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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole?
Your Answer: Inhibition of 5'-deiodinase
Correct Answer: Inhibition of the iodination of tyrosine
Explanation:Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is a pro-drug as after absorption it is converted to the active form, methimazole. Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following regulates the calcium release channels?
Your Answer: Both a and d
Correct Answer: Calstabin 2
Explanation:Ca2+ is released from the SR through a Ca2+ release channel, a cardiac isoform of the ryanodine receptor (RyR2), which controls intracytoplasmic [Ca2+] and, as in vascular smooth-muscle cells, leads to the local changes in intracellular [Ca2+] called calcium sparks. A number of regulatory proteins, including calstabin 2, inhibit RyR2 and, thereby, the release of Ca2+ from the SR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except:
Your Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation
Explanation:In knockout mouse models, a gene is not turned on but rather turned off or “knocked out” through targeted mutation. This involves disrupting or deleting the gene to study the effects of its loss of function. Knockout models are crucial for understanding the roles of specific genes, particularly those with unknown functions.
The other statements are true:
- Knockout models are important in studying the roles of sequenced genes with unknown function.
- RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms) can be subcategorized as SLP (single locus probe) and MLP (multi locus probe).
- RFLP analysis is slow and cumbersome and is now largely obsolete, having been replaced by more efficient techniques.
- Sequence changes involved in RFLP can be analyzed more quickly by PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least recognised as a potential complication of acromegaly?
Your Answer: Cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Mental retardation
Explanation:Acromegaly is a condition that results from excess growth hormone (GH) after the growth plates have closed. It is typically due to the pituitary gland producing too much growth hormone. In more than 95% of people the excess production is due to a benign tumour, known as a pituitary adenoma. The condition is not inherited.Complications:Severe headacheArthritis and carpal tunnel syndromeEnlarged heartLiver fibrosis and bile duct hyperplasiaHypertensionDiabetes mellitus (excess of GH leads to insulin resistance)Heart failureKidney failureColorectal cancerCompression of the optic chiasm leading to loss of vision in the outer visual fields (typically bitemporal hemianopia.)Increased palmar sweating and sebum production over the face (seborrhoea) are clinical indicators of active GH-producing pituitary tumours.hypertensiondiabetes (>10%)cardiomyopathycolorectal cancer
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is troponin?
Your Answer: A myosin light chain
Correct Answer: A component of thin filaments
Explanation:Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Mean intra pleural pressure at rest with inspiration can reach:
Your Answer: -2.5 mmHg
Correct Answer: -6 mmHg
Explanation:It is a negative pressure as it is lower than the atmospheric pressure. It can start from -2.5 and reach around -6 mmHg
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which one of the following transporters is involved in facilitated diffusion?
Your Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase
Correct Answer: GLUT2
Explanation:GLUT 2 is a bidirectional transporter, allowing glucose to flow in 2 directions via facilitated diffusion. Is expressed by renal tubular cells, liver cells and pancreatic beta cells. It is also present in the basolateral membrane of the small intestine epithelium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Bile salts are responsible for:
Your Answer: Hydrolysis of glutathione
Correct Answer: The emulsification of fats
Explanation:The main function of bile acids is to allow digestion of dietary fats and oils by acting as a surfactant that emulsifies them into micelles, allowing them to be colloidally suspended in the chyme before further processing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the gut?
Your Answer: GLUT3
Correct Answer: SGLT1
Explanation:SGLT 1 is responsible for the uptake of glucose via secondary active transport from the small intestine and the renal tubules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin act by way of which second messengers in the release of acid by parietal cells:
Your Answer: G proteins
Correct Answer: A and D
Explanation:Acetylcholine, Histamine and Gastrin receptors are located on the basolateral membrane of the parietal cell and control its activity. Stimulation of these receptors modulates the levels of protein kinases in the cell and brings about the changes from a resting to stimulated structure. Protein kinase catalyses conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP which activates the proton pump. Calcium ions increase gastric acid secretion elicited by gastrin released through a vagal mechanism, and also by a direct effect on parietal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following antibiotics is safest to use in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics that should be avoided in pregnancy are included in the mnemonic: Countless SAFe Moms Take Really Good Care -Clarithromycin, Sulphonamides, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Tetracyclines, Ribavirin, Griseofulvin, Chloramphenicol
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following is a product of D cells
Your Answer: Somatostatin
Explanation:Somatostatin is secreted by D cells, HCL and intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells. Trefoil peptides are secreted by mucus secreting goblet cells and gastrin releasing peptide (grp) by post-ganglionic fibers of the vagus nerve (which innervate the G cells of the stomach).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?
