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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT mainly characterised by intravascular haemolysis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT mainly characterised by intravascular haemolysis:

      Your Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Correct Answer: Beta-Thalassaemia

      Explanation:

      Causes of intravascular haemolysis:
      Haemolytic transfusion reactions
      G6PD deficiency
      Red cell fragmentation syndromes
      Some severe autoimmune haemolytic anaemias
      Some drug-and infection-induced haemolytic anaemias
      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis two years ago. Her symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis two years ago. Her symptoms have been steadily deteriorating, with no intervals of remission in sight.

      Which of the following aspects of nerve conduction is disrupted by multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer: Saltatory conduction

      Explanation:

      Local currents propagate action potentials down the axons of neurons. This local current flow following depolarisation results in the depolarisation of the neighbouring axonal membrane, and when this region approaches the threshold, more action potentials are generated and so forth. Due to the refractory period, portions of the membrane that have recently depolarized will not depolarize again, resulting in the action potential only being able to go in one direction.

      The square root of axonal diameter determines the velocity of the action potential; the axons with the biggest diameter have the quickest conduction velocities. When a neuron is myelinated, the speed of the action potential rises as well.
      The myelin sheath is an insulating coating that surrounds certain neural axons. By increasing membrane resistance and decreasing membrane capacitance, the myelin sheath improves conduction. This enables faster electrical signal transmission via a neuron, making them more energy-efficient than non-myelinated neuronal axons.
      Electrical impulses are quickly transmitted from one node to the next, causing depolarization of the membrane above the threshold and triggering another action potential, which is then transmitted to the next node. An action potential is rapidly conducted down a neuron in this manner. Saltatory conduction is the term for this.
      Multiple sclerosis is an example of a clinical disorder in which the myelin sheath is affected. It is an immune-mediated disorder in which certain nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord become demyelinated. The ability of some areas of the nervous system to properly transmit action potentials is disrupted by demyelination, resulting in a variety of neurological symptoms and indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      110.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule: ...

    Incorrect

    • About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule:

      Your Answer: 50 - 60%

      Correct Answer: 65 - 70%

      Explanation:

      Of the filtered sodium, about 65% is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      116
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - All of the following are physiological effects of thyroid hormones except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are physiological effects of thyroid hormones except:

      Your Answer: Increased glycogenesis

      Explanation:

      Thyroid hormones have multiple physiological effects on the body. These include:
      1. Heat production (thermogenesis)
      2. Increased basal metabolic rate
      3. Metabolic effects:
      (a) Increase in protein turnover (both synthesis and degradation are increased, although overall effect is catabolic)
      (b) Increase in lipolysis
      (c)Increase in glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
      4. Enhanced catecholamine effect – Increase in heart rate, stroke volume and thus cardiac output
      5. Important role in growth and development

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The cutaneous circulation's principal role is thermoregulation. This process is aided by the...

    Correct

    • The cutaneous circulation's principal role is thermoregulation. This process is aided by the existence of arteriovenous anastomoses.

      Which of the following anatomical areas has the greatest number of arteriovenous anastomoses?

      Your Answer: Pinna of the ear

      Explanation:

      Short vessels called arteriovenous anastomoses (AVAs) link tiny arteries and veins. They have a large lumen diameter. The strong and muscular walls allow AVAs to completely clog the vascular lumen, preventing blood flow from artery to vein (acting like a sphincter). When the AVAs open, they create a low-resistance connection between arteries and veins, allowing blood to flow into the limbs’ superficial venous plexuses. There is no diffusion of solutes or fluid into the interstitium due to their strong muscle walls.

      AVAs are densely innervated by adrenergic fibres from the hypothalamic temperature-regulation centre. High sympathetic output occurs at normal core temperatures, inducing vasoconstriction of the AVAs and blood flow through the capillary networks and deep plexuses. When the temperature rises, sympathetic output decreases, producing AVA vasodilation and blood shunting from the artery to the superficial venous plexus. Heat is lost to the environment as hot blood rushes near to the skin’s surface.
      AVAs are a specialized anatomical adaptation that can only be found in large quantities in the fingers, palms, soles, lips, and pinna of the ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant...

    Correct

    • An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant amount of aspirin.

