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  • Question 1 - A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary...

    Correct

    • A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Low baseline TSH level

      Explanation:

      A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician after a sexual encounter with...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician after a sexual encounter with his new girlfriend during which they had sexual intercourse around ten days ago. The girlfriend's HIV status is unknown, and the patient is concerned that he might have acquired HIV. He has a blood test for a 4th generation assay, testing for HIV antibody and a p24 antigen. The results come out negative, however, HIV infection cannot be ruled out as he may be presenting in the window period. Which of the following most likely explains the pathology of the window period?

      Your Answer: Antibodies to HIV undetectable

      Explanation:

      Any blood test used to detect HIV infection must have a high degree of sensitivity (the probability that the test will be positive if the patient is infected) and specificity (the probability that the test will be negative if the patient is uninfected). Unfortunately, no antibody test is ever 100 % sensitive and specific. Therefore, if available, all positive test results should be confirmed by retesting, preferably by a different test method. HIV antibody tests usually become positive within 3 months of the individual being infected with the virus (the window period). In some individuals, the test may not be positive until 6 months or longer (considered unusual). In some countries, home testing kits are available. These tests are not very reliable, and support such as pre and post test counselling is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever and urinary urgency. The temperature is recorded to be 39C. Which of the following is the best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Clean catch of urine

      Explanation:

      Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      72.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are located in the scrotum and are small and soft. What is the most likely diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is Kallmann’s syndrome.Kallmann’s syndrome is due to isolated gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency. It is often inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Other options:- While Klinefelter’s syndrome is also associated with hypogonadism, the other clinical features of Klinefelter’s are not seen. – Cryptorchidism is ruled out by the presence of testes in the scrotum. – The presentation of the child is not suggestive of mumps orchitis or hyperprolactinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      149
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate...

    Correct

    • What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate nutritional input?

      Your Answer: 15g/kg/day

      Explanation:

      The general target of weight gain in the neonatal intensive care unit is to replicate the intrauterine growth in the third trimester, which equates to the daily weight gain of nearly 15 g/kg/day with infants receiving 120 kcal/kg/day

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones...

    Correct

    • Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones be able to perform?

      Your Answer: Pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor

      Explanation:

      Among the given options a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones will be able to pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor.Other options:- Bouncing and catching a ball is learnt by the age of 5.- The ability to pedal a tricycle should be attained by 3 years of age, not 2.- A child can walk on tip-toe by 2.5 and run on tip-toe by (option D) 3 years of age, not 2.- The ability to momentarily maintain balance using one leg (option E) should be attained by 3 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his...

    Correct

    • A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his thumbs are dysplastic. Clinical and paraclinical exams suggest an acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fanconi anaemia

      Explanation:

      Fanconi anaemia, a rare autosomal recessive condition, presents with congenital abnormalities and defective hemopoiesis. Clinical signs include pallor and bruising. Hypoplasia of the thumbs and radial hypoplasia are two of the most common congenital abnormalities. Conductive deafness is also common. Those with Fanconi anaemia have a higher risk for developing acute myeloid leukaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?

      Your Answer: Leydig cell tumour

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 4 year old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer: Sweat chloride test

      Correct Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT...

    Correct

    • A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?

      Your Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome

      Explanation:

      Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with jaundice. His labs reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. AST, ALT, albumin and clotting are in normal range. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody level is positive. Radiological examination shows multi-focal strictures and irregularity of both intra and extra hepatic bile ducts which has resulted in a 'beads on a string' appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a long-term progressive disease of the liver and gallbladder characterized by inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts which normally allow bile to drain from the gallbladder. Early cholangiographic changes can include fine or deep ulcerations of the common bile duct. As PSC progresses, segmental fibrosis develops within the bile ducts, with saccular dilatation of the normal areas between them, leading to the typical beads-on-a-string appearance seen on cholangiography. Although these strictures can be found anywhere on the biliary tree, the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts are simultaneously involved in the vast majority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her food intake has drastically reduced but she is drinking normally. She also complains that she feels tired all the time.On examination, the presence of aphthous ulcers and generalized abdominal tenderness was noted. Considering the clinical presentation, what could be the most probable underlying disorder causing the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Crohn’s disease.Crohn’s disease:An inflammatory bowel disease which can affect any part of the bowel from the mouth to the anus. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia and weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations include arthritis, uveitis, fatigue, anaemia and rashes including pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.Other options:- Anorexia nervosa is an important diagnosis to consider. There are no indicators in the description that she has a fear of gaining weight or a strong desire to be thin.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is incorrect because there is no polydipsia or polyuria. A patient in DKA is more likely to present with vomiting and not diarrhoea.- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is not a correct answer because it does not explain all of the symptoms described, only the mouth ulcers.- Ulcerative colitis (UC) is also incorrect. UC is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the colon. The main symptom is bloody stools, which is not mentioned as a feature in history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:

      Your Answer: Midgut

      Explanation:

      From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the following commands would he be able to follow?

      Your Answer: Point to three body parts

      Explanation:

      A 2 year old child who is developing normally should be able to point to three body parts, identify familiar objects in his environment such as a crayon or a toy and follow simple instructions.At 3 years old he should be able to copy a circle, jump up and down and name three colours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      71.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central precocious puberty?

      Your Answer: GnRH stimulation test

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. The best laboratory investigation to diagnose central precocious puberty is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, which is regarded as the gold standard. It requires the collection of multiple blood samples at different time points to measure FSH and LH levels. If the LH levels increase to >8IU/L after stimulation with GnRH, then the diagnosis of central precocious puberty is confirmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness...

    Incorrect

    • A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?

      Your Answer: Absence of, or few, blisters

      Correct Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted

      Explanation:

      Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin graftedThird-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      112.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal enuresis. A urine dipstick reveals no glucose or ketones, but her pregnancy test is positive.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gestational diabetes

      Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      The presenting features with the positive pregnancy test are highly suggestive of gestational diabetes mellitus.Diabetes Insipidus:It is much less common than gestational diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by the inability to concentrate urine, with marked thirst.Presenting symptoms include polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis.Physical examination may reveal features of dehydration and an enlarged bladder.Investigations include biochemical analysis for electrolytes, urine and plasma osmolality, fluid deprivation test, and cranial MRI.The main differential diagnosis is for diabetes insipidus is psychogenic polydipsia.There are three broad categories of diabetes insipidus (DI): – Central (cranial) DI: It is the most common form of diabetes insipidus.It occurs due to decreased secretion of ADH. It usually occurs due to hypothalamic disease and may show response to low-dose desmopressin.- Peripheral (nephrogenic) DI:It is characterised by the resistance of the kidney to ADH.It usually does not respond to low-dose desmopressin.- Gestational DI:It is rare and is mostly seen in teenage pregnancy.It usually presents in the third trimester and often resolves 4-6 weeks post-partum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a...

    Correct

    • Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:

      Your Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5

      Explanation:

      Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was...

    Correct

    • A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas

      Explanation:

      History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 1 week old baby boy is taken to the A&E department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 week old baby boy is taken to the A&E department after a right sided groin swelling had been noticed. An examination is done and the testes are correctly located but there is a right sided inguinal hernia that is soft and easily reduced. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Surgery once the child is 6 months old

      Correct Answer: Surgery over the next few days

      Explanation:

      Answer: Surgery over the next few daysInguinal hernia is a type of ventral hernia that occurs when an intra-abdominal structure, such as bowel or omentum, protrudes through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias do not spontaneously heal and must be surgically repaired because of the ever-present risk of incarceration. Generally, a surgical consultation should be made at the time of diagnosis, and repair (on an elective basis) should be performed very soon after the diagnosis is confirmed.The infant or child with an inguinal hernia generally presents with an obvious bulge at the internal or external ring or within the scrotum. The parents typically provide the history of a visible swelling or bulge, commonly intermittent, in the inguinoscrotal region in boys and inguinolabial region in girls. The swelling may or may not be associated with any pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are worried that he might have delayed growth as all his friends are taller than him. On examination, he has a preadolescent body habitus and no evidence of development of secondary sexual characteristics. Serum LH, FSH, and testosterone all match prepubertal range. Following an injection of GnRH, the LH and FSH concentrations increase only slightly. However, when the GnRH is given daily for 7 days, a normal response is elicited. Which of the following is the most likely causing this boy's delayed puberty?