Your Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.
Explanation:Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by:
Your Answer: Passive diffusion
Explanation:Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by simple diffusion along a concentration gradient. Concentration of oxygen and the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli are higher than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. So, oxygen moves from alveoli into blood via simple diffusion according to the concentration gradient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?
Your Answer: Afferent arteriolar cells
Correct Answer: Tubular interstitial cells
Explanation:Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In the jugular venous pressure wave…
Your Answer: Consists of 3 troughs and 3 peaks
Correct Answer: Consists of 3 peaks and 2 troughs
Explanation:The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections (peaks) and two downward deflections (troughs) have been described:The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:
Your Answer: II and V
Correct Answer: I and V
Explanation:Nociceptors are receptors of pain sensation. There are 2 primary afferent/sensory pain fibers which transmit impulses from the receptor to the CNS, specifically to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The two fibers are A δ and C fibers. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord is the relay centre for sensory information converging from the periphery. Grey matter of the dorsal horn is subdivided in to laminae based on cytoarchitecture. C fibers terminate in lamina II the substantia gelatinosa. A δ fibers terminate primarily in lamina I but some project more deeply to terminate in lamina V.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Regarding the anatomy of the intestine, the muscularis propria contains all of which of the following constituents?
Your Answer: Longitudinal muscle, muscularis mucosa, serosa
Correct Answer: Circular muscle, myenteric plexus, longitudinal muscle
Explanation:The muscularis mucosa/propria consists of the inner circular muscles and the outer longitudinal muscles. Between these muscles is the myenteric plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?
Your Answer: Alopecia
Explanation:All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.Common lithium side effects may include:- dizziness, drowsiness;- tremors in your hands;- trouble walking;- dry mouth, increased thirst or urination;- nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, stomach pain;- cold feeling or discoloration in your fingers or toes;- rash; or.- blurred vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following stimulates glucagon release?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Exercise
Explanation:Studies have shown a small increase in glucagon levels during stress tests and exercise. This occurs in response to the reduction of blood glucose levels during physical activity; epinephrine levels are also a stimulus for the release of glucagon during exercise, since it suppresses insulin, which accounts for its stimulatory effects on glucagon. The use of stored fats for energy during exercise also stimulates the release of glucagon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of these vitamins is not found in plants?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:No fungi, plants, nor animals (including humans) are capable of producing vitamin B12. Only bacteria and archaea have the enzymes needed for its synthesis. Proved food sources of B12 are animal products (meat, fish, dairy products).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Bile contains:
Your Answer: Bile pigments, bilirubin, calcium
Correct Answer: Bile acids, phosphatidylcholine, cholesterol
Explanation:The main components of bile include bile acids or bile salts, phospholipids; mainly phosphatidylcholine, cholesterol, bilirubin, inorganic salts; potassium, sodium and bicarbonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the most common cardiac defect seen in patients with Down’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Secundum atrial septal defect
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:The rate of congenital heart disease in new-borns with Down syndrome is around 40%. Of those with heart disease, about 80% have an atrioventricular septal defect or ventricular septal defect with the former being more common. Mitral valve problems become common as people age, even in those without heart problems at birth.[3] Other problems that may occur include tetralogy of Fallot and patent ductus arteriosus.[38] People with Down syndrome have a lower risk of hardening of the arteries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The sympathetic supply to the stomach comes from the:
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Celiac plexus
Explanation:The vagus nerve supplies the stomach and up to proximal two-thirds of the large intestine and has parasympathetic stimulation. The sympathetic chain which begins at the level of he 1st thoracic vertebra and extends up to 3rd lumbar vertebra gives off the celiac plexus which mainly supplies the stomach. The mesenteric plexus mainly supplies the small intestine and is located below the celiac plexus in the sympathetic chain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following cells will degranulate and release histamine when binding to IgE?
Your Answer: Lymphocytes
Correct Answer: Basophils
Explanation:Basophils have protein receptors on their cell surface that bind IgE, an immunoglobulin involved in microparasite defence and allergy. When activated, basophils degranulate to release histamine, proteoglycans (e.g. heparin and chondroitin), and proteolytic enzymes (e.g. elastase and lysophospholipase).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:
Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis
Explanation:Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic drug for children with absence seizures. The total number of the children selected for the study was 400, from which 150 children were assigned to take the new drug and 250 children were assigned in the control group. After a period of four months, only 15 children taking the new drug had a seizure compared to 100 children from the control group who had seizure. What is the correct value regarding the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer: 75%
Explanation:Relative risk reduction (RRR) tells you by how much the treatment reduced the risk of bad outcomes relative to the control group who did not have the treatment. In the previous example, the relative risk reduction of fever and rash in the group of the children on the intervention was 40 per cent (1 – 0.6 = 0.4 or 40 per cent). RRR = (EER -CER) / CER = (0.1 – 0.4) / 0.4 = -0.75 or 75% reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Research Skills
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A typical sleep cycle from stage 1 to the end of REM sleep in a normal adult is approximately how long?
