00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area? ...

    Incorrect

    • The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area?

      Your Answer: Thalamus

      Correct Answer: Posterior hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation and thermogenesis. Studies have shown that the neurons in the posterior hypothalamus which mediate the reflex of shivering are sensitive to temperature; damage to this nucleus produces hypothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders:

      Your Answer: The offspring of an affected person will be heterozygotes unless other parent is also a carrier

      Correct Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Correct

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?

      Your Answer: Increased levels of prostaglandins

      Correct Answer: Reduced levels of prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Ductus arteriosus is kept open by the prostaglandin E2 which is a vasodilator. At birth the high levels of cyclooxygenase blocks the production of prostaglandins which results in the closure of the ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The following are examples of the functions of the vascular endothelium except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are examples of the functions of the vascular endothelium except:

      Your Answer: Prothrombotic

      Correct Answer: Tumour suppression

      Explanation:

      Vascular endothelium has many important functions including regulation of vascular tone, molecular exchange between blood and tissue compartments, hemostasis and signaling for the immune regulation and inflammation. Depending on specific tissue needs and local stresses, endothelial cells are capable of evoking either antithrombotic or prothrombotic events. Tumor suppression is related to genes, or anti-oncogenes, that regulate a cell during cell division and replication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The first enzyme carbohydrates encounter in the digestive tract is? ...

    Correct

    • The first enzyme carbohydrates encounter in the digestive tract is?

      Your Answer: Amylase

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrate digesting enzymes are known as amylase. Salivary amylase or ptyalin is the first enzyme to begin carbohydrate digestion in he oral cavity. Amylose is a component of carbohydrates and is not an enzyme. Isomaltase, maltase and sucrase are enzymes found in the small intestines that digest disaccharides like maltose and sucrose to monosaccharides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - “Ploidy” is a term used to refer to the number of chromosomes in...

    Correct

    • “Ploidy” is a term used to refer to the number of chromosomes in cells. Cancer cells are commonly:

      Your Answer: Aneuploidy

      Explanation:

      Cancer cells most commonly undergo disordered cell growth and cell division. This results in an additional number of chromosomes called aneuploidy. This is a characteristic of cancer cells along with variation in differentiation of the cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous...

    Correct

    • There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous blood flow. This is maintained by:

      Your Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      There is an inverse relationship between the blood flow of the hepatic artery and portal vein. It is maintained by several factors such as chemicals like adenosine, neurohumoral substances, the morphology of the hepatic portal system (especially the ability of hepatic sinusoids to collapse) and myogenic control which causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Where is Basic Electrical rhythm initiated ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is Basic Electrical rhythm initiated

      Your Answer: Retrograde neurons

      Correct Answer: Interstitial cells of cajal

      Explanation:

      The interstitial cells of Cajal are specialized pacemaker cells located in the wall of the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. These cells are connected to the smooth muscle via gap junctions and the myenteric plexus. The cell membranes of the pacemaker cells undergo a rhythmic depolarization and repolarization from -65mV to -45mV. This rhythm of depolarization-repolarization of the cell membrane creates a slow wave known as a basic electrical rhythm (BER), and it is transmitted to the smooth muscle cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - With regard to carbohydrate absorption, which sodium-dependent glucose transporter (SGLT) is responsible for...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to carbohydrate absorption, which sodium-dependent glucose transporter (SGLT) is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the gut?

      Your Answer: SGLT 3

      Correct Answer: SGLT 1

      Explanation:

      SGLT- Sodium-dependent glucose cotransporter or sodium-glucose linked transporter are family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - B1 adrenergic stimulation produces: ...

    Correct

    • B1 adrenergic stimulation produces:

      Your Answer: Increase in calcium cytosolic concentration

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine secreted by the sympathetic endings binds to B1 receptors, and the resulting increase in intracellular cAMP facilitates the opening of L channels, increasing Ica and the rapidity of the depolarization phase of the impulse and activates PKA which leads to phosphorylation of the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, causing them to spend more time in the open state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located:

      Your Answer: In the lamina propria

      Correct Answer: At the base of the crypts

      Explanation:

      Epithelial cells are renewed every 4-5 days through a process of renewal and migration. Renewal relies on proliferative cells or stem cells that reside at the crypt base of the intestinal glands. Crypts are epithelial invasions into the underlying connective tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the average life span of red blood cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average life span of red blood cells?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 4 months

      Explanation:

      Approximately 2.4 million new erythrocytes are produced per second in human adults. The cells develop in the bone marrow and circulate for about 100–120 days (4 months) in the body before their components are recycled by macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following makes up the thick filaments in muscle fibers? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following makes up the thick filaments in muscle fibers?

      Your Answer: Myosin

      Explanation:

      The thick filaments are made up of myosin and the thin filaments are made up of actin. The thick filaments are twice the size of the thin filaments and are aligned to form the A band. The thin filaments extending out from the A band form the less dense I bands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Where does the pituitary gland lie? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the pituitary gland lie?

      Your Answer: In a pocket of the sphenoid bone at the base of the brain

      Explanation:

      The pituitary lies in a small depression in the sphenoid bone, known as the sella turcica or Turkish saddle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the function of Activated protein C? ...

    Correct

    • What is the function of Activated protein C?

      Your Answer: Inactivates factor Va

      Explanation:

      Activated Protein C (APC) is a crucial protein in the regulation of blood coagulation. Its primary functions include:

      1. Inactivating Factor Va: APC inactivates Factor Va, which is a cofactor for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin by Factor Xa. By inactivating Factor Va, APC reduces thrombin formation, thereby acting as an anticoagulant.
      2. Inactivating Factor VIIIa: APC also inactivates Factor VIIIa, another cofactor that assists Factor IXa in the conversion of Factor X to Factor Xa. This further contributes to its anticoagulant effect.

