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  • Question 1 - Can you identify a condition that falls under the category of tauopathy? ...

    Correct

    • Can you identify a condition that falls under the category of tauopathy?

      Your Answer: Pick's disease

      Explanation:

      Tau and Tauopathies

      Tau proteins are essential for maintaining the stability of microtubules in neurons. Microtubules provide structural support to the cell and facilitate the transport of molecules within the cell. Tau proteins are predominantly found in the axons of neurons and are absent in dendrites. The gene that codes for tau protein is located on chromosome 17.

      When tau proteins become hyperphosphorylated, they clump together, forming neurofibrillary tangles. This process leads to the disintegration of cells, which is a hallmark of several neurodegenerative disorders collectively known as tauopathies.

      The major tauopathies include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia), progressive supranuclear palsy, and corticobasal degeneration. These disorders are characterized by the accumulation of tau protein in the brain, leading to the degeneration of neurons and cognitive decline. Understanding the role of tau proteins in these disorders is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is: ...

    Correct

    • In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is:

      Your Answer: 450-600 mls

      Explanation:

      CSF is produced around 20-25 ml per hour or 480-600ml per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the protein that binds to undesired cellular proteins to mark them...

    Correct

    • What is the protein that binds to undesired cellular proteins to mark them for breakdown by the proteasome?

      Your Answer: Ubiquitin

      Explanation:

      The Function of Proteasomes in Protein Degradation

      Proteasomes play a crucial role in breaking down proteins that are produced within the cell. These cylindrical complexes are present in both the nucleus and cytoplasm of the cell. The process of protein degradation involves the tagging of proteins with a small protein called ubiquitin. The proteasome consists of a core structure made up of four stacked rings surrounding a central pore. Each ring is composed of seven individual proteins. This structure allows for the efficient degradation of proteins, ensuring that the cell can maintain proper protein levels and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the number of half-lives needed for a drug to be eliminated...

    Correct

    • What is the number of half-lives needed for a drug to be eliminated by 97% from the body?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old woman has been referred to your outpatient clinic by her psychiatrist....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been referred to your outpatient clinic by her psychiatrist. Her family are concerned that she has recently started binge eating. Her psychiatrist changed her medication two weeks prior.
      Which of the following treatments is she most likely to have been started on by her psychiatrist?:

      Your Answer: Pramipexole

      Explanation:

      Pramipexole, a dopamine agonist used to treat Parkinson’s disease, has been linked to the development of pathological gambling, which is disproportionately common in patients with Parkinson’s disease. While levodopa treatment alone is not associated with pathological gambling, all dopamine agonists have been implicated, with pramipexole being the most common due to its high selectivity for D3 receptors in the limbic system. Quetiapine is unlikely to cause pathological gambling, and amantadine, a weaker dopamine agonist than pramipexole, is also less likely to be implicated. Memantine, an NMDA antagonist that reduces glutamate excitability, may have some potential in treating pathological gambling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old female is experiencing extreme fear as she hears voices every time...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female is experiencing extreme fear as she hears voices every time her washing machine is on. These voices are urging her to flee the house with a sharp object. What type of perceptual disturbance is she likely experiencing?

      Your Answer: Functional hallucination

      Explanation:

      – Functional hallucination requires an external stimulus to provoke the hallucination
      – The normal perception and hallucination are in the same modality
      – Example: sound of the boiler triggers auditory hallucinations
      – Extracampine hallucinations occur outside of one’s sensory field
      – Reflex hallucination is when a stimulus in one modality produces hallucination in another
      – Reflex hallucination is a form of synaesthesia
      – Third person auditory hallucination is when a person hears voices talking about them as a third person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?

      Your Answer: Reticulospinal

      Explanation:

      Reticulospinal tract pass down from the reticular formation of the mid brain, pons and medulla. It descends in the lateral white column. Both sets of fibers enter the anterior grey column and may facilitate or inhibit the gamma and alpha neurons. By this means the reticulospinal tract controls voluntary and reflex activities. It also contains the descending autonomic fiber, thus providing a pathway for the hypothalamus to control the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What developmental milestones are typical for infants between 5 and 9 months of...

    Correct

    • What developmental milestones are typical for infants between 5 and 9 months of age?

      Your Answer: Secondary circular reactions

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the term used to describe the feeling of being unfamiliar with...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the feeling of being unfamiliar with a person of situation that is actually known?

      Your Answer: Jamais vu

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old habitual smoker was admitted to the hospital due to a decline...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old habitual smoker was admitted to the hospital due to a decline in his mental health. The nurse on duty suggested a smoking cessation program to him. He informed the nurse that he was seriously contemplating quitting smoking in the next six months and was planning to quit within the next 30 days. According to Prochaska and DiClemente's transtheoretical model of change, what stage of quitting is he in?

      Your Answer: Preparation

      Explanation:

      This individual is currently in the preparation phase of quitting smoking. According to Prochaska et al.’s stages of change model, this means they are currently smoking but have a strong intention to quit within the next 30 days and have been seriously considering quitting for the past six months. The stages of change are a spiral, meaning individuals may move back and forth between stages and even experience relapses. The other stages include precontemplation (not considering quitting within the next six months), contemplation (seriously considering quitting within the next six months but not within the next 30 days), action (currently not smoking and quit within the last six months), and maintenance (currently not smoking and quit more than six months ago).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A concerned individual informs you that their 40-year-old friend has been housebound for...

    Correct

    • A concerned individual informs you that their 40-year-old friend has been housebound for the past year due to anxiety. The friend last went shopping a year ago and expressed feeling too nervous to leave the house again. The individual reports no knowledge of any panic attacks. The friend is now experiencing low mood and has begun to lose contact with friends. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Agoraphobia

      Explanation:

      Agoraphobia is the most probable diagnosis, even though not all individuals with agoraphobia experience panic attacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What medication belongs to the class of SNRIs? ...

    Correct

    • What medication belongs to the class of SNRIs?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      Some significant SNRIs (Serotonin Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors) are Venlafaxine and Duloxetine.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - At what level of moral development theory is Nazma, who believes that saving...

    Correct

    • At what level of moral development theory is Nazma, who believes that saving a life is more important than property rights, even if it means breaking the law?

      Your Answer: Social contracts and individual rights

      Explanation:

      Kohlberg’s moral development theory identifies stages 5 and 6 as post-conventional morality, which only 15% of individuals reach. This stage involves the capacity to discern conflicting moral standards and comprehend the variations in moral standards across different societies. Nazma’s reasoning demonstrates her ability to do so. In contrast, at the conventional morality stage, she may have given the same response but relied on someone else’s judgment regarding whether property of life takes precedence. The ultimate stage of Kohlberg’s moral development is universal principles, which refers to the ability to evaluate the correctness of our society’s regulations and assess their fairness from the standpoint of social justice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Under which classification does Flupentixol fall? ...

    Correct

    • Under which classification does Flupentixol fall?

      Your Answer: Thioxanthene

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What are the two purine bases? ...

    Correct

    • What are the two purine bases?

      Your Answer: Adenine and guanine

      Explanation:

      Nucleotides: The Building Blocks of DNA and RNA

      Nucleotides are the fundamental units of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Each nucleotide consists of three components: a sugar molecule (deoxyribose in DNA and ribose in RNA), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. The nitrogenous bases can be classified into two categories: purines and pyrimidines. The purine bases include adenine and guanine, while the pyrimidine bases are cytosine, thymine (in DNA), and uracil (in RNA).

      The arrangement of nucleotides in DNA and RNA determines the genetic information that is passed from one generation to the next. The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA forms the genetic code that determines the traits of an organism. RNA, on the other hand, plays a crucial role in protein synthesis by carrying the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes, where proteins are synthesized.

      Understanding the structure and function of nucleotides is essential for understanding the molecular basis of life. The discovery of the structure of DNA and the role of nucleotides in genetic information has revolutionized the field of biology and has led to many breakthroughs in medicine, biotechnology, and genetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the term for the hallucinations that occur when someone is about...

    Correct

    • What is the term for the hallucinations that occur when someone is about to fall asleep?

      Your Answer: Hypnagogic hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Hallucinations that occur when falling asleep are called hypnagogic and are typically short and basic, such as simple sounds of flashes of light. Non-complex hallucinations, like sudden noises of brief flashes, are referred to as elementary hallucinations and can happen at any time. Tactile hallucinations are also known as haptic hallucinations. On the other hand, hypnopompic hallucinations are experienced upon waking up. It’s important to note that pseudohallucinations are not related to sleep and do not have the same quality as real perceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is found in the posterior cavity of the eye? ...

    Correct

    • What is found in the posterior cavity of the eye?

      Your Answer: Vitreous humor

      Explanation:

      The eye ball contains an anterior cavity and a posterior cavity. The anterior cavity once again is divided into the anterior chamber and posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with aqueous humor whereas the posterior cavity contains vitreous humor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You observe a 42-year-old woman with delusions referred by her primary care physician....

    Correct

    • You observe a 42-year-old woman with delusions referred by her primary care physician. She is convinced that George Clooney is deeply in love with her. Over the past two months, she has attempted to send him 50 handwritten letters, along with numerous gifts. She frequently visits locations associated with the actor and places where he is attending public events. She believes that he is unable to express his true feelings for her due to the potential backlash from his wife and fans. What syndrome is being exhibited in this scenario?

      Your Answer: De Clérambault's syndrome

      Explanation:

      De Clérambault’s syndrome is characterized by amorous delusions where the patient believes that a person of higher social status, often a public figure, is in love with them. These delusions are not based on any actual contact of encouragement from the subject. Patients with this syndrome may also experience delusions of persecution. Due to their strong belief in the reality of their delusions, patients often lack insight and may not seek help. Treatment can include psychotherapy and antipsychotics. Other syndromes with delusional symptoms include Capgras syndrome, Cotard’s syndrome, Ekbom’s syndrome, and Othello’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the codon that initiates polypeptide synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the codon that initiates polypeptide synthesis?

