like teratomas). They are often located in the midline and may be linked to deeper structures resulting in a dumbbell shape to the lesion. Complete excision is required as they have a propensity to local recurrence if not excised.Note:Desmoid tumours are a different entity entirely. These lesions most commonly develop in ligaments and tendons. They are also referred to as aggressive fibromatosis and consist of dense fibroblastic lesions (resembling scar tissue). They should be managed in a similar manner to soft tissue sarcomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Testicular volume increases to 4mL in Tanner stage 4

      Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2

      Explanation:

      Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?

      Your Answer: 60/50

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Cataracts

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?

      Your Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal

      Explanation:

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body.Functions of cortisol:- Increases blood pressure: permits normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles.- Inhibits bone formation: decreases osteoblasts, type 1 collagen and absorption of calcium from the gut, and increases osteoclastic activity.- Increases insulin resistance.- Increases gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.- Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses.- Maintains function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.An excess of corticosteroids in the body causes various symptoms that are a part of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones be able to perform?

      Your Answer: Bounce and catch a ball

      Correct Answer: Pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor

      Explanation:

      Among the given options a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones will be able to pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor.Other options:- Bouncing and catching a ball is learnt by the age of 5.- The ability to pedal a tricycle should be attained by 3 years of age, not 2.- A child can walk on tip-toe by 2.5 and run on tip-toe by (option D) 3 years of age, not 2.- The ability to momentarily maintain balance using one leg (option E) should be attained by 3 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?

      Your Answer: Romano-Ward syndrome

      Correct Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome

      Explanation:

      Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16 year old female has been admitted to hospital after overdosing on...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old female has been admitted to hospital after overdosing on paracetamol 4 hours ago. She has also consumed a large amount of alcohol. Her plasma paracetamol concentration is only just below a level which requires treatment. From the list of options, choose the most appropriate treatment option for this patient.

      Your Answer: N-acetylcysteine

      Correct Answer: Refer to psychiatry ward

      Explanation:

      As her paracetamol level is under the required treatment threshold, she requires no medical treatment. However, she has taken a simultaneous drug overdose and excessive alcohol consumption. These two factors together require psychiatric evaluation and so she should be referred to the psychiatry ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician with vomiting, joint pains, diarrhoea and crampy abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals a purpuric rash on her legs and over the belt area. She has microscopic haematuria, proteinuria and RBC casts on urine testing. Which of the underlying diagnoses is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 2-year-old unimmunized child presents to paediatric emergency with sudden onset fever, drooling...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old unimmunized child presents to paediatric emergency with sudden onset fever, drooling and soft stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Epiglottitis is characterized by the abrupt onset of severe symptoms. Without airway control and medical management, symptoms may rapidly progress to respiratory obstruction and death in a matter of hours.Usually, no prodromal symptoms occur in children. Fever is usually the first symptom, and temperatures often reach 40°C. Acute epiglottitis may result in sudden, complete upper airway obstruction. Classic signs in children are four D’s: drooling, dyspnoea, dysphagia, and dysphonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer: t(15|17)

      Correct Answer: t(8|14)

      Explanation:

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8|14). Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:1. t(9|22)—Chronic myeloid leukaemia2. t(15|17)—Acute promyelocytic leukaemia3. t(14|18)—Follicular Lymphoma4. t(11|14)—Mantle Cell Lymphoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      61.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician after a sexual encounter with...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician after a sexual encounter with his new girlfriend during which they had sexual intercourse around ten days ago. The girlfriend's HIV status is unknown, and the patient is concerned that he might have acquired HIV. He has a blood test for a 4th generation assay, testing for HIV antibody and a p24 antigen. The results come out negative, however, HIV infection cannot be ruled out as he may be presenting in the window period. Which of the following most likely explains the pathology of the window period?

      Your Answer: Lack of clinical symptoms

      Correct Answer: Antibodies to HIV undetectable

      Explanation:

      Any blood test used to detect HIV infection must have a high degree of sensitivity (the probability that the test will be positive if the patient is infected) and specificity (the probability that the test will be negative if the patient is uninfected). Unfortunately, no antibody test is ever 100 % sensitive and specific. Therefore, if available, all positive test results should be confirmed by retesting, preferably by a different test method. HIV antibody tests usually become positive within 3 months of the individual being infected with the virus (the window period). In some individuals, the test may not be positive until 6 months or longer (considered unusual). In some countries, home testing kits are available. These tests are not very reliable, and support such as pre and post test counselling is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one go. She immediately regrets her actions and calls for help. She was brought to the hospital 2 hours after consuming the tablets. She has a history of HIV and is on antiretroviral therapy, though she cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange immediate haemodialysis

      Correct Answer: Check paracetamol level in further 2 hours' time

      Explanation:

      According to the Rumack-Matthew Normogram, accurate levels of paracetamol can be measured only between 4-15 hours. The levels measured before 4 hours post-ingestion would highly underestimate the level of paracetamol ingested.The patient in question presents 2 hours after ingestion. Hence the most appropriate time to measure the levels of acetaminophen would be a further 2 hours later. Other options:- Note that the treatment with NAC can be delayed until the 4-hour level is obtained and compared to the nomogram.- Furthermore, haemodialysis is only indicated if she develops hepato-renal syndrome that is likely to occur 72-96 hours post-ingestion.- Indications for acute liver transplantation include persistent acidosis, hepatorenal syndrome and worsening coagulopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with...

    Correct

    • A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with breathing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), a congenital heart defect, includes the following: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary valve stenosis. The O2 saturation in patients with TOF is typically lower than normal and the condition usually becomes symptomatic early in life. A feature of the disease with high diagnostic significance is squatting or crouching of the infant as a compensatory mechanism to increase the peripheral vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A new-born baby has an abdominal wall defect diagnosed antenatally. When admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby has an abdominal wall defect diagnosed antenatally. When admitted to the neonatal unit, there is a sac found covering a 3cm defect with what appears to be intestine| no liver is visible. The baby has no dysmorphic features other than a large tongue. What is the immediate danger with this baby?

      Your Answer: Tracheomalacia, risk to airway

      Correct Answer: Beckwith-Wiedermann syndrome, risk of hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome (BWS) was first characterized by Patients having abdominal wall defects, macrosomia, macroglossia, and enlarged adrenal glands. Since then, the clinical presentation has expanded to recognize hemihypertrophy/lateralized overgrowth, hyperinsulinism, omphalocele, and organomegaly as classic features of BWS.About 50% of children with BWS have hypoglycaemia and therefore patients with diagnosed BWS should be evaluated for hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia in most BWS new-borns generally resolves within the first few days of life. However, in about 5% of patients that have hyperinsulinism, the severe prolonged hypoglycaemia requires escalated therapy ranging for medication (diazoxide) to partial pancreatectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections)?

      Your Answer: Psychosis

      Correct Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder

      Explanation:

      A child may be diagnosed with PANDAS when:- Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), tic disorder, or both suddenly appear following a streptococcal (strep) infection, such as strep throat or scarlet fever.- The symptoms of OCD or tic symptoms suddenly become worse following a strep infection.The symptoms are usually dramatic, happen “overnight and out of the blue,” and can include motor or vocal tics or both and obsessions, compulsions, or both. In addition to these symptoms, children may become moody or irritable, experience anxiety attacks, or show concerns about separating from parents or loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results...

    Correct

    • A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below:
      • Right atrium 7 mmHg; Saturation 60 %
      • Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
      • Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
      • Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg; Saturation 98 %
      • Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 87 %
      • Aorta 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 76 %
      All of the following abnormalities are present in this patient, except?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Key Observations:

      1. Cyanosis and Low Oxygen Saturation:
        • Central cyanosis indicates mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
        • The aortic oxygen saturation is low (76%), indicating a significant amount of deoxygenated blood entering systemic circulation.
      2. Pressure Analysis:
        • The right ventricle pressure is significantly elevated (110/6 mmHg), suggesting an obstructive lesion like pulmonary stenosis or an increased volume load due to a shunt.
        • The pulmonary artery pressure is low (20/5 mmHg) despite the high right ventricular pressure, suggesting an obstruction to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, consistent with pulmonary stenosis.
      3. Oxygen Saturation Analysis:
        • There is a notable drop in oxygen saturation from the left ventricle (87%) to the aorta (76%), indicating a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation, suggestive of a right-to-left shunt.

      Differential Diagnosis:

      1. Pulmonary Stenosis:
        • Supported by elevated right ventricular pressure and low pulmonary artery pressure.
      2. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):
        • Would typically cause left-to-right shunting, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and higher oxygen saturation in the right ventricle and pulmonary artery, which is not observed here.
      3. Over-riding Aorta:
        • Seen in conditions like Tetralogy of Fallot where the aorta receives blood from both the right and left ventricles, leading to mixed oxygen saturation.
      4. Right-to-Left Shunt:
        • The data indicates a right-to-left shunt, with low oxygen saturation in the aorta, suggesting that deoxygenated blood is bypassing the lungs and entering systemic circulation.
      5. Aortic Stenosis:
        • Typically presents with high left ventricular pressure and a pressure gradient between the left ventricle and the aorta, which is not observed here.

      Conclusion:

      Given the data, the most likely abnormalities present in this patient are Pulmonary Stenosis, Right-to-Left Shunt, and Over-riding Aorta. These findings are consistent with a condition like Tetralogy of Fallot, where all these features are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia,...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is true of miliaria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of miliaria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miliaria crystalline causes tiny, fragile clear vesicles

      Explanation:

      Miliaria is a common skin disease caused by blockage and/or inflammation of eccrine sweat ducts. Miliaria is frequently seen in hot, humid or tropical climates, in patients in the hospital, and in the neonatal period. Miliaria is also known as sweat rash.Based on the level of the sweat duct obstruction, miliaria is divided into three subtypes:- Miliaria crystallina (sudamina), caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts close to the surface of the skin (epidermis)|- Miliaria rubra, caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts deeper in the epidermis|- Miliaria profunda (tropical anhidrosis), the result of sweat leaking into the middle layer of skin (dermis).Miliaria crystallina appears as 1–2 mm superficial clear blisters that easily break. The blisters can look like beads of sweat. There is no inflammation. The blisters are usually seen widely spread on the head, neck, and upper trunk.Miliaria rubra is the most common type of miliaria results in red, 2–4 mm, non-follicular papules and papulovesicles. They are very itchy. Background erythema is often present. In children, miliaria affects the skin folds of the neck, axilla or groin. In adults, miliaria often affects the upper trunk, scalp, neck and flexures, particularly areas of friction with clothing. Miliaria pustulosa is a variant of milia rubra in which there are pustules.Miliaria profunda describes asymptomatic deep papules. The flesh–coloured, 1–3 mm diameter papules usually arise on the trunk and extremities.Mild Topical steroids can be used as a treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Neonatology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Epidemiology And Statistics (0/2) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Child Development (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
HIV (2/3) 67%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
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