      These actions help to regulate blood clotting and prevent excessive thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Vagotomy leads to the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Vagotomy leads to the following:

      Your Answer: No peristalsis

      Correct Answer: Irregular and chaotic peristalsis

      Explanation:

      The Vagus nerve is primarily responsible for autonomic regulation involved in heart, lung and gastrointestinal function. The gastric branches supply the stomach. The right branch joins the celiac plexus and supplies the intestines. Vagotomy involves cutting of the vagus nerve or its branches which is a now-obsolete therapy that was performed for peptic ulcer disease. Vagotomy causes a decrease in peristalsis and a change in the emptying patterns of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Gastrin activates all of the following cells except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrin activates all of the following cells except:

      Your Answer: Enterochromaffin- like cells

      Correct Answer: Mucus neck cells

      Explanation:

      The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres

      Explanation:

      A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In the basal ganglia, the Lentiform nucleus is formed by which two nuclei?...

    Correct

    • In the basal ganglia, the Lentiform nucleus is formed by which two nuclei?

      Your Answer: Putamen and Globus pallidus

      Explanation:

      The Basal Ganglia are composed of the following structures: Caudate, putamen, Globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus and substantia nigra.

      The Lentiform nucleus is a biconvex structure located within the basal ganglia of the brain. It is composed of two nuclei:

      1. Putamen: This is the outer part of the Lentiform nucleus and is involved in regulating movements and various types of learning.
      2. Globus pallidus: This is the inner part of the Lentiform nucleus and is divided into two segments: the external segment (GPe) and the internal segment (GPi). It plays a key role in the regulation of voluntary movement.

      These two structures together form the Lentiform nucleus, which is an integral part of the basal ganglia system involved in motor control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true ...

    Correct

    • With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true

      Your Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders. Dominance rules for sex-linked gene loci are determined by their behaviour in the female: because the male has only one allele (except in the case of certain types of Y chromosome aneuploidy), that allele is always expressed regardless of whether it is dominant or recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Emulsification of dietary lipids is brought about by ...

    Correct

    • Emulsification of dietary lipids is brought about by

      Your Answer: Bile salts

      Explanation:

      Digestion of fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine. The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except: ...

    Correct

    • The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except:

      Your Answer: Lateral spinal artery

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord (SC) is supplied by the single anterior spinal artery which supplies the anterior two thirds of the SC and paired posterior spinal arteries supplying the posterior one third. Anastomoses between the spinal arteries supply the lateral column. These arteries originate near the cervico-occipital junction and therefore have a smaller calibre and often discontinue. Thus, they require reinforcement by segmental/radicular arteries which are branches of the ascending cervical artery, deep cervical artery, intercostal arteries, lumbar arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Cold receptors are likely to be active at the following temperatures except? ...

    Correct

    • Cold receptors are likely to be active at the following temperatures except?

      Your Answer: 39 °C

      Explanation:

      Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is primarily responsible for the detection of temperatures ranging from 8-28 C. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca+ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding integrins, which option is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding integrins, which option is false?

      Your Answer: All of the options are true

      Correct Answer: Play no role in cell signalling.

      Explanation:

      Integrins are transmembrane receptors that facilitate cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) adhesion. Upon ligand binding, integrins activate signal transduction pathways that mediate cellular signals such as regulation of the cell cycle, organization of the intracellular cytoskeleton, and movement of new receptors to the cell membrane. Integrins are obligate heterodimers, meaning that they have two subunits: α (alpha) and β (beta). Integrins play an important role in cell signalling by modulating the cell signalling pathways of transmembrane protein kinases such as receptor tyrosine kinases (RTK).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which two ducts form the ampulla of Vater? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which two ducts form the ampulla of Vater?

      Your Answer: The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct of Vater

      Correct Answer: The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct of Wirsung

      Explanation:

      The ampulla of Vater, also known as the hepatopancreatic ampulla or the hepatopancreatic duct, is formed by the union of the pancreatic duct and the common bile duct. The ampulla is specifically located at the major duodenal papilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Cell membrane proteins may act as: ...

    Correct

    • Cell membrane proteins may act as:

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Membrane proteins perform a variety of functions including:Membrane receptor proteins relay or carry signals between the cell’s internal and external environments.Transport proteins move molecules and ions (ionic channels) across the membrane. Membrane enzymes may have many activities, such as oxidoreductase, transferase or hydrolase andCell adhesion molecules

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is a function of Vitamin C? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a function of Vitamin C?

      Your Answer: Hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline for collagen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin C acts as an electron donor for eight different enzymes: Three enzymes (prolyl-3-hydroxylase, prolyl-4-hydroxylase, and lysyl hydroxylase) that are required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Intermediate filaments achieve cell to cell contact via: ...

    Incorrect

    • Intermediate filaments achieve cell to cell contact via:

      Your Answer: Focal adherent junctions

      Correct Answer: Desmosomes

      Explanation:

      At the plasma membrane, some keratins interact with desmosomes (cell-cell adhesion) and hemidesmosomes (cell-matrix adhesion) via adapter proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      12.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Medicine (16/30) 53%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (3/5) 60%
Gastrointestinal (3/9) 33%
Haematology (2/3) 67%
Connective Tissue (0/1) 0%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (1/3) 33%
Passmed