      In the early stages of an aspirin overdose, which form of acid-base problem should you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When you take too much aspirin, you have a mix of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory centre stimulation produces hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis in the early phases. The direct acid actions of aspirin tend to create a higher anion gap metabolic acidosis in the latter phases.
      Below summarizes some of the most common reasons of acid-base abnormalities:

      Respiratory alkalosis:
      – Hyperventilation (e.g. anxiety, pain, fever)
      – Pulmonary embolism
      – Pneumothorax
      – CNS disorders (e.g. CVA, SAH, encephalitis)
      – High altitude
      – Pregnancy
      – Early stages of aspirin overdose

      Respiratory acidosis:
      – COPD
      – Life-threatening asthma
      – Pulmonary oedema
      – Respiratory depression (e.g. opiates, benzodiazepines)
      – Neuromuscular disease (e.g. Guillain-Barré syndrome, muscular dystrophy
      – Incorrect ventilator settings (hypoventilation)
      – Obesity

      Metabolic alkalosis:
      – Vomiting
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Multi-organ failure
      – Cystic fibrosis
      – Potassium depletion (e.g. diuretic usage)
      – Cushing’s syndrome
      – Conn’s syndrome

      Metabolic acidosis (with raised anion gap):
      – Lactic acidosis (e.g. hypoxaemia, shock, sepsis, infarction)
      – Ketoacidosis (e.g. diabetes, starvation, alcohol excess)
      – Renal failure
      – Poisoning (e.g. late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, ethylene glycol)

      Metabolic acidosis (with normal anion gap):
      – Renal tubular acidosis
      – Diarrhoea
      – Ammonium chloride ingestion
      – Adrenal insufficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Digoxin exhibits its positive inotropic effect by which of the following mechanisms: ...

    Incorrect

    • Digoxin exhibits its positive inotropic effect by which of the following mechanisms:

      Your Answer: Activates Ca2+ release channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the Na+/K+ pump on the myocyte membrane

      Explanation:

      Cardiac glycosides (e.g. digoxin) slow the removal of Ca2+from the cell by inhibiting the membrane Na+pump (Na+/K+ATPase) which generates the Na+gradient required for driving the export of Ca2+by Na+/Ca2+exchange; consequently the removal of Ca2+from the myocyte is slowed and more Ca2+is available for the next contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles are innervated by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Both the medial and lateral pterygoids are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II predominantly in the liver.

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II has a predominant vasoconstrictor effect on the efferent arteriole.

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin II constricts both the afferent and efferent arterioles, but preferentially increases efferent resistance. The net effect of the more prominent increase in efferent tone is that the intraglomerular pressure is stable or increased, thereby tending to maintain or even raise the GFR. Renin is produced by granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus. Renin cleaves plasma angiotensinogen (produced in the liver) into angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is converted by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) on pulmonary endothelial cells to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II acts to potentiate sympathetic activity (positive feedback).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      104.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer from bipolar disorder, which has been well controlled by the use of lithium for many years.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is the inability to produce concentrated urine. It is characterised by the presence of excessive thirst, polyuria and polydipsia. There are two distinct types of diabetes insipidus:
      Cranial (central) diabetes insipidus and;
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
      Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of vasopressin (anti-diuretic hormone). Patients with cranial diabetes insipidus can have a urine output as high as 10-15 litres per 24 hours, but adequate fluid intake allows most patients to maintain normonatraemia. 30% of cases are idiopathic, and a further 30% are secondary to head injuries. Other causes include neurosurgery, brain tumours, meningitis, granulomatous disease (e.g. sarcoidosis) and drugs, such as naloxone and phenytoin. A very rare inherited form also exists that is associated with diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, nerve deafness and bladder atonia.
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal resistance to the action of vasopressin. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output is markedly elevated. Serum sodium levels can be maintained by secondary polydipsia or can be elevated. Causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include chronic renal disease, metabolic disorders (e.g. hypercalcaemia and hypokalaemia) and drugs, including long-term lithium usage and demeclocycline.
      In view of the history of long-term lithium use, in this case, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding iron handling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding iron handling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Ascorbic acid inhibits the reduction of ferric (Fe 3+ ) to ferrous (Fe 2+ ) iron.

      Correct Answer: Iron is taken across the enterocyte apical membrane by the divalent metal transporter (DMT1).

      Explanation:

      Dietary iron may be in the form of haem or non-haem iron. Haem iron is degraded after absorption through the cell surface to release Fe2+. Most non-haem iron is in the form Fe3+, which is reduced at the luminal surface to the more soluble Fe2+, facilitated by hydrochloric acid in gastric secretions (and enhanced by ascorbic acid). Fe2+is taken across the enterocyte apical membrane by the divalent metal transporter (DMT1). In the enterocyte, Fe2+is then either stored in enterocyte epithelial cells as ferritin, or released into portal plasma via the molecule ferroportin at the basolateral membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary...

    Incorrect

    • An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary calcium and incidence of hip fractures among post-menopausal women. The following are the data obtained from the study:

      No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium: 500
      No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium and suffered a hip fracture: 10

      No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo: 500
      No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo and suffered a hip fracture: 25

      Compute for the absolute risk reduction of a hip fracture.

      Your Answer: 0.4

      Correct Answer: 0.03

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is computed as the difference between the absolute risk in the control group (ARC) and the absolute risk in the treatment group (ART).

      ARR = ARC-ART
      ARR = (25/500) – (10/500)
      ARR = 0.03

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.
      Glucagon INHIBITS which of the following processes? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Lipolysis

      Correct Answer: Glycolysis

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?

      Your Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following anatomic structures will gallstones most likely lodge into, and...

    Correct

    • Which of the following anatomic structures will gallstones most likely lodge into, and cause cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Hartmann’s pouch

      Explanation:

      Hartmann’s pouch is a diverticulum that can occur at the neck of the gallbladder. It is one of the rarest congenital anomalies of the gallbladder. Hartmann’s gallbladder pouch is a frequent but inconsistent feature of normal and pathologic human gallbladders. It is caused by adhesions between the cystic duct and the neck of the gallbladder. As a result, it is classified as a morphologic rather than an anatomic entity.

      There is a significant association between the presence of Hartmann’s pouch and gallbladder stones. It is the most common location for gallstones to become lodged and cause cholestasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      85.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 82 year old man taking warfarin as a maintenance medication comes in...

    Correct

    • An 82 year old man taking warfarin as a maintenance medication comes in to your clinic because of an infection. Which antibiotic is the safest choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      Alterations in the international normalized ratio (INR) brought about by the concurrent use of antibiotics and warfarin may result in either excessive clotting or excessive bleeding if they are deemed to have a high risk for interaction. As such, there should be careful consideration of the class of antibiotic to be used.

      Antibiotics from the following drug classes should generally be avoided as they have a high risk for interaction with warfarin, possible enhancing the anticoagulant effects of warfarin resulting in bleeding: Fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin), Macrolides (e.g. clarithromycin, erythromycin, azithromycin), Nitroimidazoles (e.g. metronidazole), Sulphonamides (e.g. co-trimoxazole, a combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole), Trimethoprim, Tetracyclines (e.g. doxycycline).

      Low risk antibiotics that have low risk for interaction with warfarin includes cephalexin, from the cephalosporin class, and clindamycin which is a lincomycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The sensory innervation of the oropharynx is provided by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The sensory innervation of the oropharynx is provided by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Each subdivision of the pharynx has a different sensory innervation:the nasopharynx is innervated by the maxillary nervethe oropharynx is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nervethe laryngopharynx is innervated by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding oral rehydration therapy, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding oral rehydration therapy, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Oral rehydration solutions should be slightly hyperosmolar.

      Explanation:

      Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) is a fluid replacement strategy used to prevent or treat dehydration. It is less invasive than other strategies for fluid replacement and has successfully lowered the mortality rate of diarrhoea in developing countries. Oral rehydration solutions should be slightly hypo-osmolar (about 250 mmol/litre) to prevent the possible induction of osmotic diarrhoea.
      ORT contains glucose (e.g. 90 mmol/L in dioralyte). The addition of glucose improves sodium and water absorption in the bowel and prevents hypoglycaemia. It also contains essential mineral salts.
      Current NICE guidance recommends that 50 ml/kg is given over 4 hours for the treatment of mild dehydration.
      Once rehydrated, a child should continue with their usual daily fluid intake plus 200 ml ORT after each loose stool. In an infant, give ORT at 1-1.5 x the normal feed volume and in an adult, give 200-400 ml after each loose stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following causes the first heart sound? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes the first heart sound?

      Your Answer: Opening of the semilunar valves

      Correct Answer: Closing of the atrioventricular valves

      Explanation:

      The heart sounds are as a result of the various parts of the cardiac cycle.
      Heart Sound – Phase of Cardiac Cycle – Mechanical Event:
      1st heart sound – Systole starts – there is closure of the atrioventricular (mitral & tricuspid) valves
      2nd heart sound – Systole ends – there is closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonary) valves
      3rd heart sound – Early diastole – this is caused by rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles during the ventricular filling phase
      4th heart sound – Late diastole – this is caused by filling of an abnormally stiff ventricle in atrial systole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      100.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In all of the following conditions, lymphocytosis typically occurs except for: ...

    Correct

    • In all of the following conditions, lymphocytosis typically occurs except for:

      Your Answer: Corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      In infants and young children, lymphocytosis often occurs in response to infections that would normally produce a neutrophil reaction in adults.
      Lymphocytosis occurs in:
      1. Viral infections (e.g. infectious mononucleosis, HIV, rubella, mumps, viral hepatitis, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex or zoster)
      2. Bacterial infections (e.g. pertussis, tuberculosis, toxoplasmosis, syphilis)
      3. Chronic lymphoid leukaemias
      4. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemias
      5. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
      6. Thyrotoxicosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      20.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (0/2) 0%
Pathology (1/3) 33%
Basic Cellular Physiology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (5/10) 50%
Renal (0/2) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Physiology (1/1) 100%
Renal Physiology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Head And Neck (0/2) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Physiology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Fluids And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Passmed