Your Answer: 30 min
Correct Answer: 90 min
Explanation:A single sleep cycle has stages 1, 2, 3, 4 and REM (Rapid eye movement). These stages progress cyclically from 1 through to REM and then begin again with stage 1. A complete sleep cycle takes an average of 90-110 minutes, with each stage lasting between 5 to 15 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding DNA cloning and sequencing, all of the following are true, except:
Your Answer: In sequencing dideoxysequencing allows identification of exact nucleotide sequence
Correct Answer: Yeast artificial chromosomes ( yacs) are vectors
Explanation:Yeast chromosomes cannot be used as a vector. All the rest are true. Vectors can be bacteria, viruses and plasmids. DNA ligase binds the DNA fragment to the host DNA after insertion. Fluorescence can be used to visualize them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An elderly man presents with fever of 38°C and a very severe headache. His BP is 85/50 mm Hg. He has neck stiffness and photophobia. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: IV fluid and CT head
Correct Answer: CT head
Explanation:In elderly patients, symptoms suggestive of meningitis could be due to an intracranial mass lesion (such as abscess, tumour or an intracerebral haematoma). Therefore elderly patients are increased risk of cerebral herniation from an LP. A CT head should be done before an LP to exclude a mass lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Neutrophils are key components of the innate immune system. They contain numerous primary and secondary granules involved in killing and digesting microorganisms. With regard to defensins, they are:
Your Answer: Involved in the conversion of negative ions to their corresponding acids
Correct Answer: Naturally occurring cysteine-rich antibacterial and antifungal polypeptides
Explanation:Cationic antimicrobial peptides, including defensins, cathelicidins, and thrombocidins, provide important initial defences against invading microbes. These peptides bind the bacterial membrane and form pores, killing the bacterium by hypo-osmotic lysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams:
Your Answer: May produce a hypersensitivity rash in up to 60% of patients with infectious mononucleosis
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav is more likely to cause obstructive jaundice than amoxicillin
Explanation:β-lactam antibiotics are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics, consisting of all antibiotic agents that contain a β-lactam ring in their molecular structures. This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems. Most β-lactam antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism and are the most widely used group of antibiotics. Bacteria often develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing a β-lactamase, an enzyme that attacks the β-lactam ring. To overcome this resistance, β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid. Immunologically mediated adverse reactions to any β-lactam antibiotic may occur in up to 10% of patients receiving that agent (a small fraction of which are truly IgE-mediated allergic reactions). Rarely, cholestatic jaundice has been associated with Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid). The reaction may occur up to several weeks after treatment has stopped, and usually takes weeks to resolve. It is more frequent in men, older people, and those who have taken long courses of treatment; the estimated overall incidence is one in 100,000 exposures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 34
Correct
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A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?
Your Answer: All correct
Explanation:Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of:
Your Answer: Tight junctions
Correct Answer: Gap junctions
Explanation:The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in between the cells. They allow for the formation of low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Bronchial smooth muscle:
Your Answer: Is less in the terminal bronchioles
Correct Answer: Tone is increased by cholinergic discharge
Explanation:The lungs are supplied by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. The parasympathetic innervation is supplied by the vagus nerve. The parasympathetic nervous system is the dominant neuronal pathway in the control of airway smooth muscle tone. Stimulation of cholinergic nerves causes bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion, and bronchial vasodilation. Sympathetic innervation is supplied by the T1 to T5 of the spinal cord and act mainly via beta adrenergic receptors. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes vasoconstriction and bronchodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Urinary incontinence is common
Correct Answer: Mydriasis occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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In which phase do chromosomes in the nucleus become condensed into well-defined chromosomes?
Your Answer: Telophase
Correct Answer: Metaphase
Explanation:Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage?
Your Answer: Basophils
Correct Answer: Monocyte
Explanation:Monocytes are a type of white blood cell, or leukocyte. They are the largest type of leukocyte and can differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Cyclic AMP activates the following enzyme
Your Answer: Adenylyl cyclase
Correct Answer: Protein Kinase A
Explanation:Cyclic AMP works by activating protein kinase A (PKA, or cAMP-dependent protein kinase). Protein kinase A can also phosphorylate specific proteins that bind to promoter regions of DNA, causing increases in transcription.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which substance is produced by anterograde neurons?
Your Answer: Serotonin
Correct Answer: Nitric oxide
Explanation:Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Classically in the peripheral nervous system, it diffuses from a presynaptic nerve ending to the post synaptic effecter cell which is mainly smooth muscle cells in the gastrointestinal, respiratory and urogenital tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which vitamin is found in NAD and NADP?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Vitamin B3
Explanation:In organisms, NAD can be synthesized from simple building-blocks (de novo) from the amino acids tryptophan or aspartic acid. In an alternative fashion, more complex components of the coenzymes are taken up from food as the vitamin called niacin (vitamin B3)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 43
Correct
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With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true:
Your Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females
Explanation:X linked disorders are more common in males as they only need one mutated copy of the X chromosome to manifest the disease with full severity while the females need two X chromosomes to manifest the disease, even with one defected X chromosome the severity is less than that seen in males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria for the metabolic syndrome?
Your Answer: Low HDL
Correct Answer: High LDL
Explanation:The World Health Organization 1999 criteria require the presence of any one of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, AND two of the following:
- Blood pressure: ≥ 140/90 mmHg
- Dyslipidaemia: triglycerides (TG): ≥ 1.695 mmol/L and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) ≤ 0.9 mmol/L (male), ≤ 1.0 mmol/L (female)
- Central obesity: waist: hip ratio > 0.90 (male); > 0.85 (female), or body mass index > 30 kg/m2
- Microalbuminuria: urinary albumin excretion ratio ≥ 20 µg/min or albumin: creatinine ratio ≥ 30 mg/g
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12?
Your Answer: Yellow vegetables and fruit
Correct Answer: Liver, meat
Explanation:No fungi, plants, nor animals (including humans) are capable of producing vitamin B12. Only bacteria and archaea have the enzymes needed for its synthesis. Proved food sources of B12 are animal products (meat, fish, dairy products).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 46
Incorrect
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The enzyme located on the brush border of the small intestine activating the proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins is called?
Your Answer: Procarboxypeptidase
Correct Answer: Enterokinase
Explanation:Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme of the duodenum that activates proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by the action of enterokinase. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the pancreatic acinar cells and are enzymes that aid in protein digestion. Pepsin is secreted by chief cells of the gastric mucosa. Procarboxydase is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase which is converted to its active form by trypsin and is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents to the ER allegedly claiming that he consumed a bottle of antifreeze. Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with this kind of poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Loss of vision after consumption of antifreeze is a characteristic presentation of methanol poisoning.
Pathophysiology of methanol toxicity: When ingested, methanol is absorbed rapidly via the gastrointestinal tract in less than 10 minutes. Methanol is not protein-bound and is absorbed directly into the total body water compartment. Metabolism occurs mainly in the liver through serial oxidation via alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase but begins with alcohol dehydrogenase present in the gastric mucosa. Alcohol dehydrogenase oxidizes methanol to formaldehyde, and aldehyde dehydrogenase subsequently oxidizes formaldehyde to formic acid. Formic acid is the primary toxic metabolite that accounts for the associated anion gap metabolic acidosis and end-organ damage.
Clinical presentation: Patients who present within the first 12 to 24 hours following ingestion may appear normal, and this is described as the latent period. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain subsequently ensue, followed by CNS depression and hyperventilation due to metabolic acidosis. Ocular symptoms associated with retinal toxicity are often evident in the form of blurry vision, decreased visual acuity, photophobia, and “halo vision.”
Treatment: Treatment options for methanol toxicity include supportive care, fomepizole (Antizole, 4-Methylpyrazole or 4MP), ethanol, dialysis, and folate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenomegaly
Explanation:Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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The HIV virus:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: P24 is a core protein
Explanation:HIV is different in structure from other retroviruses. It is roughly spherical with a diameter of about 120 nm, around 60 times smaller than a red blood cell. It is composed of two copies of positive single-stranded RNA that codes for the virus’s nine genes enclosed by a conical capsid composed of 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. The single-stranded RNA is tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins, p7, and enzymes needed for the development of the virion such as reverse transcriptase, proteases, ribonuclease and integrase. A matrix composed of the viral protein p17 surrounds the capsid ensuring the integrity of the virion particle. Reverse transcriptase copies the viral single stranded RNA genome into a double-stranded viral DNA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