      Your Answer: AUG

      Explanation:

      The initiation codon for polypeptide synthesis is AUG, which also codes for the amino acid methionine. Therefore, all newly synthesized polypeptides begin with methionine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Where do the meningeal veins lie? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the meningeal veins lie?

      Your Answer: Endosteal layer of the dura

      Explanation:

      Meningeal veins lie in the endosteal layer of the dura. The veins lie lateral to the arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which statement accurately describes ribonucleic acid (RNA)? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes ribonucleic acid (RNA)?

      Your Answer: RNA is typically shorter than DNA

      Explanation:

      Enzymes called RNA polymerases, not transferases, transcribe RNA from DNA.

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the enzyme that is inhibited by disulfiram and responsible for its...

    Correct

    • What is the enzyme that is inhibited by disulfiram and responsible for its effect?

      Your Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response....

    Correct

    • A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response. However, they gain a considerable amount of weight and are eager to find a solution. Despite attempts to lower the dosage, relapse occurs. What medication has been proven to decrease weight when combined with clozapine?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is a true statement about attachment? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about attachment?

      Your Answer: Separation anxiety tends to occur after stranger anxiety

      Explanation:

      The critical period for development of attachment and social skills is between 6 and 36 months of age. During this time, infants and toddlers are particularly sensitive to their caregivers’ responses and interactions, which can shape their emotional and social development. This period is crucial for establishing secure attachments and developing social skills that will influence their relationships throughout their lives.

      Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys

      Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.

      Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.

      Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The most probable diagnosis for a diabetic patient who has started taking antidepressants...

    Correct

    • The most probable diagnosis for a diabetic patient who has started taking antidepressants and presents with symptoms of nausea, headaches, and low plasma sodium levels is:

      Your Answer: SIADH

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium? ...

    Correct

    • Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium?

      Your Answer: Avoid regular visits from family

      Explanation:

      Delirium Management

      Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.

      Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The consensual light reflex is co-ordinated mainly in the: ...

    Correct

    • The consensual light reflex is co-ordinated mainly in the:

      Your Answer: Edinger-Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The consensual light reflex occurs when an individual’s right eye is shielded and light shines into the left eye, constriction of the right pupil will occur, as well as the left. This is because the afferent signal sent through one optic nerve connects to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, whose axons run to both the right and the left oculomotor nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night....

    Correct

    • A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night. She spots what appears to be a figure of a person in the distance and decides to cross the street. Upon approaching, she realizes that it was just a shadow created by a nearby streetlight. What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: An illusion

      Explanation:

      An affect illusion is when a person’s perception is distorted by the shadow cast from a tree. Hallucinations, on the other hand, occur when there is no external stimulus present. It is important to note that a delusion is a belief, rather than a perception.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A researcher studying obesity in adolescents is interested in creating a medication that...

    Correct

    • A researcher studying obesity in adolescents is interested in creating a medication that suppresses hunger. Which neuropeptide transmitter would be the target for developing an antagonist drug?

      Your Answer: Neuropeptide Y

      Explanation:

      Neuropeptide Y is a neuropeptide that stimulates appetite and is a target for developing antagonists in obesity research. Angiotensin is a peptide hormone involved in controlling blood pressure through vasoconstriction. Cholecystokinin has been linked to schizophrenia, eating disorders, movement disorders, anxiety, and panic attacks. Neurotensin is hypothesized to be involved in schizophrenia due to its co-existence with dopamine in some axon terminals. Substance P is primarily associated with pain perception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is a fundamental rule of how our brain organizes...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a fundamental rule of how our brain organizes what we see?

      Your Answer: The cocktail party effect is an example of figure-ground perceptual organisation

      Explanation:

      Perception is an active process that involves being aware of and interpreting sensations received through our sensory organs. When we perceive something, we tend to focus on patterns that stand out from their background, such as when we hear our name being mentioned in a crowded room (known as the cocktail party phenomenon). Our brain also tends to group similar items together and perceive interrupted lines as continuous (known as the law of continuity). Additionally, our eyes have the ability to adjust their focus from distant objects to closer ones (known as accommodation), which helps us perceive depth and distance. Pictorial depth, such as in a painting of photograph, can enhance our perception by providing more detailed and realistic visual cues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
      6.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (5/5) 100%
Neuro-anatomy (5/5) 100%
Psychopharmacology (7/7) 100%
Descriptive Psychopathology (2/2) 100%
Psychological Development (3/3) 100%
Classification And Assessment (2/2) 100%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/1) 100%
Diagnosis (2/2) 100%
Old Age Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Neurological Examination (1/1) 100%
Basic Psychological Processes (1/1) 100%
Passmed