      Your Answer: A hypothalamic disorder

      Explanation:

      Hypogonadotropic hypogonadismIn Kallmann syndrome: impaired migration of GnRH cells and defective olfactory bulb → ↓ GnRH in hypothalamus → ↓ FSH and ↓ LH → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogenIn hypothalamic and/or pituitary lesions: ↓ pituitary gonadotropins (↓ FSH and ↓ LH) → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogen

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his partner whose HIV status is not known. He is concerned about his risk of acquiring HIV. He is feeling well and shows no symptoms. The physician offers him a post exposure prophylaxis, which consists of 3 different antiviral drugs. Two of these drugs act by which of the following mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of viral reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Recommended regimens3 NRTI (e.g., zidovudine, lamivudine, abacavir) OR2 NRTI (e.g., lamivudine + abacavir) AND1 NNRTI (e.g., efavirenz) OR1 PI (e.g., lopinavir) OR1 INI (e.g., raltegravir)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile foreskin has been treated with 1% hydrocortisone for 3 months. He presents with a white and thickened foreskin. What would you do next to manage his condition?

      Your Answer: Circumcision with urethral calibration

      Explanation:

      The boy suffers from balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO) which is surgically treated with circumcision and urethral calibration. In fact, the condition is the only true medical indication for circumcision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?

      Your Answer: Right mainstem bronchus

      Explanation:

      Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1–3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi| approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is not associated with DiGeorge syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not associated with DiGeorge syndrome?

      Your Answer: Normal IQ

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge syndrome is one of the most common microdeletion syndromes, resulting from 22q11 deletion. 10% of the cases can be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, while 90% are sporadic. The syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of both T and B-cell lines along with hearing loss, 20-fold increased lifetime chances of developing schizophrenia, renal abnormalities, congenital heart defects, and a borderline or low IQ. Distinctive facial features include micrognathia, long face, short philtrum, cleft palate, and small teeth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 18-year-old pregnant female is brought to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old pregnant female is brought to the emergency department with complaints of headache, blurred vision and abdominal pain. Her BP is recorded to be 160/110 mmHg and she is also found to have proteinuria. Which of the following findings will typically be found in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets

      Explanation:

      HELLP syndrome is a complication of pregnancy characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and a low platelet count. It usually begins during the last three months of pregnancy or shortly after childbirth. HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening condition that can potentially complicate pregnancy. It is named for 3 features of the condition: Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme levels, and Low Platelet levels. It typically occurs in the last 3 months of pregnancy (the third trimester) but can also start soon after delivery. A wide range of non-specific symptoms may be present in women with HELLP syndrome. Symptoms may include fatigue| malaise| fluid retention and excess weight gain| headache| nausea and vomiting| pain in the upper right or middle of the abdomen| blurry vision| and rarely, nosebleed or seizures. The cause of HELLP syndrome is not known, but certain risk factors have been associated with the condition. It is most common in women with preeclampsia or eclampsia. If not diagnosed and treated quickly, HELLP syndrome can lead to serious complications for the mother and baby. The main treatment is to deliver the baby as soon as possible, even if premature, if there is distress of the mother or the baby. Treatment may also include medications needed for the mother or baby, and blood transfusion for severe bleeding problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency department with colicky pain. The boy has experienced such episodes of pain in the past, which radiates from his loin to the groin. After clinical examination and investigations, a 7mm stone has been found in his ureter. What is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Conservative treatment

      Explanation:

      Renal stones < 5mm generally pass spontaneously with adequate fluid intake. Stones 5mm-10mm with pain not resolving, require medical expulsive therapy with Nifedipine or Tamsulosin. For stones larger than 10mm, ESWL or Ureteroscopy is indicated. For stones as big as 2cm, percutaneous nephrolithotomy should be applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      29.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (4/4) 100%
HIV (2/2) 100%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Child Development (2/2) 100%
Emergency Medicine (2/3) 67%
Genitourinary (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/2) 50%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (1/2) 50%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed